UPSC CSE Prelims 2014 GS Paper 1 — Interactive PYQ Quiz

Legacy IAS Academy — UPSC CSE Prelims 2014 GS Paper 1 · Interactive Quiz
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Interactive PYQ · 2014
UPSC CSE Prelims · 2014

General Studies Paper 1

All 100 previous year questions with instant answer reveal. Click any option to test yourself, track your progress, and build exam-day intuition.

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2014 Paper at a Glance

100 questions · 10 subjects · 73 chapters
Dominant Subject
Environment
26 / 100  •  26% of the paper
Difficulty Mode
Medium
47 questions  •  middle-ground paper
Easy Bucket
17%
Few freebies — be sharp
Fundamental Bias
68%
Balanced concept / current affairs
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Ancient India The Mahajanapadas Fundamental Medium
Q1

Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

  1. 1Avanti
  2. 2Gandhara
  3. 3Kosala
  4. 4Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 3 and 4 only.

  • Avanti — capital Ujjayini; associated with later Buddhism but NOT directly with the Buddha's own travels in his lifetime → NO.
  • Gandhara — far NW (Taxila); Buddhism spread there much later under Ashoka → NO.
  • Kosala — capital Shravasti; the Buddha spent many rain-retreats at Jetavana here → YES.
  • Magadha — capital Rajgir; Bimbisara and Ajatashatru were patrons; Bodh Gaya (enlightenment) and Rajgir (first sermons) are here → YES.

Word Association — 'life of the Buddha' anchors to his geographical circuit: Magadha (Rajgir, Bodh Gaya) and Kosala (Shravasti) — the canonical Buddha-kingdoms. UPSC Favourite Area — Buddhism is a favourite UPSC topic; core fact. Odd One Out — Gandhara (far NW) is clearly outside the Buddha's Gangetic circuit → eliminate.

Medieval History The Mughal Empire Fundamental Easy
Q2

Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions. Ibadat Khana ('House of Worship') was built by Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575. Initially meant for Sufi discussions, it was opened up in 1578 to scholars of all faiths — Hindus, Jains, Zoroastrians, Christians, Jews — for inter-religious dialogue. This led to Din-i-Ilahi (1582).

  • (a) Wrong — not a mosque; royal family had Jami Masjid.
  • (b) Wrong — not a private prayer chamber.
  • (d) Misleading — it was scholars, not 'nobles'.

Word Association — 'Ibadat Khana' + Akbar → inter-religious dialogue is the canonical association. UPSC Favourite Area — Akbar's syncretism is tested repeatedly. First Among Equals — (c) is the broader, more accurate framing (scholars across religions) vs (d) narrower (only nobles).

Medieval History Early Medieval India: Age of Regional Configurations (c. 600–1200 CE) Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q3

In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): village headmen. In early medieval India (c. 600–1200 CE), 'Mahattara' (elder, chief) and 'Pattakila' (patel/village leader) were titles for VILLAGE HEADMEN — the local administrative authority responsible for revenue collection, customary disputes, and village affairs. Attested in inscriptions across north and central India.

  • (a), (c), (d) are unrelated medieval designations.

Ancient / Medieval Terminology — medieval terms almost always relate to economic affairs or administration (ports, coins, revenue officers, village heads) — the PDF cue applies directly. Word Association — 'Pattakila' sounds like 'Patel' (village head in modern Gujarat/Maharashtra), hinting at the headman role.

Modern History Era of Militant Nationalism (1905–1909) Fundamental Medium
Q4

The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): King George V abrogated Curzon's Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911. Curzon partitioned Bengal in 1905 on communal lines, triggering the Swadeshi Movement. British bowed to sustained agitation and, at the Delhi Durbar of December 1911, King George V annulled the partition — the same darbar that also shifted the capital from Calcutta to Delhi. Hence it lasted ~6 years, 1905-1911.

  • (a) Wrong — ended well before WWI.
  • (c) Wrong — CDM was 1930, decades later.
  • (d) Wrong — 1947 is the Partition of India, a different event entirely.

British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — the narrative framing is 'Indians forced British retreat'; option (b) matches this narrative. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — straight historical fact, don't overthink sequencing.

Modern History Simon Commission and the Civil Disobedience Movement Fundamental Easy
Q5

The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress. The 1929 Lahore Session, under Jawaharlal Nehru's presidency, is landmark because INC formally adopted 'Poorna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) as its goal — replacing the earlier goal of 'Dominion Status' / Self-Government. January 26, 1930 was celebrated as Poorna Swaraj Day.

  • (a) Wrong — 'Self-Government' was the older, weaker goal; Lahore transcended it.
  • (c) Wrong — NCM was 1920.
  • (d) Wrong — RTC participation came later (1930-32).

British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — Poorna Swaraj reflects stronger nationalist assertion — the narratively correct choice. Word Association — 'Lahore Session 1929' + 'significance' → the iconic Poorna Swaraj declaration.

Modern History First Phase of Revolutionary Activities (1907–1917) Fundamental Easy
Q6

The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco. The Ghadr Party was founded in 1913 by Indian immigrants in San Francisco (USA), led by Lala Hardayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar Singh Sarabha. It published the Ghadr newspaper in multiple Indian languages; planned armed uprising during WWI. Many members returned to India in 1914-15 for the (failed) Ghadr conspiracy.

  • (b) Wrong — Singapore was associated with INA/Bose later.
  • (c) Wrong — Berlin Committee was a separate outfit.
  • (d) Wrong — Tashkent was the Communist Party of India's founding venue (1920, M.N. Roy).

Word Association — 'Ghadr' (Urdu/Hindi for 'revolt') + overseas diaspora → San Francisco-based revolutionary paper. British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — the 'revolutionary association' framing of freedom fighters is the expected narrative.

Modern History The Revolt of 1857 Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q7

What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

  1. 1To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
  2. 2To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
  3. 3To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2 only. Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858), read out by Lord Canning at Allahabad after the Revolt of 1857:

  • S1 CORRECT — it disclaimed any further intention to annex Indian States (Doctrine of Lapse abandoned); treaties with Indian princes would be honoured.
  • S2 CORRECT — it placed Indian administration under the British Crown (ending East India Company rule per Government of India Act 1858).
  • S3 WRONG — it did NOT regulate EIC's trade; EIC's trade monopoly had already been abolished in 1813 (with China trade in 1833), and the 1858 Act ended Company RULE altogether.

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — post-1857 constitutional moment is textbook; no trick needed. Word Association — Queen Victoria Proclamation (1858) = 'magna carta of Indian princes' on annexation + Crown takeover; trade regulation belongs to earlier Charter Acts.

Modern History Quit India Movement and Other Events (1940–1947) Fundamental Easy
Q8

The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan. The Radcliffe Boundary Commission, chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe, was set up in July 1947 to demarcate the border between India and Pakistan (Punjab and Bengal partitions). Radcliffe had never visited India before and was given just 5 weeks. The award was announced Aug 17, 1947.

  • (a) Wrong — minorities addressed in separate frameworks.
  • (b) Vague — the Independence Act was implemented by many authorities; 'give effect to' is weaker than 'delimit boundaries'.
  • (d) Wrong — East Bengal riots were before Radcliffe's mandate.

Word Association — 'Radcliffe' → the boundary line between India and Pakistan (Radcliffe Line). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — textbook fact.

Art and Culture Indian Dance Forms Fundamental Medium
Q9

With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:

  1. 1Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
  2. 2It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
  3. 3It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 2 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Sattriya is inherently a composite tradition of music + dance + drama, developed in the sattras (Vaishnavite monasteries).
  • S2 CORRECT — founded by 15th-century Vaishnavite saint Sankaradeva in Assam; a centuries-old living tradition in Assamese sattras.
  • S3 WRONG — Sattriya uses Assamese devotional songs (Borgeet) composed by Sankaradeva and Madhavadeva; NOT songs of Tulsidas / Kabir / Mirabai (who are north-Indian Bhakti poets, not Assamese).

Exchange of Options — S3 swaps the correct composers (Sankaradeva/Madhavadeva) with unrelated north-Indian Bhakti figures. Word Association — 'Sattriya' + 'Assam' + 'Vaishnavite' → Sankaradeva, not Tulsidas/Kabir.

Art and Culture Calendars in India Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q10

Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 22 March (or 21st March). The Indian National Calendar (Saka calendar) was adopted in 1957. Chaitra is its first month. In a normal 365-day year, Chaitra 1 corresponds to 22 March; in a leap year, it corresponds to 21 March.

  • (b), (c), (d) are all dates well after March and do not correspond to Chaitra 1.

Word Association — Chaitra 1 = start of Indian new year near spring equinox (~21-22 March). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — a calendric fact, direct recall.

Art and Culture Indian Sculpture and Pottery Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q11

With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

#Famous work of sculptureSite
1A grand image of Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers belowAjanta
2A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rockMount Abu
3“Arjuna’s Penance” /”Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge bouldersMamallapuram

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Ajanta Cave 26 has a large reclining Buddha sculpture depicting Mahaparinirvana with celestial musicians above and sorrowful disciples below.
  • S2 WRONG — the huge Varaha sculpture rescuing Bhudevi from chaotic waters is at UDAYAGIRI (Madhya Pradesh, Gupta period, 5th c CE), NOT Mount Abu. Mount Abu is famous for Dilwara Jain temples.
  • S3 CORRECT — 'Arjuna's Penance' / 'Descent of Ganga' is the monumental rock relief at Mamallapuram (Pallava).

Exchange of Options — S2 swaps the site (Udayagiri → Mount Abu) — classic UPSC property-swap. Odd One Out — Mount Abu is famous for Jain sculpture (Dilwara), which doesn't match the Varaha description → eliminate.

Art and Culture Martial Arts in India Fundamental Easy
Q12

With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India. Kalaripayattu is a traditional martial art from Kerala, practised in 'kalari' training arenas. One of the world's oldest fighting systems, still taught and performed in Kerala. It involves strikes, kicks, grappling, weapons, and healing methods.

  • (a) Wrong — not a Bhakti cult.
  • (b) Wrong — not a metalwork tradition.
  • (c) Wrong — not a dance form (though stylistically related to Kathakali training).

Word Association — 'Kalaripayattu' + 'Kerala/South India' = martial art (the canonical answer). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — straight recall, don't overthink. Odd One Out — (d) is the only martial-art option among religious/craft/dance distractors.

Art and Culture Indian Dance Forms Fundamental Medium
Q13

Consider the following pairs:

#ItemMatch
1GarbaGujarat
2MohiniattamOdisha
3YakshaganaKarnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • Garba — Gujarat ✓ (folk dance during Navratri).
  • Mohiniattam — KERALA, not Odisha ✗. Odisha's classical dance is Odissi.
  • Yakshagana — Karnataka ✓ (dance-drama of coastal Karnataka).

Exchange of Options — Mohiniattam (Kerala) swapped with Odisha (whose dance is Odissi) — classic setter swap. Word Association — Mohini (enchantress of Vishnu) + attam (dance) → Kerala.

Art and Culture Religion in India Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q14

With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs:

#Famous shrineLocation
1Tabo monastery and temple complexSpiti Valley
2Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, NakoZanskar Valley
3Alchi temple complexLadakh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • Tabo monastery — Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh ✓ ('Ajanta of the Himalayas'); founded 996 CE.
  • Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako — in KINNAUR (Himachal Pradesh), NOT Zanskar Valley ✗.
  • Alchi temple complex — Ladakh ✓ (11th-12th c, Indo-Tibetan frescoes).

Exchange of Options — Nako's location is swapped (Kinnaur → Zanskar). Word Association — Tabo-Spiti, Alchi-Ladakh are canonical Himalayan Buddhist sites. UPSC Favourite Area — Buddhist heritage sites are tested repeatedly.

Art and Culture Bhakti and Sufi Movements Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q15

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
  2. 2The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — 'Bijak' is the compilation of the teachings/dohas of SAINT KABIR (not Dadu Dayal). Dadu's teachings are compiled in 'Dadu Vani'.
  • S2 WRONG — Pushti Marg ('path of grace') was founded by VALLABHACHARYA (1479–1531), NOT Madhvacharya. Madhvacharya (13th c) founded Dvaita Vedanta / Brahma Sampradaya.

Exchange of Options — both statements swap the correct figure (Kabir→Dadu, Vallabhacharya→Madhvacharya) — pure name-swap trap. UPSC Favourite Area — Bhakti saints + philosophy schools get regularly shuffled in pairing questions.

Art and Culture Indian Music Fundamental Medium
Q16

A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): musical tradition in North-West India. Manganiyars are a community of professional folk musicians from the Jaisalmer–Barmer region of Rajasthan (and parts of Sindh). Known for hereditary singing traditions — their patron families are called 'jajmans'. They perform ragas and folk songs with the kamaicha, khartal, and dholak.

  • (a) Wrong — not NE India or martial arts.
  • (c) Wrong — not South India or classical vocal.
  • (d) Wrong — pietra dura (inlay work) is a craft, not Manganiyars' domain.

Word Association — Manganiyars → Rajasthani folk music (desert region NW India). Odd One Out — (b) is the only music-related option.

Art and Culture Indian Architecture Fundamental Medium
Q17

With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): a style of temple construction. 'Panchayatan' ('five shrines') is an architectural style where a main central shrine is surrounded by four smaller subsidiary shrines in the corners of a rectangular compound — e.g., Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh (Gupta period). Distinct from Pancharatha and other shikhara classifications.

  • (a) Wrong — that's Panchayat (village-level governance).
  • (b) Wrong — not a sect.
  • (d) Wrong — not an official title.

Word Association — Panchayatan = pancha (five) + ayatan (shrines) → five-shrine temple layout. Ancient / Medieval Terminology — architectural terms like panchayatan, shikhara, mandapa, garbhagriha are staple UPSC fodder.

Art and Culture Indian Schools of Philosophy Fundamental Medium
Q18

Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Lokayata and Kapalika. The six orthodox (āstika) darshanas of Hindu philosophy are: (1) Nyaya, (2) Vaisheshika, (3) Sankhya, (4) Yoga, (5) Mimamsa, (6) Vedanta — they accept Vedic authority. Lokayata (Charvaka) — materialist, atheistic, nāstika → NOT part of the six darshanas. Kapalika — a Shaiva tantric sect, not a philosophical school in the classical six. Hence the (c) pair does NOT belong to the six systems.

Word Association — 'six orthodox systems' = Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Sankhya, Yoga, Mimamsa, Vedanta (the 'shad-darshana'). Odd One Out — Lokayata is explicitly nastika/materialist, standing apart from the others.

Art and Culture Indian Literature Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q19

The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Mundaka Upanishad. 'Satyameva Jayate' ('Truth alone triumphs') is inscribed in Devanagari below the Lion Capital of Ashoka (Emblem of India). It is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad (Chapter 3, Verse 6): 'Satyam eva jayate nānṛtam'.

  • (a) Katha Upanishad — famous for Nachiketa-Yama dialogue.
  • (b) Chandogya — 'Tat Tvam Asi' source.
  • (c) Aitareya — smaller Rig Vedic Upanishad.

Word Association — 'Satyameva Jayate' → Mundaka Upanishad (canonical sourcing fact). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct recall; no manipulation possible.

Art and Culture Tribal Culture in India Applied Medium-Difficult
Q20

Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Gond and Korku. The Gond and Korku tribes of central India (Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra) observe an annual month-long campaign called 'Vandan Vasundhara' / fruit-tree plantation festival where sapling plantings of fruit-bearing trees sustain forest food sources and local ecology.

  • (a) Bhutia/Lepcha — Sikkim/Darjeeling region.
  • (c) Irula/Toda — Nilgiris.
  • (d) Sahariya/Agariya — central India but not this specific festival.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'ecologically important campaign', 'plant saplings', 'fruit-bearing trees' → positive tribal-conservation framing favoured by UPSC. Hard to Verify / Disprove — community-festival facts are hard to cross-check → correct statement likely stays positive.

Art and Culture Tribal Culture in India Fundamental Medium
Q21

With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements :

  1. 1They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
  2. 2They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
  3. 3They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Changpas live in LADAKH (Changthang plateau), NOT Uttarakhand.
  • S2 CORRECT — they rear Changra (Pashmina) goats, whose soft undercoat is Pashmina wool used for Kashmiri shawls.
  • S3 CORRECT — Changpas are listed as a Scheduled Tribe (Ladakh).

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps the state (Ladakh → Uttarakhand) — classic setter move. Word Association — 'Changpa' → Changthang plateau in Ladakh → Pashmina.

Art and Culture Indian Handicrafts Fundamental Medium
Q22

Consider the following towns of India:

  1. 1Bhadrachalam
  2. 2Chanderi
  3. 3Kancheepuram
  4. 4Karnal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.

  • Bhadrachalam (Telangana) — not famous for sarees; known as a pilgrimage town (Rama temple).
  • Chanderi (Madhya Pradesh) — CELEBRATED for Chanderi sarees (handwoven cotton-silk). ✓
  • Kancheepuram (Tamil Nadu) — ICONIC for Kanjeevaram silk sarees. ✓
  • Karnal (Haryana) — agricultural town, not a saree/fabric centre.

Word Association — Chanderi, Kancheepuram = canonical Indian saree clusters. Odd One Out — Bhadrachalam and Karnal don't belong to India's famous saree-production belt.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News Applied Medium-Difficult
Q23

With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:

  1. 1It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
  2. 2It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
  3. 3It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — BNHS is a NON-GOVERNMENTAL ORGANISATION (founded 1883), NOT an autonomous organisation under MoEF. It is recognised by MoEFCC as a Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation but is fundamentally an NGO.
  • S2 CORRECT — BNHS's explicit mission is conservation through action-based research, education and public awareness.
  • S3 CORRECT — BNHS actively runs nature trails, bird walks, camps for public engagement (Mumbai, Delhi, etc.).

Vulnerable Statements — S1 specifies a specific ministry/administrative status that is easily verifiable → suspect. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S2's 'conservation through research, education, public awareness' is positive/generic framing → likely correct.

Art and Culture Languages in India Applied Medium
Q24

Consider the following languages:

  1. 1Gujatati
  2. 2Kannada
  3. 3Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 3 only. Classical Language status (as of 2014 — prior to Gujarati/Odia/Bengali updates): Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), KANNADA (2008), TELUGU (2008), Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014).

  • Gujarati — NOT a classical language (as of 2014).
  • Kannada ✓
  • Telugu ✓

Word Association — 'Classical Language' → pre-2014 list: Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, Odia. Gujarati is a Schedule-VIII language but not a classical one.

Indian Polity Anti-Defection Law Fundamental Easy
Q25

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Tenth Schedule. The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 — the Anti-Defection Law. It specifies disqualification of MPs/MLAs on grounds of defection.

  • Second Schedule — emoluments of President, Governors, Speakers, etc.
  • Fifth Schedule — administration of Scheduled Areas.
  • Eighth Schedule — 22 official languages.

Word Association — 'Anti-defection' + 'Schedule' → Tenth Schedule (1985). Constitution Qs — schedule-subject mapping is a direct, clean constitutional fact.

Indian Polity Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Easy
Q26

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 51 (DPSP) directly provides: 'The State shall endeavour to (a) promote international peace and security; (b) maintain just and honourable relations between nations; (c) foster respect for international law and treaty obligations; (d) encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.'

  • (a) Preamble — declares justice/liberty/equality/fraternity, not international relations.
  • (c) Fundamental Duties (Art 51A) — is citizen-directed, not State.
  • (d) Ninth Schedule — land reform laws.

Word Association — 'international peace and security' = Article 51, which sits inside Part IV (DPSP). Constitution Qs — exact article-part mapping is clean, no room for setter manipulation.

Indian Polity NITI Aayog Fundamental Medium
Q27

Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

  1. 1The Finance Commission
  2. 2The National Development Council
  3. 3The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  4. 4The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. 5The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 5 only. In 2014, 'Planning' was carried out by the Planning Commission (later NITI Aayog, 2015).

  • 1. Finance Commission — handles REVENUE DEVOLUTION, not planning; different body.
  • 2. NDC — ✓ approves Five-Year Plans; chaired by PM; the apex planning-associated body.
  • 3. MoRD — implementing ministry, not a planning body.
  • 4. MoUD — implementing ministry, not a planning body.
  • 5. Parliament — ✓ approves the Plan outlays and appropriation bills; plays an oversight role in planning.

Exchange of Options — Finance Commission is swapped in as a planning body (classic confusion: FC is for devolution, not planning). Odd One Out — implementing ministries (3, 4) stand apart from policy/approval bodies (NDC, Parliament).

Indian Polity Central Council of Ministers Fundamental Medium
Q28

Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. 1Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. 2Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. 3Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 2 only. The Cabinet Secretariat (headed by Cabinet Secretary) assists the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees.

  • S1 CORRECT — Preparation of agenda for Cabinet meetings is a core function.
  • S2 CORRECT — Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees is a core function.
  • S3 WRONG — Allocation of FINANCIAL resources to Ministries is done by the MINISTRY OF FINANCE (through the Budget), NOT the Cabinet Secretariat.

Exchange of Options — S3 swaps Ministry of Finance's function into the Cabinet Secretariat's domain. Word Association — 'Cabinet Secretariat' → meeting support (agenda, minutes, committee assistance), NOT money.

Indian Polity Concept of the Constitution Fundamental Medium
Q29

Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which

  1. 1places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
  2. 2places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only. The DEFINITION of Constitutional Government is precisely: a government that places EFFECTIVE RESTRICTIONS ON THE AUTHORITY OF THE STATE in the interest of INDIVIDUAL LIBERTY. The whole purpose of constitutionalism is to LIMIT government and PROTECT individual rights.

  • S1 inverts this — restricting individual liberty 'in the interest of State Authority' would be authoritarianism, the exact opposite.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'effective restrictions... in the interest of individual liberty' aligns with constitutionalism's protective purpose. Exchange of Options — S1 and S2 are deliberately inverted; the setter bets on hurry-readers. Contradictory Statement — S1 and S2 are direct inversions → only one can be correct.

Indian Polity Governor Fundamental Medium
Q30

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

  1. 1Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
  2. 2Appointing the Ministers
  3. 3Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
  4. 4Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 3 only. Discretionary powers of the Governor (per Constitution & conventions):

  • 1. Sending a report to the President for imposition of President's Rule (Article 356) — ✓ a classic discretionary power.
  • 2. Appointing Ministers — ✗ the Governor appoints on the CM's advice (not discretionary); CM is separately chosen, possibly discretionary if hung assembly.
  • 3. Reserving certain bills for Presidential consideration (Article 200) — ✓ discretionary.
  • 4. Making Rules for conducting State Government's business (Article 166) — ✗ done on CoM's advice, not discretionary.

Constitution Qs — Articles 163, 200, 356 define the precise boundary of discretion. Word Association — classic 'Governor's discretionary powers' are: President's Rule report, Bills reservation, CM appointment in hung assembly.

Indian Polity President Fundamental Medium
Q31

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
  2. 2All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Article 77: the President SHALL make rules for the more convenient transaction of Government business and for allocation of such business among Ministers. (These are the Transaction of Business Rules.)
  • S2 WRONG — Article 77(1): all executive actions of the Government of India 'shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the PRESIDENT' (NOT the Prime Minister).

Exchange of Options — S2 swaps 'President' for 'Prime Minister' — classic setter-swap. Constitution Qs — Article 77 is a direct textual provision. Vulnerable Statements — specific office names are easily manipulated.

Indian Polity Parliament Fundamental Medium
Q32

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

  1. 1There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
  2. 2A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2.

  • S1 CORRECT — 'No-Confidence Motion' is NOT expressly mentioned in the Constitution; it arises from Article 75(3) (CoM collectively responsible to Lok Sabha) and is governed by LS Rules of Procedure (Rule 198).
  • S2 CORRECT — A Motion of No-Confidence can be moved only in the LOK SABHA (the House to which the CoM is collectively responsible); it cannot be moved in the Rajya Sabha.

Constitution Qs — 'the Constitution only gives direction; it rarely defines things in detail' (PDF principle) — S1 fits exactly. Word Association — 'No-Confidence' + 'collective responsibility' → Lok Sabha only.

Indian Polity Supreme Court Fundamental Easy
Q33

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): original jurisdiction. Article 131 (ORIGINAL JURISDICTION of the Supreme Court): disputes (a) between Centre and one or more States, (b) between Centre and States on one side and other States on the other, (c) between two or more States. Only the SC can hear such disputes, directly, at first instance — that is 'original' jurisdiction.

  • (a) Advisory (Art 143) — Presidential reference.
  • (b) Appellate (Arts 132-136) — appeals from HC.
  • (d) Writ (Art 32) — fundamental rights enforcement.

Constitution Qs — Article 131 mapping is textbook. Word Association — 'Centre-State disputes' = exclusive SC jurisdiction = 'original'.

Indian Polity Supreme Court Fundamental Medium
Q34

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): the Parliament. Article 124(1): 'The Supreme Court shall consist of a Chief Justice of India and, until PARLIAMENT by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.' Thus Parliament has the power to increase the number of SC judges by law. Current strength is 34 (including CJI), prescribed by Parliament.

  • (a) Wrong — President appoints judges but does not fix strength.
  • (c) Wrong — CJI is consulted on appointments, not strength.
  • (d) Wrong — Law Commission only recommends.

Constitution Qs — Article 124 is exact. Word Association — 'increase number' = by LAW = Parliament's function.

Indian Polity Parliamentary Committees Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q35

Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): The Committee on Estimates. Estimates Committee of Parliament has 30 members (all from Lok Sabha) — making it the LARGEST parliamentary committee.

  • (a) PAC — 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS).
  • (b) Estimates Committee — 30 members (all LS) ✓
  • (c) Committee on Public Undertakings — 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS).
  • (d) Committee on Petitions — smaller (LS: 15, RS: 10).

Vulnerable Statements — committee sizes are concrete numerical facts, easily swapped. Word Association — 'Estimates' is the largest financial committee; mnemonic: 30 Estimates > 22 PAC > 22 PUC.

Geography Soils Fundamental Medium
Q36

In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

  1. 1Terrace cultivation
  2. 2Deforestation
  3. 3Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Terrace cultivation (contour farming on slopes) PREVENTS soil erosion; it is a soil-CONSERVATION technique, not a cause.
  • S2 CORRECT — Deforestation exposes soil to rain impact, reduces binding by roots → major cause of erosion.
  • S3 WRONG — Tropical climate alone isn't inherently erosion-causing; intensity depends on rainfall, land use, cover. The statement as framed is too broad to be the association.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'terrace cultivation' carries positive conservation valence → eliminates it as a cause. Odd One Out — deforestation (S2) is the only direct anthropogenic cause among the three.

Geography Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Fundamental Easy
Q37

The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Monsoon climate. 'Seasonal reversal of winds' is the defining feature of MONSOON climate — SW monsoon winds (June-Sept) followed by NE monsoon / retreating monsoon (Oct-Dec). The word 'monsoon' derives from Arabic 'mausim' meaning season — seasonal reversal is its definition.

  • (a) Equatorial — uniform convectional rain, no reversal.
  • (b) Mediterranean — dry summer, wet winter, westerlies not reversing.
  • (d) Wrong.

Word Association — 'seasonal reversal of winds' = textbook definition of monsoon. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct definition.

Geography Drainage System Fundamental Medium
Q38

Consider the following rivers:

  1. 1Barak
  2. 2Lohit
  3. 3Subansiri

Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.

  • 1. Barak — rises in Manipur, flows through Assam (Barak Valley), does not notably flow through Arunachal Pradesh ✗.
  • 2. Lohit — originates in eastern Tibet, flows through Arunachal Pradesh before joining the Brahmaputra ✓.
  • 3. Subansiri — originates in Tibet, flows through Arunachal Pradesh (largest tributary of the Brahmaputra) ✓.

Word Association — Lohit, Subansiri = Arunachal's major rivers; Barak = Assam/Manipur. Odd One Out — Barak stands apart from the other two Brahmaputra-tributaries.

Geography Structure and Physiography Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q39

Consider the following pairs: Hills Region Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast Mahadeo Hills : Central India Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 3 and 4.

  • Cardamom Hills — in the Western Ghats (Kerala/Tamil Nadu border), NOT Coromandel Coast (which is in eastern Tamil Nadu) ✗.
  • Kaimur Hills — in MP/Bihar/UP (Vindhyan range), NOT Konkan Coast (western Maharashtra/Goa) ✗.
  • Mahadeo Hills — in MP, part of the Satpura range — CENTRAL India ✓.
  • Mikir Hills — in ASSAM (NE India), named after the Mikir/Karbi tribe ✓.

Exchange of Options — S1 and S2 both swap hill locations to distant coasts — classic setter trap. Word Association — Cardamom → Kerala/Western Ghats; Kaimur → Vindhyas.

Geography Natural Vegetation Fundamental Medium
Q40

If you travel through the Himalayas, you are Iikely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

  1. 1Oak
  2. 2Rhododendron
  3. 3Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2 only.

  • 1. Oak — common in the middle Himalayas (Banj, Tilonj, Moru oaks) ✓.
  • 2. Rhododendron — iconic Himalayan shrub/tree, state tree of Uttarakhand, Sikkim ✓.
  • 3. Sandalwood — tropical dry forest species, native to Karnataka/Tamil Nadu; does NOT grow in Himalayas ✗.

Odd One Out — Sandalwood is a South-Indian dry-forest tree, stands apart from Oak/Rhododendron of the temperate Himalayas. Word Association — Himalayan flora mnemonic: conifers + oak + rhododendron + deodar.

Geography Land Resources and Agriculture Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q41

Consider the following pairs:

#RegionWell-known for the production of
1KinnaurAreca nut
2MewatMango
3CoromandelSoya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): None.

  • 1. Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh) — famous for APPLES and dry fruits; Areca nut is grown in coastal Karnataka/Kerala ✗.
  • 2. Mewat (Haryana) — not famous for mangoes; mangoes are associated with UP (Dussehri), Maharashtra (Alphonso), AP, Bihar ✗.
  • 3. Coromandel (eastern TN/AP coast) — famous for RICE; Soya bean is grown in MP, Maharashtra (malwa plateau) ✗.

All three pairs are wrong.

Exchange of Options — each pair swaps the crop to a completely wrong region (Kinnaur-apples swapped to areca; Coromandel-rice swapped to soyabean). Word Association — Kinnaur→apples (Himachal), Coromandel→rice (TN/AP delta).

Geography Transport and Communication Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q42

Consider the following pairs:

#National HighwayCities connected
1NH 4Chennai and Hyderabad
2NH 6Mumbai and Kolkata
3NH 15Ahmadabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): None. (Using the old numbering in force in 2014.)

  • NH 4 — connected Mumbai to Chennai (via Pune, Bengaluru); NOT Chennai-Hyderabad ✗.
  • NH 6 — Hazira (Surat) to Kolkata via Nagpur; origin city was Surat/Dhule, NOT Mumbai ✗.
  • NH 15 — ran through Rajasthan's Indo-Pak border (Pathankot to Kandla); connected cities include Bikaner, Jaisalmer — not Ahmedabad-Jodhpur directly ✗.

Vulnerable Statements — concrete city-pair data for highways is easily manipulated. Exchange of Options — cities at the endpoints of each NH are subtly swapped. Contemporary Names — NH numbers themselves got re-numbered in 2010, adding to confusion.

Geography Structure and Physiography Fundamental Medium
Q43

Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Andaman and Nicobar. The TEN DEGREE CHANNEL runs along the 10° N parallel, separating the ANDAMAN islands (to the north) from the NICOBAR islands (to the south). It is ~150 km wide.

  • (b) Wrong — Nicobar and Sumatra are separated by the Great Channel.
  • (c) Wrong — Maldives and Lakshadweep are separated by the Eight Degree Channel.
  • (d) Wrong — Sumatra and Java are separated by the Sunda Strait.

Word Association — '10° N parallel' = 10 Degree Channel = Andaman-Nicobar separator. UPSC Favourite Area — Andaman and Nicobar is in the PDF's UPSC-favourite list → channels tested repeatedly.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium-Difficult
Q44

In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation? There is no National Seeds Policy in place. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 only. Seed Replacement Rate (SRR) = % of area sown with certified/quality seeds out of total cropped area. Enhancing SRR is crucial for yields.

  • S1 WRONG — India HAS a National Seeds Policy (2002) and Seeds Bill in process; 'no policy' is factually wrong.
  • S2 WRONG — Private sector (Mahyco, Syngenta, Bayer etc.) is ACTIVELY involved in vegetable and horticultural seed supply.
  • S3 CORRECT — there IS a demand-supply gap for quality seeds of LOW VALUE HIGH VOLUME crops (like cereals, pulses) because low margins deter private players.

Extreme-Word Rule — S1 ('there is NO National Seeds Policy') and S2 ('NO participation of private sector') are extreme negatives → suspect → likely wrong. Mild / Generic Statement — S3's 'demand-supply gap' is mild and plausible → correct.

Indian Economy Public Finance Fundamental Medium
Q45

With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

  1. 1Defence -expenditure
  2. 2Interest payments
  3. 3Salaries and pensions
  4. 4Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 2, 3 and 4. Non-Plan Expenditure (in the old Plan/Non-Plan classification, pre-2017) covered all recurring expenses outside Plan schemes:

  • 1. Defence expenditure ✓
  • 2. Interest payments ✓
  • 3. Salaries and pensions ✓
  • 4. Subsidies ✓ (food, fertilizer, fuel subsidies were all NPE)

All four are classical components of Non-Plan Expenditure.

First Among Equals — all-inclusive option (1,2,3,4) fits the broad scope of NPE. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — fiscal-classification facts framed positively.

Indian Economy Indian Tax Structure Fundamental Easy
Q46

The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): tax imposed and collected by the State Government. (Pre-GST, in 2014.) Sales tax / VAT on goods within a state was a State List subject (Entry 54 of State List) — IMPOSED AND COLLECTED BY THE STATE. Hence buying a toothpaste involved state VAT.

  • (a), (b), (c) are wrong because the tax belonged entirely to the state, not to the Centre in any capacity.

Note: This was superseded by GST in 2017.

Constitution Qs — State List entries (State subjects = state taxes) are clean allocations pre-GST. Word Association — sales tax on intra-state goods = state tax.

Indian Economy Financial Market Fundamental Easy
Q47

What does venture capital mean?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs. Venture Capital (VC) is long-term, high-risk equity financing provided to NEW, INNOVATIVE, high-growth-potential STARTUPS. VC firms take equity, provide mentorship, and exit through IPO/acquisition. Not short-term, not for losses, not for renovation.

  • (a), (c), (d) describe other forms of finance (short-term loans, bailouts, rehabilitation finance).

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'long-term start-up capital for new entrepreneurs' has an innovation/entrepreneurship-positive valence → correct. Word Association — 'venture' = adventure/risk = early-stage startup.

Indian Economy Economic Planning in India Applied Medium
Q48

The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth. The 12th Five-Year Plan (2012-17) explicitly titled its objective 'Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth' — a clear three-word formulation. The 11th Plan was 'Faster and More Inclusive Growth'; 12th added 'Sustainable'.

  • (a) incomplete — doesn't include 'sustainable'.
  • (b) misses 'faster'.
  • (c) misses 'faster'.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'faster, sustainable, more inclusive growth' packs three positive keywords (sustainable + inclusive + faster) → most comprehensive option. First Among Equals — (d) subsumes the other partial-formulations.

Indian Economy Balance of Payments Fundamental Medium
Q49

With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

  1. 1Balance of trade
  2. 2Foreign assets
  3. 3Balance of invisibles
  4. 4Special Drawing Right

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3. Current Account of BoP = trade in goods + trade in services (invisibles) + transfers (remittances, grants) + primary income (interest, dividends).

  • 1. Balance of Trade — ✓ Current Account (merchandise).
  • 2. Foreign Assets — ✗ belongs to the Capital Account / reserves (stock, not flow).
  • 3. Balance of Invisibles — ✓ Current Account (services, income, transfers).
  • 4. SDR — ✗ part of foreign-exchange RESERVES / Capital Account.

Exchange of Options — S2 and S4 put CAPITAL-account items into the Current Account → classic BoP swap. Word Association — 'current' = flows of goods/services/invisibles; 'capital' = assets/investments/reserves.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Applied Medium
Q50

The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): banking operations.

  • Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate — rate at which RBI lends to scheduled commercial banks against G-Sec, above statutory SLR reserves (emergency overnight liquidity). RBI banking-policy tool.
  • Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) — a bank's total deposits + borrowings (a banking-balance-sheet measure); used as the base for CRR/SLR computation.

Both are pure BANKING-operations terms.

Word Association — MSF + NDTL + RBI context → banking operations. Odd One Out — (b) communication, (c) military, (d) agriculture stand out as clearly unrelated.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Applied Medium-Difficult
Q51

What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

  1. 1It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
  2. 2It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. Business Correspondents (BCs) / Bank Saathi — launched by RBI in 2006 — are bank-appointed agents serving 'branchless' rural areas.

  • S1 CORRECT — BCs enable beneficiaries to draw DBT subsidies, MGNREGA wages, social-security benefits in villages (via micro-ATMs, biometric authentication).
  • S2 CORRECT — BCs enable cash deposits and withdrawals in rural areas.

Both are core BC functions designed for financial inclusion.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'subsidies', 'social security benefits', 'rural beneficiaries' = positive empowerment framing → likely correct. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — BC model is a flagship financial-inclusion scheme, framed positively.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Fundamental Medium
Q52

In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’? To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only. Statutory Reserve Requirements (CRR, SLR) — banks must hold a portion of deposits as reserves with RBI/in specified liquid assets.

  • S1 CORRECT — by varying CRR/SLR, RBI controls the amount of advances banks can create (credit control) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — deposit safety is handled by DICGC (deposit insurance), NOT by statutory reserves per se.
  • S3 WRONG — not a purpose; profit levels are market-driven.
  • S4 WRONG — reserves held with RBI are NOT 'vault cash' for day-to-day banking.

Constitution Qs / RBI-regulatory logic — CRR/SLR = monetary-control tool, not consumer-protection tool. Exchange of Options — S2 and S4 swap deposit-insurance / operational-cash functions into the reserve-requirement role.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium-Difficult
Q53

In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas. Guar (cluster bean) seeds are crushed to produce GUAR GUM — a versatile hydrocolloid. Its use exploded after 2010 because the US SHALE-GAS INDUSTRY uses guar gum as a key fracturing-fluid thickener. India (Rajasthan, Haryana, Gujarat) became the world's top producer/exporter of guar gum.

  • (a) Wrong — not for biodegradable plastics primarily.
  • (c) Wrong — not an anti-histamine source.
  • (d) Wrong — not a biodiesel source.

Word Association — 'guar' + 'recently assumed significance' (2010-14 period) → shale gas boom linkage. Science = Futuristic/Evolving — the 'recent significance' trigger points to an emerging-tech application.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Fundamental Medium
Q54

If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): increase the investment expenditure in the economy. Lower interest rate → cheaper borrowing → firms undertake more investment projects (capex) → INVESTMENT EXPENDITURE RISES. This is the standard monetary-policy transmission.

  • (a) Wrong — consumption typically rises (not decreases) as credit becomes cheaper and savings interest falls.
  • (b) Wrong — no direct link to tax collection (only indirect via growth).
  • (d) Wrong — savings typically DECREASE (lower returns); people prefer to spend/invest.

Positive Term → Positive Consequence — 'lower interest rate' (positive for firms) → 'more investment' (positive consequence) — classic macro logic. Word Association — Keynes' investment function is inverse to interest rate.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Fundamental Medium
Q55

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1Maize can be used for the production of starch.
  2. 2Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
  3. 3Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Maize is a versatile crop with multiple industrial uses:

  • S1 CORRECT — maize starch (corn starch) is widely produced for food + industrial use ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — maize oil (corn oil) can serve as biodiesel feedstock ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — maize-based alcoholic beverages exist (bourbon whisky; chicha; Indian local liquor) ✓.

All three uses are factually correct.

First Among Equals — 'all three uses' is the broader, subsuming option → fits multi-use commodities. Hard to Verify / Disprove — industrial use-cases are wide-open categories; denying any specific use is unsafe.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium-Difficult
Q56

What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

  1. 1Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
  2. 2Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
  3. 3There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
  4. 4The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1, 2 and 4 only. SSI (Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative) promoted by ICRISAT/WWF:

  • S1 CORRECT — uses bud chips/single-bud seedlings, drastically reducing SEED COST vs conventional 3-bud setts.
  • S2 CORRECT — wider spacing allows efficient DRIP IRRIGATION.
  • S3 WRONG — 'no application of chemical fertilizers AT ALL' is EXTREME; SSI promotes integrated nutrient management, reduced but not zero chemical use.
  • S4 CORRECT — wider spacing enables INTERCROPPING.

Extreme-Word Rule — S3's 'no application at all' is an absolute → almost always wrong. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1, S2, S4 (drip irrigation, intercropping, low seed cost) are positive-sustainability keywords → correct.

Environment Protected Area Network Applied Medium-Difficult
Q57

With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  2. 2The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are declared under the ENVIRONMENT (PROTECTION) ACT, 1986, NOT the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. ESZs are demarcated around national parks/sanctuaries as 'shock absorber' areas.
  • S2 WRONG — The purpose is to REGULATE (not PROHIBIT) activities. Certain activities are banned (mining, polluting industries), others are regulated (tourism), and some continue (agriculture, traditional uses). 'Prohibit all kinds... except agriculture' is an overly absolute framing.

Vulnerable Statements — specific Act-name in S1 is an easy setter-swap (WPA 1972 → EPA 1986). Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'prohibit ALL KINDS of human activities' is an extreme framing → suspect.

Environment National Environmental Legislations Applied Medium-Difficult
Q58

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
  2. 2National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
  3. 3National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the PREVENTION OF CRUELTY TO ANIMALS ACT, 1960, NOT the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
  • S2 CORRECT — NTCA is a statutory body established under the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2006.
  • S3 CORRECT — National Ganga River Basin Authority (constituted 2009, later replaced by NMCG) was chaired by the Prime Minister.

Vulnerable Statements — specific Act-attribution in S1 is easy to swap (PCA 1960 → EPA 1986). Word Association — AWBI = animal welfare = PCA Act 1960 (not the environmental omnibus Act).

Environment Natural Ecosystems Fundamental Medium
Q59

Which of the following have coral reefs?

  1. 1Andaman and Nicobar Islands I
  2. 2Gulf of Kachchh
  3. 3Gulf of Mannar
  4. 4Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1, 2 and 3 only. India's four coral-reef areas are:

  • Andaman & Nicobar Islands ✓ (fringing & atoll reefs)
  • Gulf of Kachchh ✓ (fringing reefs, northernmost in India)
  • Gulf of Mannar ✓ (fringing reefs, between India and Sri Lanka)
  • Lakshadweep ✓ (atoll reefs)
  • Sunderbans ✗ — mangrove ecosystem, NOT corals (brackish, estuarine, low salinity, silt-laden — unsuitable for corals).

Odd One Out — Sunderbans (mangrove estuary) stands apart from the three true coral locations. UPSC Favourite Area — Corals are in the PDF's UPSC-favourite list → staple fact.

Environment Wetland Ecosystem Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q60

Consider the following pairs: Wetlands Confluence of rivers Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej Keoladeo Ghana National Park : Confluence of Banas and Chambal Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Harike Wetlands in Punjab is at the CONFLUENCE OF BEAS AND SATLUJ rivers ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Keoladeo Ghana NP (Bharatpur) is NOT at the confluence of Banas and Chambal. Banas joins Chambal elsewhere; Keoladeo is an inland wetland sustained by monsoon + Ajan Bandh.
  • S3 WRONG — Kolleru Lake (AP) is between the Krishna and Godavari deltas, NOT at the confluence of Musi and Krishna. Musi joins Krishna further west, not at Kolleru.

Vulnerable Statements — river-confluence pairings are fact-dense and easy to swap. UPSC Favourite Area — wetlands/Ramsar sites are staple UPSC territory; precise locations tested.

Environment Biodiversity Conservation Fundamental Easy
Q61

The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): biosphere reserves. Biosphere Reserves are designed on a CORE-BUFFER-TRANSITION model that integrates biodiversity conservation WITH sustainable human use — transition zones allow traditional livelihoods, settlements, and sustainable development. This is the UNIQUE design feature vs:

  • (b) Botanical gardens — focus on ex-situ plant collections, not community life.
  • (c) National parks — strict protection, NO human habitation/exploitation.
  • (d) Wildlife sanctuaries — restricted human activity, less accommodative than BRs.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'conservation WITH traditional human life' = inclusive, participatory, community-centric → fits Biosphere Reserve philosophy. First Among Equals — BRs subsume NP + WLS + botanical gardens in functionality.

Environment Global Warming and Climate Change Fundamental Medium
Q62

The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

  1. 1Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source
  2. 2Widespread coral mortality will occur.
  3. 3All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
  4. 4Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 2 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — At 3°C+ warming, soils lose carbon faster than they absorb; TERRESTRIAL BIOSPHERE FLIPS TO A NET CARBON SOURCE (per IPCC AR4/AR5).
  • S2 CORRECT — Widespread coral mortality (bleaching-related) will occur well before 3°C; corals are especially heat-sensitive.
  • S3 WRONG — 'ALL global wetlands will permanently disappear' is an EXTREME claim; some wetlands will shrink, not all will disappear.
  • S4 WRONG — 'cereal cultivation impossible ANYWHERE in the world' is extreme; cereal belts will SHIFT (e.g., northward), not disappear entirely.

Extreme-Word Rule — S3 ('all', 'permanently') and S4 ('anywhere in the world') are classic extreme claims → wrong. Mild / Generic Statement — S1 'tends toward a net carbon source' is appropriately mild → correct.

Environment Water Conservation Applied Medium-Difficult
Q63

What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

  1. 1Prevention of soil runoff
  2. 2Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
  3. 3Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
  4. 4Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 3 and 4 only. Integrated Watershed Development Programme (IWDP) — now consolidated under PMKSY-Watershed:

  • S1 CORRECT — soil runoff prevention via contour bunding, check dams, trenches ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — 'Linking perennial rivers with seasonal rivers' is INTERLINKING OF RIVERS (a separate scheme), NOT IWDP.
  • S3 CORRECT — rainwater harvesting + groundwater recharge are core IWDP benefits ✓.
  • S4 CORRECT — regeneration of natural vegetation via afforestation is part of IWDP ✓.

Exchange of Options — S2 inserts River-Linking Project (a different scheme entirely) — setter's scheme-swap trap. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1, S3, S4 all have conservation/sustainability valence → correct; S2 is anomalous.

Environment Ecology — Principles and Organizations Fundamental Medium
Q64

Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): algae and fungi. Lichens are a classic symbiotic association of FUNGI (mostly Ascomycetes; provide structure and protection) and ALGAE or CYANOBACTERIA (photosynthetic partners; provide food via photosynthesis). They colonise bare rocks as PIONEER SPECIES, secreting acids that weather rock and initiate primary succession.

  • (a), (c), (d) are incorrect combinations.

Word Association — 'lichens' = classic algae + fungi symbiosis (textbook fact). UPSC Favourite Area — pioneer-succession / symbiosis is a recurring environment topic.

Environment Air Pollution Fundamental Medium
Q65

Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?

  1. 1Oxides of sulphur
  2. 2Oxides of nitrogen
  3. 3Carbon monoxide
  4. 4Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2, 3 and 4. The steel industry is one of India's most polluting sectors:

  • 1. Oxides of sulphur (SO2) ✓ (from coke ovens, iron-ore roasting)
  • 2. Oxides of nitrogen (NOx) ✓ (from high-temp combustion in furnaces)
  • 3. Carbon monoxide (CO) ✓ (from incomplete combustion, blast-furnace gas)
  • 4. Carbon dioxide (CO2) ✓ (major emitter — steel = ~7% of global CO2)

All four are standard steel-sector emissions.

Hard to Verify / Disprove — pollution-based questions: 'Any mining/construction/combustion can release N numbers of harmful gases — very hard to say this particular gas is NOT released' (direct PDF principle). First Among Equals — 'all four' covers the emissions basket.

Environment Green Revolution, Sustainable and Modern Agricultural Practices Fundamental Medium
Q66

With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

  1. 1Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
  2. 2Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
  3. 3Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Neem oil (azadirachtin) is a well-known BIOPESTICIDE, effective against insects and mites ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Neem seeds are NOT a principal feedstock for biofuels (though neem oil has been experimented with); 'hospital detergents' is not a standard Neem application.
  • S3 CORRECT — Neem extracts are widely used in PHARMACEUTICAL INDUSTRY — ayurvedic medicines, toothpastes, antibacterial, antifungal preparations ✓.

Word Association — Neem = pesticide + pharmaceutical (canonical Indian biodiversity asset). Vulnerable Statements — S2 mentions specific industries ('biofuels', 'hospital detergents') — easy setter-swap.

Environment Functions of an Ecosystem Fundamental Medium
Q67

Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored. In photosynthesis, FREE (radiant solar) ENERGY is captured by chlorophyll, converted to CHEMICAL POTENTIAL ENERGY stored in glucose/ATP bonds. Plants convert low-entropy light energy into high-energy C-C and C-H bonds → potential energy locked in carbohydrates.

  • (a) Wrong — inverse; photosynthesis stores, not releases, energy.
  • (c) Wrong — that describes RESPIRATION (glucose oxidation releases CO2, water).
  • (d) Wrong — that describes respiration (O2 in, CO2 out).

Exchange of Options — (c) and (d) describe RESPIRATION (the inverse process) — classic setter-swap between photosynthesis and respiration. Word Association — photosynthesis = store energy; respiration = release energy.

Environment Biodiversity and Its Loss Fundamental Medium
Q68

Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Crab. Among the four:

  • Crab — CRUSTACEAN (class Malacostraca) → DIFFERENT CLASS.
  • Mite, Scorpion, Spider — all ARACHNIDS (class Arachnida; 8 legs, no antennae).

Crab stands out by having 10 legs (decapod), antennae, and a crustacean body plan.

Odd One Out — Crab is the odd one; the other three are all arachnids. Word Association — 'spider/scorpion/mite' cluster to arachnids; crab to crustaceans.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium
Q69

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ :

  1. 1It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
  2. 2It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
  3. 3It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Earth Hour is an initiative of WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature), NOT of UNEP/UNESCO. Started in Sydney 2007.
  • S2 CORRECT — Participants switch off NON-ESSENTIAL lights for ONE HOUR (8:30-9:30 PM) on the last Saturday of March annually.
  • S3 CORRECT — Its purpose is to raise AWARENESS about climate change and sustainability.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 makes a specific organisational attribution (UNEP/UNESCO) — classic setter-swap (correct = WWF). Positive & Empowering Keywords — S2 and S3 are positive/generic ('raise awareness', 'save the planet') → correct.

Environment Functions of an Ecosystem Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q70

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings. Diatoms (phytoplankton, primary producers) → Crustaceans (zooplankton like copepods, primary consumers) → Herrings (small fish, secondary consumers). A classic marine food chain.

  • (b), (c), (d) all reorder these in ways that violate trophic hierarchy (producers must be at the base).

Word Association — marine food chain ladder: phytoplankton → zooplankton → small fish. Odd One Out — only (a) has producers (diatoms) at the bottom.

Environment Water Conservation Applied Medium-Difficult
Q71

Consider the following pairs: Programme / Project Ministry Drought-Prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture Desert Development Programme : Ministry of Environment and Forests National Watershed Development : Ministry of Rural Development Project for Rainfed Areas

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): None.

  • S1 WRONG — Drought-Prone Area Programme (DPAP) is under the MINISTRY OF RURAL DEVELOPMENT, NOT Agriculture.
  • S2 WRONG — Desert Development Programme (DDP) is under the MINISTRY OF RURAL DEVELOPMENT, NOT Environment & Forests.
  • S3 WRONG — National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA) is under the MINISTRY OF AGRICULTURE, NOT Rural Development.

All three have swapped ministries — the setter has shuffled the correct attributions.

Exchange of Options — all three ministry attributions are swapped around → textbook setter trap (the answer of 'None' is the giveaway that all pairings were re-shuffled). Vulnerable Statements — ministry/department attributions are easy to manipulate.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium-Difficult
Q72

With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): It serves as financial mechanism for CBD and UNFCCC. Global Environment Facility (GEF), est. 1992, is the FINANCIAL MECHANISM for several multilateral environmental agreements including: UNFCCC, CBD, Stockholm Convention (POPs), UNCCD, Minamata Convention. It does NOT conduct research (that's IPCC/NGOs), and is NOT an OECD agency.

  • (b) Wrong — GEF doesn't do scientific research.
  • (c) Wrong — GEF is independent, partners with UNDP/UNEP/World Bank; not OECD.
  • (d) Wrong — only (a) is correct.

Word Association — 'Global Environment Facility' + 'financial mechanism' = funding MEAs (CBD, UNFCCC). UPSC Respects Government Initiative — multilateral env institutions framed positively as enablers of international cooperation.

Environment Protected Area Network Applied Medium-Difficult
Q73

Consider the following pairs

#ItemMatch
1Dampa Tiger ReserveMizoram
2Gumti Wildlife SanctuarySikkim
3Saramati PeakNagaland

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Dampa Tiger Reserve is in MIZORAM (western Mizoram) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is in TRIPURA, NOT Sikkim ✗.
  • S3 CORRECT — Saramati Peak (3,841 m) is the highest peak of Nagaland, on the Nagaland-Myanmar border ✓.

Vulnerable Statements — location attributions are easy to swap (Tripura → Sikkim). Word Association — Dampa → Mizoram, Saramati → Nagaland are canonical NE pairings.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium-Difficult
Q74

With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
  2. 2It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Wetlands International is an INDEPENDENT NGO (headquartered in Wageningen, Netherlands); it is NOT an INTERGOVERNMENTAL organisation formed by Ramsar signatories. (Ramsar Convention Secretariat is a separate body.)
  • S2 CORRECT — Wetlands International works at the field level, developing/mobilising knowledge, advocating for better policies — a classic NGO mode of operation.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 makes a specific institutional claim ('intergovernmental', 'formed by Ramsar signatories') — fact-dense and easy to manipulate. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S2 ('develop knowledge', 'advocate for better policies') is positive and generic → correct.

Environment Biodiversity and Its Loss Fundamental Medium
Q75

Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

  1. 1Continental drift
  2. 2Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2.

  • S1 CORRECT — Continental drift (Pangaea break-up) SEPARATED populations, leading to allopatric speciation and distinctive biota on each continent (marsupials in Australia, ratites in Gondwanan continents etc.) ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — Glacial cycles (Pleistocene Ice Ages) caused repeated RANGE SHIFTS, fragmentation, refugia — driving speciation, extinction, and phenotypic change ✓.

Both phenomena have well-documented evolutionary influence.

Mild / Generic Statement — 'might have influenced' is a MILD qualifier → likely correct (PDF's mild/possibility language). Hard to Verify / Disprove — broad evolutionary claims are hard to reject.

Environment Wildlife Conservation Applied Medium-Difficult
Q76

Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

  1. 1Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
  2. 2Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
  3. 3Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
  4. 4Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 3 and 4 only. Gangetic River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) decline:

  • S1 CORRECT — Dams & barrages (Farakka, Bhimgoda) fragment habitat, block migration, reduce flow ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Crocodile populations are themselves threatened (Gharial is critically endangered); they are NOT a significant predator-cause of dolphin decline.
  • S3 CORRECT — Accidental bycatch in gillnets / fishing nets is a major threat ✓.
  • S4 CORRECT — Agricultural chemicals cause bioaccumulation in river water → fish → dolphins (pollutant load) ✓.

Odd One Out — S2 (crocodile predation) stands out as the only ecologically implausible option. Hard to Verify / Disprove — dams, pollution, bycatch are broad, classical threats; hard to rule out.

Environment Hazardous Waste Applied Medium-Difficult
Q77

Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

  1. 1They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
  2. 2They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. Brominated Flame Retardants (BFRs) — added to furniture foams, textiles, electronics casings:

  • S1 CORRECT — BFRs are HIGHLY PERSISTENT (resistant to degradation); they accumulate in sediments and soils ✓. They are classified as Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
  • S2 CORRECT — BFRs BIOACCUMULATE up food chains and have been found in human blood, breast milk, and wildlife ✓.

Hence listed under Stockholm Convention.

Hard to Verify / Disprove — pollution chemistry claims (persistence, bioaccumulation) are broad and well-documented → correct. UPSC Favourite Area — Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) are tested repeatedly.

Environment Biodiversity and Its Loss Fundamental Medium
Q78

Consider the following:

  1. 1Bats
  2. 2Bears
  3. 3Rodents The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 2 and 3. Hibernation — physiological dormancy during cold season with reduced metabolism, body temperature, heart rate.

  • 1. Bats ✓ (many temperate-zone bats like Little Brown Bats hibernate in caves).
  • 2. Bears ✓ (black, brown, grizzly bears enter torpor/hibernation in winter).
  • 3. Rodents ✓ (ground squirrels, marmots, chipmunks are classic hibernators).

All three exhibit hibernation.

First Among Equals — 'all three' fits when all options are equally valid biological categories. Hard to Verify / Disprove — biological behaviours across broad groups are safe inclusive answers.

Environment Biogeochemical (Nutrient) Cycles Fundamental Medium
Q79

Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

  1. 1Volcanic action
  2. 2Respiration
  3. 3Photosynthesis
  4. 4Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 2 and 4 only. Carbon-cycle sources ADDING CO2 to the atmosphere:

  • 1. Volcanic action ✓ (natural CO2 + SO2 emissions).
  • 2. Respiration ✓ (cellular respiration releases CO2 from all living organisms).
  • 3. Photosynthesis ✗ — REMOVES CO2 (a SINK, not a source).
  • 4. Decay of organic matter ✓ (decomposition releases CO2; methane in anaerobic conditions).

Odd One Out — Photosynthesis is the only CO2 SINK among the four options → stands out. Exchange of Options — setter inserts a sink (photosynthesis) into a source-list to trap hurry-readers.

Environment Wildlife Conservation Fundamental Medium
Q80

If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

  1. 1Painted Stork
  2. 2Common Myna
  3. 3Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • Painted Stork ✗ — a wading stork of wetlands/shallow water, feeds on fish in marshes, NOT a cattle-companion.
  • Common Myna ✓ — a well-known cattle-companion bird; frequently seen alongside cattle in fields, eating insects disturbed by grazing cattle ✓.
  • Black-necked Crane ✗ — a high-altitude (Ladakh, Tibet) crane of wetlands; not a cattle associate.

Word Association — 'birds alongside cattle in fields' = Common Myna / Cattle Egret behaviour. Odd One Out — Storks (wetland) and Black-necked Cranes (alpine) stand apart from grassland cattle-companions.

Science and Technology Health and Medical Technology Fundamental Medium
Q81

Consider the following pairs: Vitamin Deficiency disease Vitamin C Scurvy Vitamin D Rickets Vitamin E Night blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2 only.

  • Vitamin C → Scurvy ✓ (classic).
  • Vitamin D → Rickets ✓ (bone mineralisation).
  • Vitamin E → Night blindness ✗ — NIGHT BLINDNESS is caused by VITAMIN A deficiency. Vitamin E deficiency causes hemolytic anaemia, neurological issues — NOT night blindness.

Exchange of Options — Vitamin E swapped with Vitamin A's deficiency disease (classic vitamin-deficiency pair shuffle). Word Association — Vit A = night vision; Vit C = scurvy; Vit D = rickets; Vit E = fertility/antioxidant.

Science and Technology Nanotechnology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q82

There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

  1. 1They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
  2. 2They can enter the food chains.
  3. 3They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Nanoparticle (NP) concerns are well-documented:

  • S1 CORRECT — NPs accumulate in environment, contaminate soil and water ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — NPs can enter food chains (uptake by microbes, plants, accumulation in higher organisms) ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — NPs trigger reactive oxygen species (free radicals) upon cell entry, a primary toxicity mechanism ✓.

All three are textbook nano-toxicology concerns.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — emerging tech concerns → inclusive 'all three' answer favoured. Hard to Verify / Disprove — pollution/toxicity claims for nano-particles are broad and well-established.

Science and Technology Defence Technology Applied Medium
Q83

Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is a surface-to-surface missile.
  2. 2It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
  3. 3It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only. Agni-IV (DRDO, successfully tested 2011 onwards):

  • S1 CORRECT — Surface-to-surface ballistic missile ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Agni-IV is a TWO-STAGE SOLID-FUEL missile, NOT liquid propellant. Solid propellants give quick launch and mobility.
  • S3 WRONG — Agni-IV's range is ~3,500-4,000 km (intermediate-range), NOT 7,500 km. Agni-V has ~5,000+ km. No Agni goes 7,500 km.

Vulnerable Statements — S2 (fuel type) and S3 (specific range in km) are both concrete-fact claims that setter loves to manipulate. Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'liquid propellant only' and S3's specific large number (7500 km) stand out as suspect.

Science and Technology Energy Technology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q84

With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following ‘statements:

  1. 1Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
  2. 2In India abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — Coalbed methane IS essentially methane from coal seams ✓ in concept, BUT shale gas is NATURAL GAS (mostly methane) extracted from shale rocks, NOT 'mixture of propane and butane only'. So the shale-gas definition is factually wrong.
  • S2 WRONG — India has BOTH coalbed methane reserves (Jharkhand, WB, Gujarat) AND shale gas potential (Cambay, KG, Cauvery basins being assessed). Claiming 'no shale gas sources' is factually wrong.

Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'ONLY propane and butane' for shale gas is wrong chemistry. Vulnerable Statements — claim 'no shale gas sources have been found in India' is an absolute that a single counterexample disproves → wrong.

Science and Technology Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Fundamental Easy
Q85

In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

  1. 1Iris scanning
  2. 2Retinal scanning
  3. 3Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Biometric identification methods (besides fingerprint):

  • 1. Iris scanning ✓ (Aadhaar uses iris scanning as one biometric).
  • 2. Retinal scanning ✓ (high-security applications).
  • 3. Voice recognition ✓ (telephone/voice-ID systems).

All three are valid biometric methods.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — emerging biometric tech → all-inclusive answer favoured. First Among Equals — 'all three' covers the biometric options. Hard to Verify / Disprove — biometric methods are well-established, hard to rule out.

Science and Technology Agriculture and Food Technology Fundamental Medium
Q86

Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

  1. 1Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
  2. 2Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
  3. 3Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Vegetative propagation (cuttings, grafting, tissue culture) produces GENETICALLY IDENTICAL clones → clonal population ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Vegetative propagation actually TRANSMITS viruses along with the plant tissue (potato viruses, citrus tristeza, banana bunchy top all spread this way). It does NOT 'eliminate' the virus. Elimination requires tissue culture + meristem culture + thermotherapy.
  • S3 CORRECT — Vegetative propagation can be practised year-round, not restricted to a single season ✓.

Exchange of Options — S2 inverts reality (veg. propagation TRANSMITS viruses; to eliminate, you need meristem culture). Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1 and S3 are positive/general ('clonal', 'year-round') → correct.

Science and Technology Space Technology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q87

Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?

#SpacecraftPurpose
1Cassini-HuygensOrbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
2MessengerMapping and investigating the Mercury
3Voyager 1 and 2Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.

  • 1. Cassini-Huygens ✗ — was a NASA-ESA mission to SATURN AND TITAN, NOT Venus. Launched 1997, entered Saturn orbit 2004.
  • 2. MESSENGER ✓ — NASA mission to MERCURY (MErcury Surface, Space ENvironment, GEochemistry, and Ranging); mapped Mercury 2011-2015.
  • 3. Voyager 1 and 2 ✓ — launched 1977, both exploring the outer solar system; Voyager 1 is now in interstellar space.

Exchange of Options — Cassini's destination swapped (Saturn → Venus) — classic setter-swap for space missions. Word Association — Cassini = Saturn (iconic association); MESSENGER = Mercury.

Science and Technology General Science — Chemistry Fundamental Easy
Q88

Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

  1. 1Crystallization of sodium chloride
  2. 2Melting of ice
  3. 3Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 only.

  • 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride ✗ — a PHYSICAL change (solute-solvent separation; the salt is chemically unchanged).
  • 2. Melting of ice ✗ — PHYSICAL change (phase transition H2O(s) → H2O(l); same molecule).
  • 3. Souring of milk ✓ — CHEMICAL change; lactose is fermented into lactic acid by Lactobacillus — new substances formed.

Odd One Out — souring (fermentation, new chemicals formed) stands out from crystallisation/melting (both phase changes). Word Association — chemical change = new substance formed; physical change = state change only.

Science and Technology Biotechnology Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q89

Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

  1. 1Budding and grafting in fruit plants
  2. 2Cytoplasmic male sterility
  3. 3Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3. Transgenic crops are those containing FOREIGN GENES introduced via genetic engineering.

  • 1. Budding and grafting ✗ — traditional HORTICULTURAL propagation techniques; NO foreign DNA introduced. Not transgenic.
  • 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility ✓ — can be used in hybrid-seed production with engineered elements; MS systems in transgenic Brassica/crop improvement use foreign genes like barnase/barstar.
  • 3. Gene silencing ✓ — RNAi-mediated silencing (introduction of a dsRNA construct) IS a transgenic technique; e.g., FlavrSavr tomato, Arctic apple, Bt brinjal use this.

Odd One Out — budding/grafting (classical propagation) is the only non-biotech technique in the list. Word Association — 'transgenic' = foreign gene insertion → grafting doesn't qualify.

Science and Technology Energy Technology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q90

With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements:

  1. 1’Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.
  2. 2Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
  3. 3India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — PHOTOVOLTAICS converts light DIRECTLY to electricity (via PV cells). SOLAR THERMAL uses sun's heat to produce steam → electricity indirectly ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — BOTH PV and Solar Thermal eventually produce electricity that CAN be AC or DC depending on inverter; PV inherently produces DC, Solar Thermal via turbines produces AC. The statement's exact opposite framing ('PV=AC, ST=DC') is wrong.
  • S3 WRONG — India has manufacturing base for PV (modules, cells), AND is developing solar thermal too. Claiming 'only ST, not PV' is factually wrong.

Exchange of Options — S2 inverts the AC/DC outputs of PV vs Solar Thermal — classic swap. Vulnerable Statements — S3 makes a specific claim about India's manufacturing base, easy to falsify.

Science and Technology Health and Medical Technology Applied Medium
Q91

Consider the following diseases

  1. 1Diphtheria
  2. 2Chickenpox
  3. 3Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 only.

  • 1. Diphtheria ✗ — NOT eradicated; occasional outbreaks still occur in India; vaccine (DPT) prevents but doesn't eradicate.
  • 2. Chickenpox ✗ — NOT eradicated; still endemic worldwide.
  • 3. Smallpox ✓ — ERADICATED globally in 1980 (WHO declaration); India was declared smallpox-free in 1977.

Extreme-Word Rule — 'eradicated' is an absolute term; only smallpox truly qualifies (polio was certified eradicated in India in 2014, but question was before that context). Odd One Out — smallpox stands apart as the only true eradication success.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Basic Easy
Q92

Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): The International Monetary Fund. The 'World Economic Outlook' (WEO) is a flagship publication of the IMF, released twice a year (April and October). It provides analysis of global economic prospects, forecasts, and policy analysis. Other distractors:

  • (b) UNDP brings out the Human Development Report.
  • (c) WEF brings out the Global Competitiveness Report, Global Risks Report.
  • (d) World Bank brings out Global Economic Prospects, World Development Report.

Word Association — 'World Economic Outlook' → IMF (direct pairing). Vulnerable Statements — international institution publications are easily manipulated; careful pairing recall is decisive.

Geography Mapping (World) Fundamental Easy
Q93

Turkey is located between

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea. Turkey is a transcontinental country. It is bordered by:

  • Black Sea — to the north
  • Mediterranean Sea — to the south
  • Aegean Sea — to the west (a part of the Mediterranean)

Turkey does NOT touch Caspian (a), Gulf of Suez (c, on Egypt/Saudi border), or Dead Sea (d, Israel/Jordan border).

Word Association — Turkey = Europe-Asia bridge country between Black Sea and Mediterranean (Bosphorus connecting them). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct map-geography fact.

Geography Mapping (World) Fundamental Medium
Q94

What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

  1. 1Bangkok
  2. 2Hanoi
  3. 3Jakarta
  4. 4Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 3-4-1-2 (Jakarta → Singapore → Bangkok → Hanoi). South-to-north sequence in Southeast Asia:

  • Jakarta (Indonesia) ~6°S — SOUTHERNMOST.
  • Singapore (1°N) — just north of Equator.
  • Bangkok (Thailand) ~13°N.
  • Hanoi (Vietnam) ~21°N — NORTHERNMOST.

Word Association — latitude-based ordering (Indonesia → Singapore → Thailand → Vietnam). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — pure map-based fact. UPSC Favourite Area — SE Asia geopolitics tested frequently.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Easy
Q95

Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Tunisia. The Arab Spring originated in TUNISIA in December 2010, triggered by the self-immolation of Mohamed Bouazizi (a street vendor protesting police harassment). The Tunisian Revolution (Jasmine Revolution) ousted President Ben Ali in January 2011, sparking uprisings across Egypt, Libya, Syria, Yemen, Bahrain.

  • (a) Egypt — had its own uprising (Tahrir Square) but AFTER Tunisia.
  • (b) Lebanon — not a core Arab Spring country.
  • (c) Syria — had uprising starting March 2011, after Tunisia/Egypt.

Word Association — Arab Spring origin = Tunisia (Mohamed Bouazizi, Jasmine Revolution). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct current-affairs recall.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q96

Consider the following countries:

  1. 1Denmark
  2. 2Japan
  3. 3Russian Federation
  4. 4United Kingdom
  5. 5United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 3 and 5 (Denmark, Russian Federation, USA). Arctic Council's 8 member states (all have Arctic territory): Canada, Denmark (via Greenland), Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, USA.

  • 1. Denmark ✓ (via Greenland).
  • 2. Japan ✗ — Japan is an OBSERVER, not a member.
  • 3. Russian Federation ✓.
  • 4. United Kingdom ✗ — UK is an OBSERVER, not a member (despite its proximity).
  • 5. USA ✓ (via Alaska).

Word Association — Arctic Council = countries with Arctic territory. Odd One Out — Japan (Asia) and UK (mid-Atlantic) stand out as NON-Arctic → eliminate. Vulnerable Statements — membership lists are fact-dense, easy to verify.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Medium
Q97

Consider the following pairs:

#Region often in newsCountry
1ChechnyaRussian Federation
2DarfurMali
3Swat ValleyIraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • 1. Chechnya — RUSSIAN FEDERATION ✓ (North Caucasus; site of two Chechen wars 1994-96 and 1999-2009).
  • 2. Darfur — SUDAN, not Mali ✗ (region in western Sudan, site of post-2003 genocide/humanitarian crisis).
  • 3. Swat Valley — PAKISTAN, not Iraq ✗ (Khyber Pakhtunkhwa; site of Pakistani Taliban insurgency; Malala Yousafzai is from Swat).

Vulnerable Statements — country attributions for conflict regions are easy to swap. Exchange of Options — Darfur (Sudan) swapped to Mali, Swat Valley (Pakistan) swapped to Iraq — classic region-country swap.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium-Difficult
Q98

Consider the following international agreements:

  1. 1The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
  2. 2The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
  3. 3The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. All three agreements have a bearing on biodiversity:

  • 1. International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA, 2001) — directly deals with crop genetic resources (plant biodiversity) ✓.
  • 2. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) — addresses land degradation, which directly impacts species and ecosystem biodiversity ✓.
  • 3. World Heritage Convention (1972) — protects natural heritage sites, many of which are key biodiversity hotspots (Sundarbans, Manas, Keoladeo etc.) ✓.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'biodiversity', 'plant genetic resources', 'desertification combat', 'heritage conservation' all carry positive environmental valence → all correct. First Among Equals — 'all three' captures the broad interconnections of biodiversity protection.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium-Difficult
Q99

If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference. The MONTREUX RECORD is a register maintained under the Ramsar Convention (Article 3.2) of those Ramsar sites where adverse ecological changes have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur due to technological developments, pollution, or human interference. Inclusion in the Record signals the need for priority conservation attention. India has 2 sites on the record: Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake.

Word Association — 'Montreux Record' + 'wetland of international importance' (Ramsar) = ecological-change watchlist. UPSC Favourite Area — Ramsar + wetlands is staple UPSC territory. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'conservation attention' framing is the correct valence.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Advanced Medium
Q100

With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

  1. 1The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
  2. 2South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — The FIRST BRICS Summit was held in YEKATERINBURG, RUSSIA in June 2009, NOT Rio de Janeiro. (Brazil hosted the SIXTH BRICS Summit in 2014 at Fortaleza.)
  • S2 CORRECT — South Africa joined BRIC in December 2010 (making it BRICS), and was the LAST major economy to join. Original BRIC (Brazil-Russia-India-China) was the formation; South Africa was appended.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 gives a specific city+year — easy to check and manipulate (Yekaterinburg → Rio). Contemporary Names — historical-recent events on exact places are a classic setter weak-point. Word Association — 'First BRIC Summit' = Yekaterinburg 2009 (canonical fact).

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