General Studies Paper 1
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2017 Paper at a Glance
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
- 1A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- 2Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.
- S1 WRONG — A PRIVATE MEMBER'S BILL is a bill introduced by ANY MP who is NOT A MINISTER (it has nothing to do with whether the member is elected or nominated). The definition in S1 confuses 'private member' with 'nominated member'.
- S2 WRONG — A private member's bill has been passed in the past — the most notable instance was the MUSLIM WAKFS BILL, 1954 (and the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Bill, 1956 etc.). The claim of 'first time in history' is factually incorrect. Roughly 14 private member bills have been passed since 1952.
Exchange of Options — S1 swaps the definition of 'private member' (any non-minister MP) with 'nominated member' — classic definition-swap. Contemporary Names — S2's 'first time in history' claim is a wrong-timing trap; the first private member bill dates back to 1952.
With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryan and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1Rigvedic Aryan used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
- 2Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
- 3Rigvedic Aryans have domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.
- S1 CORRECT — Rigvedic Aryans used the COAT OF MAIL (varman) and HELMET (shipra) in warfare (referenced in Rigvedic hymns), whereas NO EVIDENCE of such protective armour has been found at Indus Valley sites ✓.
- S2 WRONG — Indus Valley people knew gold, silver, copper, tin and bronze — NOT 'only copper and iron'. Crucially, IRON WAS UNKNOWN to IVC people (iron came into wide use only in the Later Vedic period). The statement inverts the metallurgical knowledge.
- S3 CORRECT — Rigvedic Aryans clearly DOMESTICATED THE HORSE (mentioned repeatedly in Rigveda as ashva). Evidence of horse at IVC sites is disputed/absent — the prevailing view is no horse in IVC ✓.
Exchange of Options — S2 swaps 'iron' (unknown to IVC) into IVC metallurgy — classic metal-knowledge swap trap. Word Association — IVC = no horse, no iron; Rigvedic = horse, coat of mail (canonical historical pairings).
‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
Answer (a): Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. RECOGNITION OF PRIOR LEARNING (RPL) under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is aimed at CERTIFYING the skills already acquired by workers through INFORMAL / TRADITIONAL channels (especially CONSTRUCTION WORKERS, domestic workers, handloom weavers, etc.). It formalises informally-acquired competencies with certificates issued by Sector Skill Councils.
- (b) Distance-learning enrolment is handled by IGNOU/UGC, not RPL.
- (c) Reservation of skilled jobs is a separate policy.
- (d) NSDC trainee certification is under standard PMKVY short-term training, not RPL specifically (RPL is for PRIOR learning).
Word Association — 'Prior Learning' = already acquired skills in informal channels → targets traditionally-trained workers like construction/handloom (canonical scheme design). UPSC Respects Government Initiative — RPL is a skill-recognition flagship, framed positively.
From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assume importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
Answer (a): Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve. SATHYAMANGALAM TIGER RESERVE (northern Tamil Nadu, along Tamil Nadu-Karnataka border) is a critical ECOLOGICAL CORRIDOR LINKING THE EASTERN GHATS WITH THE WESTERN GHATS. It connects the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary/Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (Western Ghats) with the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary (Eastern Ghats), enabling tiger/elephant gene-flow between the two ghats.
- (b) Nallamala — entirely in Eastern Ghats (AP-Telangana), not a bridging area.
- (c) Nagarhole — Western Ghats (Karnataka), doesn't link to Eastern Ghats.
- (d) Seshachalam — Eastern Ghats (AP), not a connecting corridor.
Word Association — Sathyamangalam sits on Tamil Nadu-Karnataka-AP trijunction → uniquely positioned to link both Ghats (canonical ecological-corridor pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'ecological link', 'biodiversity corridor' frame conservation positively → option (a) fits.
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
Answer (a): Privileges. Equality in society implies the ABSENCE OF PRIVILEGES — i.e., no individual or group enjoys special advantages by birth, caste, wealth, or status. This is the classic political-philosophy definition of equality (from Laski, Barker and the constitutional tradition): equality = absence of privileges.
- (b) Restraints are part of rule of law; equality does not mean absence of restraints.
- (c) Competition can exist in an equal society; equality doesn't abolish competition.
- (d) Ideology is not what equality removes.
Word Association — 'equality' + 'absence of' = absence of PRIVILEGES (classical political-theory definition). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'equality' is a Preamble/FR core value; option (a) 'privileges' (abolition) aligns with the social-justice framing.
Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC).
- 1TRAFFIC is a beurau under United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP)
- 2The mission of Traffic is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (b): 2 only.
- S1 WRONG — TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna In Commerce) is NOT a bureau under UNEP. It is a JOINT PROGRAMME of WWF (World Wide Fund for Nature) AND IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) — NOT UNEP. Founded 1976.
- S2 CORRECT — TRAFFIC's mission IS to ensure that TRADE IN WILD PLANTS AND ANIMALS IS NOT A THREAT to the CONSERVATION OF NATURE ✓ — it monitors wildlife trade globally and supports CITES implementation.
Vulnerable Statements — S1 makes a specific institutional-parentage claim ('bureau under UNEP') — classic wrong-organisation swap (actual: WWF + IUCN). Positive & Empowering Keywords — S2's 'conservation of nature', 'not a threat' are positive conservation keywords → correct.
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
Answer (b): Participation of workers in the management of industries. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (the 'Mini-Constitution') added FOUR NEW DPSPs:
- Article 39A — Equal justice and free legal aid
- Article 43A — PARTICIPATION OF WORKERS IN MANAGEMENT OF INDUSTRIES ✓
- Article 48A — Protection of environment and wildlife
- Article 51A (not DPSP but Fundamental Duties added by 42nd)
The other options in the question are original DPSPs from 1950:
- (a) Equal pay (Art 39d) — ORIGINAL DPSP.
- (c) Right to work, education, public assistance (Art 41) — ORIGINAL DPSP.
- (d) Living wages for workers (Art 43) — ORIGINAL DPSP.
Word Association — 42nd Amendment → workers' participation in management (Art 43A) + environment (Art 48A) — canonical pairing. Constitution Qs — knowing which DPSPs were original vs amendment-added is direct textual recall.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Answer (c): Rights are claims of the citizens against the State. RIGHTS are essentially CLAIMS OF CITIZENS AGAINST THE STATE — they impose obligations on the State to protect and enable them. This is the classical liberal-democratic conception: Fundamental Rights under Part III are enforceable against the State (Art 12 defines 'State').
- (a) Inverts the relationship — rights protect citizens FROM arbitrary State action, not vice versa.
- (b) 'Privileges' is wrong framing — rights are universal, not privileges.
- (d) Wrong — rights are not confined to a few.
Exchange of Options — (a) inverts the citizen-State relationship, classic directional-swap trap. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'claims of citizens' has empowerment valence; rights are correctly framed as citizen-facing protections → (c) correct.
Which of the following gives ‘Gloabal Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
Answer (a): World Economic Forum. The GLOBAL GENDER GAP INDEX (GGGI) has been published annually since 2006 by the WORLD ECONOMIC FORUM (WEF). It ranks countries on four sub-indices: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment.
- (b) UNHRC — human rights forum, no such index.
- (c) UN Women — publishes different reports (Progress of World's Women), not GGGI.
- (d) WHO — health body, not gender index.
Word Association — 'Gender Gap Index' → World Economic Forum (canonical annual publication). Vulnerable Statements — publication-institution pairing is easily swapped across global bodies; WEF owns GGGI.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
- 1It is centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade
- 2It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovation for solving the many problems faced by our country.
- 3It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country complete digital in a decade.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (b): 2 only. Smart India Hackathon 2017 was a nationwide HACKATHON organised by MHRD (AICTE) + Ministry of Electronics & IT to bring together students, teachers, industry to solve real-world problems.
- S1 WRONG — It is NOT a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city into a Smart City (that's the SMART CITIES MISSION, a separate flagship).
- S2 CORRECT — SIH IS an initiative to IDENTIFY NEW DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY INNOVATIONS for solving many problems of the country (students hack on real problem statements posed by ministries) ✓.
- S3 WRONG — SIH is NOT about making all financial transactions digital in a decade (that was envisioned under Digital India / BHIM / UPI ecosystem, not SIH).
Word Association — 'Hackathon' → digital innovation problem-solving (direct name semantics) → S2 correct. Exchange of Options — S1 swaps Smart India Hackathon's scope with Smart Cities Mission's mandate; S3 swaps with Digital India's cashless-economy goal — classic scheme-confusion traps.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee?
- 1It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
- 2It is a 12 member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
- 3It function under the Chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (a): 1 only. Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), constituted June 2016 under amended RBI Act:
- S1 CORRECT — MPC DECIDES the REPO RATE (RBI's benchmark policy rate) and related monetary policy stance ✓.
- S2 WRONG — MPC is a SIX-MEMBER body (not 12): 3 RBI members (Governor, Deputy Governor in-charge of monetary policy, one RBI officer) + 3 external members nominated by the Government. Members have a FIXED TENURE (external: 4 years, non-reappointable) — NOT 'reconstituted every year'.
- S3 WRONG — MPC is CHAIRED BY THE RBI GOVERNOR, NOT the Union Finance Minister.
Vulnerable Statements — S2's specific number (12) is a concrete-data manipulation of actual 6. S3 misattributes chairmanship (FM instead of Governor). Council vs Committee — 'Committee' (MPC) is typically chaired by a Bureaucrat/specialist (Governor here), aligning with the PDF's Committee-Bureaucrat rule → S3 wrong.
With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements
- 1It is a song and dance performance
- 2Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
- 3It is used to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b): 1 and 3 only. Manipuri Sankirtana (inscribed in UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list, 2013):
- S1 CORRECT — Sankirtana IS a SONG AND DANCE PERFORMANCE (also includes percussion and narration) ✓.
- S2 WRONG — Cymbals (kartal) are NOT the only instruments. The PUNG (mridang-like drum) is actually the central instrument; cymbals accompany. Multiple instruments are used.
- S3 CORRECT — Sankirtana narrates the LIFE AND DEEDS OF LORD KRISHNA (it is a Vaishnavite devotional art form) ✓.
Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'cymbals are the ONLY musical instruments' is an absolute-exclusive claim → suspect. Word Association — Manipuri + Sankirtana + Vaishnavism → Krishna narratives + Pung drum as central instrument.
Which among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?
- 1Lord Cornwallis
- 2Alexander Read
- 3Thomas Munro
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (c): 2 and 3 only. The RYOTWARI SETTLEMENT (introduced 1820s in Madras and Bombay Presidencies) was associated with:
- 1. Lord Cornwallis ✗ — Cornwallis was associated with the PERMANENT SETTLEMENT (Zamindari), introduced in Bengal 1793 — the OPPOSITE of Ryotwari.
- 2. Alexander Read ✓ — Captain Alexander Read was the PIONEER, introducing the Ryotwari approach in the Baramahal region (Madras) in 1792.
- 3. Thomas Munro ✓ — Sir Thomas Munro (Governor of Madras, 1820-27) EXTENDED and consolidated the Ryotwari settlement across the Madras Presidency.
Under Ryotwari, revenue was collected directly from the cultivating peasant (ryot), bypassing intermediaries.
Exchange of Options — S1 mis-attributes Ryotwari (actually Read + Munro, Madras-Bombay) to Cornwallis (Permanent Settlement, Bengal) — classic settlement-swap trap. British in Negative Light — colonial revenue extraction narratives tested; know the three settlements' architects.
In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
- 1It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
- 2Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms
- 3Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganism specifically designed for bioremediation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Answer (c): 1 and 3 only. Bioremediation uses living organisms (microbes, plants) to clean up pollutants:
- S1 CORRECT — Bioremediation ENHANCES THE SAME BIODEGRADATION PROCESSES that occur naturally — e.g., oil spill cleanup by naturally-occurring oil-degrading bacteria ✓.
- S2 WRONG — Heavy metals like CADMIUM and LEAD are NOT BIODEGRADABLE (they are elements, can be sequestered/stabilised but not 'readily and completely treated'). Bioremediation is limited for heavy metals — phytoremediation can concentrate them, but not degrade them.
- S3 CORRECT — GENETICALLY ENGINEERED microorganisms CAN be specifically designed for bioremediation (e.g., Pseudomonas strains engineered to degrade specific pollutants) ✓.
Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'readily and completely treated' for heavy metals is an absolute over-claim → suspect. Science = Futuristic/Evolving — S3's genetic-engineering claim fits the 'new technology has unlimited potential' framing → correct.
The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
Answer (d): a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes. The TRADE DISPUTES ACT, 1929, enacted by the colonial government, provided for:
- A system of Courts of INQUIRY and INDUSTRIAL TRIBUNALS to settle labour disputes.
- A BAN ON STRIKES in public utility services without 30 days' notice; banned 'general strikes' connected with political objects.
The Act was seen as anti-worker — it was part of the response to rising communist-influenced labour militancy. Lala Lajpat Rai led the parliamentary opposition against this Act.
- (a) Workers' participation in management — that's Article 43A (42nd Amendment, 1976).
- (b) Arbitrary management powers — opposite framing.
- (c) British court intervention — too vague.
British in Negative Light — Trade Disputes Act 1929 was a repressive colonial labour law, framed negatively (restricts strikes). Word Association — 1929 + Trade Disputes + colonial = tribunals + strike ban (canonical labour-history pairing).
Local self government can be best explained as an exercise in
Answer (b): Democratic decentralisation. LOCAL SELF GOVERNMENT is the EXERCISE of DEMOCRATIC DECENTRALISATION — transferring decision-making, planning, and implementation powers from central/state levels to elected local bodies (Panchayats, Municipalities). Part IX (73rd Amendment) and Part IXA (74th Amendment) institutionalised this in India.
- (a) Federalism is about Centre-State division, not local governance.
- (c) Administrative delegation is executive, not democratic.
- (d) Direct democracy is referenda/plebiscites — different mechanism.
Word Association — 'Local self government' = devolution to elected local bodies = democratic decentralisation (canonical polity pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'decentralisation', 'democratic' are top-tier empowerment keywords → option (b) correct.
Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitutes limitation upon
- 1Legislative Function
- 2Executive Function
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) under Part IV of the Constitution:
- S1 WRONG — DPSPs do NOT constitute a LIMITATION on LEGISLATIVE function — they are POSITIVE DIRECTIONS (aims/objectives) for law-making, not restrictions. Article 37: DPSPs are NOT ENFORCEABLE by any court but fundamental in governance.
- S2 WRONG — DPSPs do NOT constitute a LIMITATION on EXECUTIVE function either — they guide executive action positively, but don't limit it in a justiciable way.
DPSPs are POSITIVE OBLIGATIONS (guidelines), not LIMITATIONS (restrictions). Fundamental Rights constitute limitations on State; DPSPs guide the State.
Constitution Qs — DPSPs are non-justiciable positive guidelines. The question inverts 'guideline' → 'limitation' — classic polity-concept inversion. Exchange of Options — 'limitation' applies to Fundamental Rights, not DPSPs — setter-swap of constitutional concepts.
The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the new refers to
Answer (c): EU. The DIGITAL SINGLE MARKET STRATEGY is a EUROPEAN UNION initiative launched May 2015 to make the EU's 28 (later 27) national digital markets into ONE UNIFIED DIGITAL MARKET — harmonising e-commerce rules, data protection (GDPR), telecoms, copyright etc. Part of EU's effort to boost digital economy.
- (a) ASEAN — has its own digital economy framework.
- (b) BRICS — no single-market concept.
- (d) G20 — too broad/informal for a 'single market'.
Word Association — 'Single Market' → EU (single-market principle is the foundation of EU integration from 1992). Contemporary Names — EU's digital strategy is well-documented current affairs.
At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
Answer (c): Chandipur. CHANDIPUR BEACH (Odisha, Balasore district) exhibits a UNIQUE TIDAL PHENOMENON — the sea water recedes up to 5 km from the shoreline TWICE A DAY during low tide, leaving the sea-bed walkable, and returns during high tide. This is due to the extensive flat intertidal mudflats + tidal range of the Bay of Bengal. Also famous for DRDO's Integrated Test Range.
- (a) Bhavnagar — Gujarat, no such phenomenon.
- (b) Bheemunipatnam — AP coast, normal tides.
- (d) Nagapattinam — TN coast, normal tides.
Word Association — 'vanishing sea' + 'walk on sea floor' → Chandipur-on-Sea (canonical tourism/geography fact). UPSC Favourite Area — unique natural phenomena in specific locations are tested as direct recall.
With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements :
- 1A property transaction is no treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
- 2Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government
- 3The act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b): 2 only. Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (amended comprehensively in 2016):
- S1 WRONG — A transaction IS treated as BENAMI even if the owner is 'not aware' — in fact, one key category of benami is where the owner DENIES knowledge of the transaction (benami is specifically property held in someone else's name for the real beneficial owner, regardless of awareness chains). The statement inverts the definition.
- S2 CORRECT — Properties held benami ARE LIABLE FOR CONFISCATION by the Central Government without compensation ✓.
- S3 WRONG — The Act DOES provide an APPELLATE MECHANISM — the Appellate Tribunal for Benami Transactions, with further appeal to the High Court. The claim of 'no appellate mechanism' is factually wrong.
Extreme-Word Rule — S3's 'DOES NOT provide for ANY appellate mechanism' is an absolute-exclusion claim → suspect. Vulnerable Statements — S1 and S3 make specific procedural claims easily manipulated; the actual Act has a clear appellate framework.
Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
- 1Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected
- 2There could be drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants
- 3It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Answer (c): 1 and 3 only. Butterflies are ecological keystone species:
- S1 CORRECT — POLLINATION of some plants (especially wildflowers, certain crops) relies on butterflies. Population crash → pollination services degraded → some plants adversely affected ✓.
- S2 WRONG — There's NO DIRECT 'drastic INCREASE in FUNGAL infections of cultivated plants' attributable to butterfly decline. Butterflies don't control fungi (that's other organisms). Statement is an unsupported cause-effect leap.
- S3 CORRECT — Butterflies and their caterpillars are PREY for WASPS, SPIDERS, and many INSECTIVOROUS BIRDS. Population crash → food-chain impact → these predator populations decline ✓.
Positive Term / Negative Term consequences — butterfly decline (negative) → pollination loss + predator decline (negative consequences in food-web). Exchange of Options — S2 swaps an unrelated agricultural concern (fungal infection) into a butterfly-decline cascade — classic category-swap trap.
It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
- 1Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only an not on continents
- 2Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
- 3Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may rise ecological and social concerns
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.
- S1 WRONG — Algae-based biofuels can be produced IN LAND-BASED OPEN PONDS or PHOTO-BIOREACTORS, NOT exclusively in seas. Many land-based commercial algae farms exist. The 'in seas only' claim is an absolute restriction that's factually wrong.
- S2 CORRECT — Setting up algae biofuel production requires HIGH LEVEL OF EXPERTISE AND TECHNOLOGY (bioreactor engineering, strain optimisation, harvesting systems) — a genuine challenge for developing countries ✓.
- S3 CORRECT — Economically viable algae biofuel production REQUIRES LARGE-SCALE facilities, which can raise ECOLOGICAL CONCERNS (land/water use, species displacement) and SOCIAL CONCERNS (food-fuel competition, local displacement) ✓.
Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'in seas ONLY and NOT on continents' is a double-absolute exclusion → suspect. Positive Term / Negative Term consequences — 'high expertise requirements' + 'ecological concerns' both fit negative-challenge framing for developing countries.
Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?
- 1To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
- 2To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women
- 3To promote the consumption of millets coarse cereals and unpolished rice
- 4To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Answer (a): 1 and 2 only. National Nutrition Mission (rechristened POSHAN Abhiyaan, launched March 2018 but covered in 2017 CA):
- S1 CORRECT — Aims to create AWARENESS about MALNUTRITION among PREGNANT WOMEN and LACTATING MOTHERS ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — Aims to REDUCE ANAEMIA among YOUNG CHILDREN, ADOLESCENT GIRLS, AND WOMEN ✓.
- S3 WRONG — Promoting millets/coarse cereals/unpolished rice consumption is NOT a specific NNM objective (that's under POSHAN's allied campaigns or 2023 International Year of Millets framework).
- S4 WRONG — Promoting poultry-egg consumption is NOT a stated NNM objective (some states have mid-day-meal egg policies, but not NNM).
Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'awareness', 'malnutrition', 'anaemia reduction', 'pregnant women', 'adolescent girls' carry maximum social-justice/maternal-child welfare valence → S1, S2 correct. Exchange of Options — S3 and S4 swap adjacent but distinct policy measures (millet promotion, egg policy) into NNM's specific scope.
Consider the following statements:
- 1The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and allow the workers to form trade unions.
- 2N.M Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (b): 2 only.
- S1 WRONG — The FACTORIES ACT, 1881 was India's FIRST factory law, focused on CHILD LABOUR regulation and working hours (for children aged 7-12). It did NOT 'fix wages' and did NOT 'allow workers to form trade unions' (trade unions were legalised by the Indian Trade Unions Act, 1926). The 1881 Act's scope is misrepresented.
- S2 CORRECT — NARAYAN MEGHAJI LOKHANDE (1848-1897) was indeed a PIONEER in organising India's labour movement. He founded the Bombay Mill-Hands Association (1884, India's first labour organisation) and Mahatma Phule's close associate ✓.
Vulnerable Statements — S1 makes specific legislative-scope claims (wages + trade unions) easily falsified — the 1881 Act was narrow in scope. British in Negative Light — early colonial labour laws were narrow and paternalistic, not empowering → S1's empowerment claims suspect.
In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration
- 1Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
- 2Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
- 3Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. CARBON SEQUESTRATION — trapping CO2 underground to mitigate climate change. Standard geological storage sites include:
- 1. Abandoned and uneconomic COAL SEAMS ✓ (CO2 can be adsorbed onto coal surface, displacing methane — Enhanced Coal Bed Methane).
- 2. Depleted OIL AND GAS RESERVOIRS ✓ (well-characterised, proven traps, infrastructure available).
- 3. Subterranean DEEP SALINE FORMATIONS ✓ (the largest global storage potential, saline aquifers deep underground).
All three are recognised IPCC carbon-storage categories.
Science = Futuristic/Evolving — carbon sequestration is a climate-mitigation emerging technology → 'all three sites' fits the 'broad technological potential' framing. First Among Equals — 'all three' subsumes partial options when multiple valid sites exist.
The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
Answer (d): Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States. The BUTLER COMMITTEE of 1927 (Indian States Committee, headed by Harcourt Butler) was constituted to examine and IMPROVE THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE BRITISH GOVERNMENT (through the Government of India) AND THE INDIAN PRINCELY STATES. The Committee's report clarified paramountcy doctrine, the Crown's relation with princes, and the princes' rights/obligations.
- (a) Wrong — that was the work of GoI Act 1935's federal scheme.
- (b) Wrong — Secretary of State's powers were defined by the GoI Acts.
- (c) Wrong — press censorship was Vernacular Press Act 1878 etc.
Word Association — 'Butler Committee' → princely states + paramountcy (canonical modern-history pairing). Contemporary Names — committee-era pairings are direct recall; Butler (1927) vs Simon (1927) vs Nehru (1928) vs Round Table (1930-32) — know the sequence.
The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
Answer (a): Developing solar power production in our country. DOMESTIC CONTENT REQUIREMENT (DCR) refers to the provision under India's National Solar Mission (JNNSM) that mandates SOLAR PV PROJECTS to use INDIAN-MADE solar cells and modules (and not imported ones) for a specified portion. Aimed at boosting DOMESTIC SOLAR MANUFACTURING. The DCR was challenged by the USA at the WTO Dispute Settlement Body and India lost the case in 2016 (against non-discrimination principles of GATT).
- (b), (c), (d) — unrelated to 'domestic content' in the solar policy context.
Word Association — 'Domestic Content' + 'Requirement' → local-manufacturing mandate in solar sector (canonical policy-term). UPSC Respects Government Initiative — solar DCR framed as self-reliance policy (positive framing) → option (a) correct.
Consider the following statements :
- 1The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of United Nations
- 2The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.
- S1 WRONG — Nuclear Security Summits (NSS, 2010-2016) were NOT held under UN aegis. They were a SERIES OF SUMMITS INITIATED BY US PRESIDENT OBAMA — independent of the UN system, held in Washington (2010), Seoul (2012), The Hague (2014), Washington (2016).
- S2 WRONG — The INTERNATIONAL PANEL ON FISSILE MATERIALS (IPFM) is NOT an organ of IAEA. It is an INDEPENDENT GROUP of arms-control and non-proliferation experts from 17 countries, established 2006 — NOT part of IAEA.
Vulnerable Statements — both S1 and S2 make specific institutional-parentage claims (UN / IAEA) that are factually wrong. Exchange of Options — NSS was a US-led initiative, swapped to UN aegis; IPFM is independent, swapped to IAEA organ — classic institutional-attribution traps.
Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
Answer (c): All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments. National Pension System (NPS) eligibility:
- (a) Wrong — NPS is open to both RESIDENT and NRI Indian citizens (earlier only residents; NRIs added later).
- (b) Wrong — NPS age range is 18 to 70 years (earlier 60; expanded); not 21-55.
- (c) CORRECT — ALL STATE GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES joining after the date of notification by their respective state governments are mandatorily covered under NPS ✓.
- (d) Wrong — Central Government employees are covered under NPS EXCEPT those in the ARMED FORCES (Army, Navy, Air Force are still on the old pension system, not NPS).
Extreme-Word Rule — (a) 'only' residents and (d) 'including Armed Forces' are absolute claims easily falsified. Vulnerable Statements — specific age ranges (21-55 in b) and eligibility details are concrete-data manipulations; (c) is the carefully-worded correct claim.
With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
- 1The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through the Sikkim
- 2River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta
- 3River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b): 2 only. River Teesta:
- S1 WRONG — Teesta ORIGINATES from TSO LHAMO LAKE in North Sikkim (and Zemu Glacier) — NOT the 'same source as Brahmaputra'. Brahmaputra originates from Angsi Glacier / Chemayungdung in Tibet. Different source regions entirely.
- S2 CORRECT — River RANGEET ORIGINATES IN WEST SIKKIM (from Rathong Glacier) and is the LARGEST TRIBUTARY OF THE TEESTA, joining near Teesta Bazaar ✓.
- S3 WRONG — Teesta does NOT flow directly into Bay of Bengal. It flows through Sikkim, West Bengal, enters BANGLADESH, and there it JOINS THE BRAHMAPUTRA (Jamuna) — which eventually reaches the Bay. Teesta itself doesn't reach the sea directly.
Word Association — Teesta source = Tso Lhamo / Zemu Glacier (Sikkim Himalaya) — not shared with Brahmaputra. Vulnerable Statements — specific river-source and destination claims are concrete-data swaps easily manipulated.
Consider the following statements:
- 1In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue
- 2Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c): Both 1 and 2.
- S1 CORRECT — In tropical regions, ZIKA VIRUS is transmitted by AEDES AEGYPTI and Aedes albopictus — THE SAME MOSQUITO that transmits DENGUE (and chikungunya, yellow fever) ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — SEXUAL TRANSMISSION of Zika virus IS DOCUMENTED (from infected men to partners, and rarely woman-to-man). WHO confirms sexual transmission as a secondary route ✓.
Word Association — Zika + dengue + chikungunya → all Aedes-borne arboviruses (canonical vector-pairing). Positive Term / Negative Term — epidemic-disease transmission framed broadly (both routes correct) → 'both correct' fits.
Consider the following statements:
- 1The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tires and tubes.
- 2AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a): 1 only.
- S1 CORRECT — The BIS Standard Mark (ISI mark) is MANDATORY for certain products under QCO (Quality Control Orders), and AUTOMOTIVE TIRES AND TUBES are among the mandatory-ISI-certification products (for safety reasons) ✓.
- S2 WRONG — AGMARK is a quality certification mark issued under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937, administered by the DIRECTORATE OF MARKETING AND INSPECTION (DMI) under the Ministry of Agriculture, GoI — NOT by FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization of the UN). This is a classic institutional-attribution trap.
Vulnerable Statements — S2 swaps AGMARK's certifier from DMI (India) to FAO (UN) — classic domestic-vs-international agency swap. Word Association — AGMARK = Agriculture + Marking → Indian agricultural quality mark (domestic body).
What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?
- 1It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
- 2It provides the farmer’s access to the nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. National Agriculture Market (eNAM), launched April 2016:
- S1 CORRECT — eNAM IS a PAN-INDIA ELECTRONIC TRADING PORTAL for agricultural commodities — it networks existing APMC mandis across states on a single digital platform ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — eNAM PROVIDES FARMER'S ACCESS TO A NATIONWIDE MARKET with transparent online auctions, enabling better price discovery commensurate with produce quality (eNAM includes assaying for quality grading) ✓.
UPSC Respects Government Initiative — eNAM is a flagship agricultural-marketing reform, framed positively → 'both correct' fits. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'pan-India', 'electronic trading', 'nationwide market', 'farmer's access', 'commensurate with quality' are multi-empowerment keywords → both correct.
With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
- 1It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
- 2Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. National IPR Policy 2016 (approved by Union Cabinet, May 2016):
- S1 CORRECT — The Policy EXPLICITLY REITERATES INDIA'S COMMITMENT to the DOHA DEVELOPMENT AGENDA of WTO and the TRIPS AGREEMENT (while preserving Indian flexibilities like compulsory licensing) ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — The DEPARTMENT OF INDUSTRIAL POLICY AND PROMOTION (DIPP, now DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry IS the NODAL AGENCY for regulating IPR in India ✓.
UPSC Respects Government Initiative — National IPR Policy framed positively as India's IPR modernisation → 'both correct' fits. Word Association — DIPP/DPIIT = industrial policy + IPR (canonical ministerial jurisdiction).
According to the Wildlife [Protection] Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
- 1Gharial
- 2Indian wild ass
- 3Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Schedule I of the WILDLIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972 lists species given the HIGHEST DEGREE OF PROTECTION — hunting prohibited except under special circumstances (with Chief Wildlife Warden's permission for specific scientific/conservation purposes):
- 1. Gharial ✓ (Gavialis gangeticus) — Schedule I, critically endangered.
- 2. Indian Wild Ass ✓ (Equus hemionus khur) — Schedule I, endangered, confined to Rann of Kutch.
- 3. Wild Buffalo ✓ (Bubalus arnee) — Schedule I, endangered, mainly in Central India.
All three are iconic Schedule I species.
First Among Equals — 'all three' covers iconic Schedule I species when multiple valid options exist. UPSC Favourite Area — Wildlife Schedule I listing is tested regularly; the Gharial, Wild Ass, Wild Buffalo trio is canonical.
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
- 1A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- 2They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2. Fundamental Duties (Article 51A, Part IVA, added by 42nd Amendment 1976, 11 duties):
- S1 WRONG — There is NO LEGISLATIVE MECHANISM provided to ENFORCE the Fundamental Duties. They are NON-JUSTICIABLE and non-enforceable by courts. Parliament can make laws for their enforcement (as has been done for certain duties like flag/national-anthem respect), but there's no general enforcement mechanism.
- S2 WRONG — Fundamental Duties are NOT 'correlative to LEGAL DUTIES' in the strict sense — they are MORAL/CIVIC DUTIES expected of citizens, not legal obligations with statutory penalties (only a few have been criminalised separately).
Constitution Qs — Fundamental Duties under Art 51A are NON-JUSTICIABLE moral obligations; the Constitution rarely defines enforcement mechanisms in detail. Exchange of Options — S1 swaps DPSP-like 'non-enforceable guideline' status with 'legislative enforcement' claim; S2 mislabels moral duties as legal.
Consider the following pairs:
- 1Radhakanta Deb- First President of the British Indian Association.
- 2GazuluLakshminarasuChetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
- 3Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Answer (b): 1 and 3 only.
- 1. Radhakanta Deb ✓ — He WAS the FIRST PRESIDENT of the BRITISH INDIAN ASSOCIATION (founded 1851, Calcutta) — a conservative organisation of Bengal zamindars ✓.
- 2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty ✗ — He founded the MADRAS NATIVE ASSOCIATION (1849), NOT the Madras Mahajana Sabha. The Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded by M. Veeraraghavachari, P. Rangaiah Naidu, and G. Subramania Iyer in 1884. Name-swap trap.
- 3. Surendranath Banerjee ✓ — He founded the INDIAN ASSOCIATION in 1876 (Calcutta, with Anand Mohan Bose) — one of the earliest political organisations of nationalist ideas ✓.
Vulnerable Statements — S2 swaps Madras Native Association (Chetty's actual body) with Madras Mahajana Sabha (different founders) — classic pre-Congress political-association swap. Contemporary Names — Bengal-Madras-Bombay pre-Congress bodies are often paired wrongly.
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Answer (b): Economic liberty. The PREAMBLE to the Constitution of India explicitly enshrines:
- LIBERTY of THOUGHT, EXPRESSION, BELIEF, FAITH AND WORSHIP ✓ (all four listed).
Economic liberty is NOT mentioned in the Preamble — the Preamble speaks of 'EQUALITY of status and of opportunity' and social-economic-political JUSTICE, but not 'economic liberty'. So: (a), (c), (d) are all IN the Preamble; (b) 'Economic liberty' is NOT.
Odd One Out — among four liberty-related terms, three (thought/expression/belief) are in Preamble; (b) 'economic liberty' is the odd one — classic odd-one-out polity trap. Constitution Qs — Preamble's exact language (thought/expression/belief/faith/worship) is direct textual recall; know it verbatim.
With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:
- 1QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the India Industry.
- 2Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. Quality Council of India (QCI), set up 1997:
- S1 CORRECT — QCI was SET UP JOINTLY by the GOVERNMENT OF INDIA (Ministry of Commerce & Industry via DIPP) and the INDIAN INDUSTRY (represented by 3 apex industry associations: FICCI, CII, ASSOCHAM) ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — The CHAIRMAN of QCI is APPOINTED BY THE PRIME MINISTER on the RECOMMENDATIONS OF THE INDUSTRY to the Government ✓.
Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'jointly set up', 'Government and Industry', 'recommendations of industry' are partnership-model positive keywords → both correct. Council vs Committee — QCI is a 'Council' with industry representation; the PM's appointment aligns with high-level governance.
What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
- 1To supply credit to small business units.
- 2To supply credit to small and marginal farmers.
- 3To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (a): 1 and 2 only. Small Finance Banks (SFBs), RBI guidelines 2014; first licences 2015-16 (Ujjivan, Equitas, AU etc.):
- S1 CORRECT — Aim is to SUPPLY CREDIT TO SMALL BUSINESS UNITS (small/micro/unorganised-sector enterprises) ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — Aim is to SUPPLY CREDIT TO SMALL AND MARGINAL FARMERS ✓.
- S3 WRONG — SFBs are NOT specifically about 'encouraging young entrepreneurs in rural areas' — that's the target of Mudra/Stand Up India/SFURTI etc. SFBs target the underserved borrower base broadly, not a specific demographic.
Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'small business units', 'small and marginal farmers' are financial-inclusion target keywords → S1, S2 correct. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — SFBs framed as inclusion-focused RBI reform (positive).
With reference to ‘Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development [APMCHUD], consider the following statements:
- 1The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms’ – Policy Response and Governance Structure’.
- 2India host all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2. APMCHUD (Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development):
- S1 WRONG — The FIRST APMCHUD was held in INDIA IN 2006 ✓ (that part is correct); however, the THEME was NOT 'Emerging Urban Forms - Policy Response and Governance Structure'. The first conference's theme was different (around sustainable urbanisation). The specific theme claim is wrong.
- S2 WRONG — India does NOT host ALL Annual Ministerial Conferences; APMCHUD conferences rotate among Asia-Pacific member countries (Tehran 2008, Solo 2010, Amman 2012, Seoul 2014, etc.). The 'India hosts all' claim is factually wrong. Also, APMCHUD is not run 'in partnership with ADB, APEC, and ASEAN' as a formal tripartite — these are different groupings.
Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'India HOSTS ALL Annual Ministerial Conferences' is an absolute claim → suspect. Vulnerable Statements — specific theme (S1) and specific partnership list (S2) are concrete-detail claims easily manipulated — both wrong.
Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
Answer (a): the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women. This is a classical political-theory statement (echoing Bryce, Laski). DEMOCRACY'S SUPERIOR VIRTUE lies in calling into activity the INTELLIGENCE AND CHARACTER OF ORDINARY MEN AND WOMEN — i.e., democracy harnesses the collective wisdom of the citizenry, not just elite rule. Option (a) is the standard democratic-theory answer.
- (b) Strengthening executive leadership is authoritarian-leaning.
- (c) 'Superior individual' is the 'great man' theory — antithesis of democracy.
- (d) 'Dedicated party workers' is oligarchic/partisan, not democratic virtue.
Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'intelligence and character of ORDINARY MEN AND WOMEN' carries maximum people-centric democratic valence → option (a) correct. Word Association — 'democracy' + 'virtue' → citizen-participation framing (canonical political philosophy).
Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘United Payments Interface [UPI]?
Answer (a): Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. UPI (Unified Payments Interface), launched April 2016 by NPCI, allows INSTANT INTER-BANK TRANSFERS directly from BANK ACCOUNT to bank account via VPA (Virtual Payment Address). This REDUCES THE NEED for separate mobile wallets (which used to be the bridge between bank account and merchant). With UPI, you can transact directly from your bank account.
- (b) 'Digital currency TOTALLY REPLACE physical in two decades' — too extreme/speculative.
- (c) FDI inflows — UPI doesn't directly drive FDI.
- (d) DBT is a separate mechanism (Aadhaar-seeded accounts), not a UPI consequence.
Word Association — UPI = direct bank-to-bank transfer = makes wallet-intermediary unnecessary (canonical fintech framing). Extreme-Word Rule — (b)'s 'totally replace' and (c)'s 'drastically increase' are absolute overclaims → suspect; (a) is the measured correct answer.
The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’ ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Answer (a): Observation and understanding of the Universe. All four terms are COSMOLOGY/THEORETICAL PHYSICS concepts:
- EVENT HORIZON — boundary of a black hole (point of no return).
- SINGULARITY — infinite-density point at black hole centre / Big Bang origin.
- STRING THEORY — theoretical framework treating particles as 1-D vibrating strings, candidate for unified theory.
- STANDARD MODEL — current best theory of particle physics (quarks, leptons, bosons).
All relate to OBSERVATION AND UNDERSTANDING OF THE UNIVERSE (cosmology + particle physics).
- (b) Eclipses — too narrow.
- (c) Satellites — not cosmology.
- (d) Biological evolution — different domain.
Word Association — all four are physics/cosmology keywords → universe observation (direct domain pairing). Science = Futuristic/Evolving — cosmological terms fit the 'broad theoretical physics' framing → option (a) correct.
With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’ often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
- 1Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
- 2It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. (The Q lists only 2 statements but key is (d), so treating as broad-applicability positive answer; standard key is 'both correct' = option (d) in this framing.) GENOME SEQUENCING in agriculture:
- S1 CORRECT — Can identify GENETIC MARKERS for DISEASE RESISTANCE and DROUGHT TOLERANCE in crops (marker-assisted breeding) ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — Can be used to DECIPHER HOST-PATHOGEN RELATIONSHIPS in crops (understanding how pathogens attack, host defences, for designing resistant varieties) ✓.
Both statements capture genuine genome-sequencing applications in crop science.
Science = Futuristic/Evolving — genome sequencing is the quintessential 'evolving technology with unlimited potential' → broad correct-applications framing. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'disease resistance', 'drought tolerance', 'host-pathogen' are agricultural-biotech positive-outcome keywords → all correct.
The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
Answer (c): the executive remains responsible to the legislature. The MAIN ADVANTAGE of a PARLIAMENTARY form of government is that the EXECUTIVE (Council of Ministers) REMAINS RESPONSIBLE TO THE LEGISLATURE (Parliament) — collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha (Article 75). The executive can be removed by a vote of no-confidence. This ensures ACCOUNTABILITY.
- (a) Separation of powers is the advantage of PRESIDENTIAL, not parliamentary.
- (b) Continuity/efficiency is debatable; parliamentary often criticised for instability.
- (d) Wrong — in parliamentary, the head of government CAN be changed without election (via no-confidence or leadership change within ruling party).
Word Association — parliamentary = responsible executive (canonical polity-definition pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'responsible to the legislature' has accountability/democracy valence → option (c) correct.
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
Answer (a): Rights are correlative with Duties. The standard political-philosophy position (and Indian constitutional ethos): RIGHTS AND DUTIES ARE CORRELATIVE — i.e., they go hand-in-hand. Every right carries a corresponding duty (my right to free speech implies your duty to not silence me; my right to life implies everyone's duty to respect it). This is reflected in the Constitution: Part III (Rights) is balanced by Part IVA (Fundamental Duties, added 1976).
- (b) Wrong — rights are socially embedded, not independent.
- (c) Wrong — both rights AND duties matter for personality development.
- (d) Wrong — both rights AND duties are important; duties alone don't stabilise a State.
Word Association — 'Rights' + 'Duties' = correlative (classical political-philosophy pairing, Laski/Barker). Positive & Empowering Keywords — correlative balance reflects mature democratic-constitutional philosophy → option (a) correct.
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
Answer (a): The Preamble. The PREAMBLE is widely regarded as the 'SOUL' or 'MIND' of the Constitution — it reflects the philosophical and political intentions of the Constitution-makers (Constituent Assembly). Key phrases: Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic; Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity. Supreme Court (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973) has held the Preamble part of the Constitution and its philosophy is integral.
- (b) FRs — specific guarantees; not the full philosophical mind.
- (c) DPSPs — policy goals; supplementary.
- (d) Fundamental Duties — added 1976, not the original 'mind'.
Word Association — Preamble = philosophy + mind of makers (canonical constitutional-interpretation principle). Constitution Qs — Preamble's philosophical primacy is direct textual/doctrinal recall → option (a) correct.
If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
Answer (b): 7. The shortest road route from KOHIMA (Nagaland) to KOTTAYAM (Kerala), via NH-27 and peninsular arterials, passes through: NAGALAND → ASSAM → WEST BENGAL → ODISHA → ANDHRA PRADESH → TAMIL NADU → KERALA = 7 STATES minimum (origin and destination included). Avoiding BIhar/Jharkhand by going via Assam→WB→Odisha→AP→TN→Kerala gives 7 states. Including any middle state (e.g., Telangana) would push the count higher.
- (a) 6 is too few; you cannot skip any major state.
- (c), (d) — 8 or 9 would be non-minimum routes.
First Among Equals — minimum state-count is the crucial qualifier; route optimisation matters. Word Association — peninsular road travel requires traversing the eastern coastal corridor (NH-16 then NH-66/Kerala) → 7 states is the canonical minimum answer.
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
- 1Adjournment motion
- 2Question hour
- 3Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Parliament exercises CONTROL OVER THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS through multiple mechanisms:
- 1. ADJOURNMENT MOTION ✓ — brings urgent public importance matters to Government's attention, can embarrass; censures Government if adopted.
- 2. QUESTION HOUR ✓ — first hour of each sitting; MPs question Ministers on policies/actions; direct accountability tool.
- 3. SUPPLEMENTARY QUESTIONS ✓ — follow-up questions to original Question Hour Qs; allow deeper scrutiny.
All three are standard parliamentary control mechanisms over the executive.
First Among Equals — 'all three' fits when multiple valid parliamentary-control tools are listed. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'control over Council of Ministers', 'accountability mechanisms' are democratic-polity keywords → all correct.
Which of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatia Kingdom?
Answer (b): Motupalli. MOTUPALLI (in present-day Andhra Pradesh, Prakasam district) was a VERY IMPORTANT SEAPORT of the KAKATIYA KINGDOM (12th-14th century). Famous for the 'Abaya Sasanam' (Charter of Safety) issued by King Ganapati Deva (1245 CE) inviting and protecting foreign merchants. Marco Polo referred to it as 'Motupalli' in his travelogue. Pearls, diamonds and textiles were traded.
- (a) Kakinada — later port, not Kakatiya era.
- (c) Machilipatnam — became prominent under Qutb Shahis (16th c) and European companies.
- (d) Nelluru — not a major port.
Word Association — Kakatiya + seaport → Motupalli + Abaya Sasanam (canonical medieval-South-India-trade pairing). UPSC Favourite Area — medieval South Indian kingdoms (Kakatiyas, Hoysalas, Cholas) and their ports tested regularly.
With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1It is an initiative of the European Union.
- 2It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
- 3It is coordinated by world Resources Institute (WRI) and world business council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (a): 1 and 2 only. Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA), launched 2007:
- S1 CORRECT — GCCA IS an INITIATIVE OF THE EUROPEAN UNION (European Commission) ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — GCCA PROVIDES TECHNICAL AND FINANCIAL SUPPORT to targeted DEVELOPING COUNTRIES (especially LDCs and small island states) to INTEGRATE CLIMATE CHANGE INTO THEIR DEVELOPMENT POLICIES AND BUDGETS ✓.
- S3 WRONG — GCCA is NOT coordinated by WRI (World Resources Institute) and WBCSD (World Business Council for Sustainable Development). It is coordinated by the EUROPEAN COMMISSION. WRI and WBCSD jointly manage the GHG Protocol, not GCCA. Classic institutional-attribution swap.
Vulnerable Statements — S3 swaps WRI+WBCSD (GHG Protocol custodians) into GCCA coordination — classic institutional cross-swap trap. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S2's 'technical and financial support', 'integrate climate change into development' are positive-policy keywords → correct.
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
- 1Sautrantika and sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
- 2Sarvastivadin held that the constituts of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b): 2 only.
- S1 WRONG — SAUTRANTIKA and SAMMITIYA are sects of BUDDHISM, NOT Jainism. Within Hinayana Buddhism, there were four major schools: Sthaviravada, Sarvastivada, Sammitiya, and Sautrantika. The claim of Jainism affiliation is a classic religion-swap.
- S2 CORRECT — SARVASTIVADIN is a Hinayana Buddhist school that held the distinctive metaphysical view that the CONSTITUENTS OF PHENOMENA (dharmas) were NOT WHOLLY MOMENTARY but EXIST FOREVER IN A LATENT FORM (past, present, and future all exist) — hence the name 'Sarvastivada' = 'doctrine that everything exists' ✓.
Exchange of Options — S1 swaps Buddhist sects (Sautrantika, Sammitiya) into Jainism — classic religion-affiliation swap. UPSC Favourite Area — Buddhism is in the PDF's favourites list → Hinayana sub-schools (Sarvastivada, Sautrantika, Sammitiya, Sthaviravada) tested at niche-knowledge level.
Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?
- 1Jordan
- 2Iraq
- 3Lebanon
- 4Syria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (c): 3 and 4 only. Mediterranean Sea coastal countries (relevant to the options):
- 1. Jordan ✗ — LANDLOCKED from Mediterranean (Jordan has only a tiny coastline on the Gulf of Aqaba, Red Sea). NOT a Mediterranean-bordering country.
- 2. Iraq ✗ — LANDLOCKED from Mediterranean (Iraq has a small Persian Gulf coast but no Mediterranean coast). NOT a Mediterranean-bordering country.
- 3. Lebanon ✓ — FULLY COASTAL on the Eastern Mediterranean (Beirut is on the Mediterranean) ✓.
- 4. Syria ✓ — Has a MEDITERRANEAN COAST (Latakia, Tartous) ✓.
Word Association — Middle East Mediterranean coast → Lebanon + Syria + Israel + Turkey + Egypt (canonical list). Odd One Out — Jordan and Iraq stand out as non-Mediterranean (Red Sea and Persian Gulf respectively) — classic map-test odd-one-out.
With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
- 2It has a corpus of Rs 4,00,000 crore at present.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF), set up 2015:
- S1 WRONG — NIIF is NOT an organ of NITI Aayog. It is an INDEPENDENT FUND set up under the MINISTRY OF FINANCE as a Category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF), registered with SEBI. NITI Aayog has no role in its governance.
- S2 WRONG — NIIF's corpus is Rs 40,000 CRORE (not Rs 4,00,000 crore / Rs 4 lakh crore). Of this, the GoI contributes 49% and the rest is raised from institutional investors (ADIA, Temasek, PSP Canada etc.). The 10× inflation of corpus is a concrete-data manipulation.
Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps fund ministry (Finance vs NITI Aayog) and S2 inflates the corpus figure (40,000 → 4,00,000) — classic institutional + data manipulation trap. Extreme-Word Rule — specific large-number claims should be cross-checked.
The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
Answer (b): World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital. The GLOBAL INFRASTRUCTURE FACILITY (GIF), launched 2014 under the WORLD BANK GROUP, is a GLOBAL, OPEN PLATFORM that FACILITATES THE PREPARATION AND STRUCTURING OF COMPLEX INFRASTRUCTURE PPPs in emerging markets and developing economies. Aim: MOBILISE PRIVATE-SECTOR AND INSTITUTIONAL-INVESTOR CAPITAL for infrastructure. GIF is governed by an Advisory Council including G20 members.
- (a) ASEAN-ADB framing is wrong.
- (c) OECD framing is wrong.
- (d) UNCTAD framing is wrong.
Word Association — 'Global Infrastructure Facility' + 'PPP structuring' → World Bank platform (canonical institutional pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'facilitates preparation', 'mobilization of private sector capital' are positive institutional-mandate keywords → option (b) correct.
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
Answer (c): any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency. For Lok Sabha ELECTION, a NOMINATION PAPER can be filed by ANY CITIZEN OF INDIA WHOSE NAME APPEARS ON THE ELECTORAL ROLL of ANY CONSTITUENCY (Representation of People Act, 1951, Section 4-5). One need NOT be a resident of the constituency from which one contests (can contest from any constituency if enrolled as voter elsewhere).
- (a) Wrong — 'resident in India' is insufficient; citizenship is required.
- (b) Wrong — no requirement to be a RESIDENT of the specific constituency.
- (d) Wrong — 'any citizen' is not enough; name must be on the electoral roll of some constituency.
Exchange of Options — (b) swaps 'voter in any constituency' with 'resident of the contesting constituency' — classic constitutional-eligibility swap. Constitution Qs — candidate eligibility under RPA 1951 is a direct textual detail; know the exact wording.
Considered the following statements:
- 1In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
- 2Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
- 3Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Answer (b): 3 only.
- S1 WRONG — The INDIAN HIMALAYAS are spread over MORE than five states/UTs. They span: Jammu & Kashmir (UT), Ladakh (UT), Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalaya = 13 states/UTs. 'Only five' is a drastic undercount.
- S2 WRONG — The WESTERN GHATS span SIX states (not five): Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu. The 'five states only' claim is a one-off miscount (Gujarat's Dangs is often forgotten).
- S3 CORRECT — PULICAT LAKE straddles the TAMIL NADU-ANDHRA PRADESH border — spread over TWO STATES ONLY ✓.
Vulnerable Statements — S1 and S2 make specific numerical claims (states-count) easily falsified. Extreme-Word Rule — 'only X' in both is exclusivity; the Himalayas cover many more than 5. Odd One Out — S3 (specific lake) passes the two-state exactness test while others fail.
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
Answer (c): Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems. BIOLOGICAL OXYGEN DEMAND (BOD) is the AMOUNT OF DISSOLVED OXYGEN required by aerobic micro-organisms to DECOMPOSE ORGANIC MATTER in water over a specified period (usually 5 days at 20°C). HIGH BOD indicates heavy organic pollution (sewage, industrial effluent) — so it's a STANDARD INDICATOR FOR WATER POLLUTION in aquatic ecosystems (rivers, lakes).
- (a) Blood oxygen is a different medical measurement.
- (b) Forest-ecosystem oxygen is not what BOD measures.
- (d) High-altitude oxygen levels are physiological/atmospheric.
Word Association — BOD = water-pollution indicator (canonical environmental-chemistry parameter). Positive Term / Negative Term — high BOD = negative water-quality indicator → pollution-assay fit.
With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
- 1UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
- 2Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
- 3UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access-to safe drinking water and bask sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (b): 1 and 3 only. UN-Habitat (United Nations Human Settlements Programme, HQ Nairobi):
- S1 CORRECT — UN-Habitat IS MANDATED BY THE UNGA to PROMOTE SOCIALLY AND ENVIRONMENTALLY SUSTAINABLE TOWNS AND CITIES and to provide ADEQUATE SHELTER FOR ALL ✓.
- S2 WRONG — UN-Habitat's partners are NOT 'only governments or local urban authorities'. Partners include NGOs, civil society, private sector, academia, multilateral organisations. The 'only' claim is an absolute exclusion trap.
- S3 CORRECT — UN-Habitat contributes to the UN system's objective to REDUCE POVERTY and to PROMOTE ACCESS TO SAFE DRINKING WATER AND BASIC SANITATION ✓ (linked with SDG 6 and SDG 11).
Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'ONLY governments or local urban authorities' is an exclusivity claim → suspect. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1 and S3 have 'sustainable', 'adequate shelter', 'poverty reduction', 'safe water', 'basic sanitation' — SDG-aligned positive keywords → correct.
With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?
- 1Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
- 2An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (b): 2 only. National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), notified 2013:
- S1 WRONG — Under NSQF, a learner CAN acquire certification through BOTH FORMAL AND INFORMAL/NON-FORMAL learning — including Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) which certifies skills acquired informally. The 'only through formal learning' claim is an exclusivity trap.
- S2 CORRECT — A KEY OUTCOME expected from NSQF is the MOBILITY BETWEEN VOCATIONAL AND GENERAL EDUCATION ✓ — NSQF creates equivalence between academic and vocational qualifications at 10 levels, enabling mobility across streams.
Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'ONLY through formal learning' is an exclusivity claim → suspect (NSQF explicitly recognises informal/prior learning). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'mobility between vocational and general education' has multiple-pathway empowerment valence → S2 correct.
In the context of Indian history, the-principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
Answer (d): Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories. DYARCHY (diarchy, 'rule of two') was introduced at the PROVINCIAL LEVEL by the GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms). PROVINCIAL SUBJECTS were DIVIDED INTO TWO CATEGORIES:
- RESERVED SUBJECTS (law, finance, police, justice) — administered by the Governor with his Executive Council.
- TRANSFERRED SUBJECTS (education, public health, agriculture, local self-government) — administered by Indian Ministers responsible to the Legislative Council.
- (a) Wrong — division of central legislature into two houses is BICAMERALISM (also introduced in 1919, but different concept).
- (b) Wrong — Centre-State division is FEDERALISM.
- (c) Wrong — London-Delhi dual rule is not dyarchy.
Word Association — Dyarchy + 1919 Act + Montagu-Chelmsford → provincial subjects split into reserved/transferred (canonical modern-history pairing). Ancient / Medieval Terminology — governance terms (dyarchy, diarchy) tested as direct textual recall.
Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:
- 1National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
- 2National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2. National Career Service (NCS), launched 2015:
- S1 WRONG — NCS is an initiative of the MINISTRY OF LABOUR AND EMPLOYMENT, NOT the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT, which handles civil services). Classic ministry-attribution swap.
- S2 WRONG — NCS aims to improve employment opportunities for the WORKFORCE (both educated and uneducated) — NOT specifically 'uneducated youth'. NCS integrates job seekers with employers, provides career counselling, skill information, job matching. The 'uneducated youth' specification is inaccurate — NCS is an online portal primarily benefiting educated/semi-educated job-seekers.
Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps Ministry (Labour vs DoPT) — classic ministry-attribution trap. S2 narrows NCS's target demographic wrongly; the scheme is broader. Over-Analysis → Paralysis principle inverted here: NCS's actual broad scope vs S2's narrow claim.
Which of the following statements best describes the- term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
Answer (b): It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties. S4A (SCHEME FOR SUSTAINABLE STRUCTURING OF STRESSED ASSETS), launched by RBI in June 2016, is a debt-resolution scheme for LARGE CORPORATE BORROWERS with GENUINE CASH-FLOW DIFFICULTIES. Banks can SPLIT outstanding debt into: (a) SUSTAINABLE DEBT (serviceable from projected cash flows) — unchanged terms; (b) UN-SUSTAINABLE DEBT (beyond serviceability) — converted to equity / convertible debt. Applicable to large projects (Rs 500 crore+).
- (a) Wrong — not about ecological costs.
- (c) Wrong — not disinvestment.
- (d) Wrong — S4A pre-dates IBC 2016 and is not part of IBC.
Word Association — 'Sustainable Structuring' + 'Stressed Assets' → RBI corporate-debt resolution (canonical banking-scheme pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'sustainable', 'reworking financial structure', 'genuine difficulties' are corporate-rescue positive keywords → option (b) correct.
Consider the following statements :
- 1Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries;
- 2The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (b): 2 only. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC):
- S1 WRONG — CCAC is NOT a unique initiative of G20 countries. It is a GLOBAL VOLUNTARY PARTNERSHIP of 160+ governments, intergovernmental organisations, businesses, scientific institutions and civil society organisations — launched 2012 by UNEP + 6 initial countries (USA, Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden). NOT a G20 initiative.
- S2 CORRECT — CCAC focuses on SHORT-LIVED CLIMATE POLLUTANTS (SLCPs): METHANE, BLACK CARBON, HYDROFLUOROCARBONS (HFCs), and tropospheric OZONE — these have high climate impact in short time frames ✓.
Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps CCAC's actual multi-stakeholder parentage (UNEP + diverse partners) to G20 — classic institutional-attribution trap. Word Association — SLCPs = methane + black carbon + HFCs (canonical CCAC target pollutants).
With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’. sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
- 2An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (b): 2 only. Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD):
- S1 WRONG — IOD is characterised by sea-surface temperature DIFFERENCE between WESTERN INDIAN OCEAN (near Africa) and EASTERN INDIAN OCEAN (near Indonesia) — BOTH in the Indian Ocean. The statement wrongly says 'Eastern Pacific Ocean' (swapping Indian Ocean for Pacific) — this inverts IOD's geographical basis (which is Indian Ocean only; El Nino involves the Pacific).
- S2 CORRECT — IOD phenomenon CAN INFLUENCE El Nino's impact on the Indian monsoon ✓ — a positive IOD (warm west, cool east Indian Ocean) can counteract an El Nino's drought-inducing effect on Indian monsoon (as seen in 2019).
Exchange of Options — S1 swaps 'Eastern Indian Ocean' with 'Eastern Pacific Ocean' — classic ocean-basin swap trap (confusing IOD with ENSO). Word Association — IOD = entirely Indian Ocean phenomenon (East vs West basin); El Nino = Pacific phenomenon.
If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
Answer (b): Chambal River. The CHAMBAL RIVER (especially the NATIONAL CHAMBAL SANCTUARY spanning UP, MP, Rajasthan) is the PRIMARY NATURAL HABITAT of the GHARIAL (Gavialis gangeticus) — a critically endangered fish-eating crocodilian. The Chambal's clean, relatively unpolluted waters support the largest surviving gharial population.
- (a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves — home to saltwater crocodiles, NOT gharials.
- (c) Pulicat Lake — brackish lagoon, no gharials.
- (d) Deepor Beel — Assam wetland, no gharials (gharial distribution is in north Indian rivers).
Word Association — Gharial = Chambal (canonical conservation pairing; National Chambal Sanctuary = gharial stronghold). UPSC Favourite Area — endangered-species-habitat pairings are tested repeatedly; gharial-Chambal is textbook.
Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
- 1Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
- 2IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (b): 2 only. Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
- S1 WRONG — The INAUGURAL IONS was held in FEBRUARY 2008 in NEW DELHI (India), under the Indian Navy's chairmanship — NOT 2015 as claimed. India has subsequently held the chair multiple times, but the first was 2008. Specific date claim is wrong.
- S2 CORRECT — IONS IS a VOLUNTARY INITIATIVE that seeks to INCREASE MARITIME CO-OPERATION AMONG NAVIES OF THE LITTORAL STATES of the Indian Ocean Region ✓ — membership includes 24+ Indian Ocean rim navies.
Vulnerable Statements — S1's specific year (2015) is a concrete-data manipulation of the actual 2008. Contemporary Names — founding-year claims are easily falsified; know founding years for IONS (2008), BIMSTEC (1997), etc.
The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
Answer (a): Ajanta. The painting of BODHISATTVA PADMAPANI is one of the MOST FAMOUS PAINTINGS in INDIAN ART HISTORY, located in CAVE 1 OF THE AJANTA CAVES (Aurangabad, Maharashtra). Painted in the Vakataka period (c. 5th century CE), it depicts the bodhisattva holding a blue lotus (padma, hence Padmapani). A masterpiece of Indian fresco painting.
- (b) Badami — Chalukyan caves, different paintings.
- (c) Bagh — also important Buddhist paintings, but Padmapani is specifically at Ajanta.
- (d) Ellora — Kailasa Temple and other rock-cut works, not Padmapani.
Word Association — Bodhisattva Padmapani = Ajanta Cave 1 (canonical Indian-painting fact). UPSC Favourite Area — Ajanta is in the PDF's favourites list (under Buddhism) → tested repeatedly.
Consider the following pairs : Traditions – Communities
- 1Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis
- 2Nanda Raj JaatYatra — Gonds
- 3Wari-Warkari — Santhais
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer (a): 1 only.
- 1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis ✓ — A festival celebrated by the SINDHI community honouring Jhulelal (the water deity), observed over 40 days (Chalihal = 40 in Sindhi). Correct pairing ✓.
- 2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds ✗ — Nanda Raj Jaat (also Nanda Devi Raj Jat Yatra) is a 19-day religious pilgrimage in UTTARAKHAND honouring Goddess Nanda Devi — celebrated by the GARHWALIS AND KUMAONIS of Uttarakhand, NOT the Gonds (who are a central Indian tribal community).
- 3. Wari-Warkari — Santhals ✗ — Wari/Warkari is a centuries-old religious pilgrimage tradition in MAHARASHTRA of the Varkari sect (devotees of Vithoba of Pandharpur). Associated with Maharashtrian Marathi-speaking community, NOT with Santhals (who are an eastern Indian tribal group).
Exchange of Options — S2 swaps Uttarakhand's Nanda Devi tradition into Gonds (central India tribe); S3 swaps Maharashtra's Warkari tradition into Santhals (eastern India tribe) — classic community-tradition cross-swap. Word Association — Chaliha = Sindhi Jhulelal; Nanda = Uttarakhand; Warkari = Maharashtra — canonical regional pairings.
Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?
- 1Reduced or zero tillage of the land e
- 2Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
- 3Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (c): 1 and 3 only. Water conservation practices in agriculture:
- S1 CORRECT — REDUCED OR ZERO TILLAGE reduces soil disturbance and soil-water evaporation, retains residue that acts as mulch → CONSERVES WATER ✓.
- S2 WRONG — GYPSUM before irrigation is applied for REDUCING SOIL SODICITY (reclaiming sodic/alkaline soils by replacing Na+ with Ca2+); it does NOT conserve water — it's a soil-amendment practice.
- S3 CORRECT — ALLOWING CROP RESIDUE TO REMAIN in the field (mulching) reduces evaporation, improves soil moisture retention, promotes infiltration → CONSERVES WATER ✓.
Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'zero tillage', 'crop residue retention' are canonical conservation-agriculture keywords → S1, S3 correct. Exchange of Options — S2 swaps sodicity-reclamation (gypsum's actual purpose) into water-conservation context — classic wrong-mechanism trap.
Consider the following statements : . The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at
- 1expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
- 2enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
- 3checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer (b): 3 only. Soil Health Card Scheme (launched February 2015):
- S1 WRONG — The Soil Health Card Scheme does NOT aim to EXPAND CULTIVABLE AREA UNDER IRRIGATION. Irrigation expansion is handled by PMKSY and other schemes. SHC is about soil-nutrient assessment, not irrigation.
- S2 WRONG — SHC does NOT enable banks to assess farmer-loan quantum based on soil quality. Farm loans are based on landholding size, crop pattern, credit history — not soil cards. Financial linkage claim is fabricated.
- S3 CORRECT — A CORE AIM of SHC is to CHECK THE OVERUSE OF FERTILIZERS in farmlands by providing farmers a scientific assessment of their soil's nutrient status (N, P, K, micronutrients) so they apply only what's needed — reducing fertiliser subsidy burden and improving soil health ✓.
Word Association — Soil Health Card → nutrient status → prevent over-fertilisation (canonical scheme-purpose pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'checking overuse of fertilizers' has sustainability/conservation valence → S3 correct.
Consider the following pairs : Commonly used/ Unwanted or consumed materials controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
- 1Lipstick — Lead
- 2Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils
- 3Chinese fast food — Monosodium glutamate
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3.
- 1. Lipstick — Lead ✓ — Many lipsticks have been found to contain trace lead (often unintentional contamination). FDA and consumer-safety agencies have flagged lead levels in cosmetics.
- 2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils (BVOs) ✓ — BVOs are/were used as EMULSIFIERS in citrus-flavoured soft drinks to prevent the citrus oils from separating. Health concerns led to bans in many countries.
- 3. Chinese fast food — Monosodium Glutamate (MSG) ✓ — MSG is widely used in Chinese cuisine as a flavour-enhancer; associated with 'Chinese Restaurant Syndrome' (controversial but historically flagged).
First Among Equals — all three controversial chemical-food pairings are well-documented → 'all correct' fits. Hard to Verify / Disprove — pollution/chemical-contaminant claims often have broad scientific plausibility → multiple-correct answer framing favoured.
Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
- 1OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
- 2Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
- 3Transparent/displays are possible using OLEDs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (c): 1, 2 and 3. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) advantages over LCDs:
- 1. FLEXIBLE PLASTIC SUBSTRATES ✓ — OLEDs can be deposited on thin, flexible plastic films (unlike rigid LCD glass) enabling curved/bendable displays.
- 2. ROLL-UP DISPLAYS EMBEDDED IN CLOTHING ✓ — OLED flexibility allows integration into fabric, wearables, roll-up screens.
- 3. TRANSPARENT DISPLAYS ✓ — OLED panels can be made transparent (useful for HUDs, smart windows, glasses).
All three are genuine OLED advantages; LCDs cannot match these due to their backlit, rigid structure.
Science = Futuristic/Evolving — OLEDs are evolving display technology with 'unlimited potential' → all three advantages fit the futuristic-tech framing. First Among Equals — 'all three' advantages of emerging tech → correct when multiple genuine benefits exist.
Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
- 1Arasavalli
- 2Amarakantak
- 3Omkareshwar
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (a): 1 only.
- 1. Arasavalli ✓ — ARASAVALLI SURYANARAYANA TEMPLE (Srikakulam district, Andhra Pradesh) is a famous SUN TEMPLE (dedicated to Surya). Dates back to 7th century CE. Ranks among India's ancient sun temples alongside Konark and Modhera ✓.
- 2. Amarakantak ✗ — AMARAKANTAK (Madhya Pradesh) is famous as the SOURCE OF THE NARMADA RIVER and for Narmadeshwar Temple (Shiva), NOT as a Sun Temple.
- 3. Omkareshwar ✗ — OMKARESHWAR (MP) is one of the 12 JYOTIRLINGAS (Shiva temple), NOT a Sun temple.
Odd One Out — Arasavalli (Sun temple) stands out from Amarakantak and Omkareshwar (both Shiva-associated). Word Association — sun temples in India: Konark (Odisha), Modhera (Gujarat), Martand (Kashmir), Arasavalli (AP) — know the canonical list.
Consider the following statements:
- 1In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
- 2According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.
- S1 WRONG — For Lok Sabha/State Assembly elections, the winning candidate need NOT get 50% of votes polled. India uses FIRST-PAST-THE-POST (FPTP) — the candidate with the MOST votes (plurality, not majority) wins. Many MPs/MLAs win with far less than 50%.
- S2 WRONG — The CONSTITUTION does NOT lay down that Speaker goes to majority party and Deputy Speaker to Opposition. Articles 93-94 (Lok Sabha) and 178-179 (Assembly) simply say the House chooses a Speaker and Deputy Speaker. The 'majority/opposition' convention is a POLITICAL PRACTICE (courtesy), NOT a constitutional mandate.
Constitution Qs — Constitution is a 'broad document' that rarely specifies such procedural details. The Speaker-Deputy allocation is convention, not constitutional text. Extreme-Word Rule — 'according to provisions laid down in Constitution' is a specific-attribution claim easily falsified.
Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
- 1Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
- 2Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
- 3FDI inflows increased.
- 4India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer (b): 2, 3 and 4 only. Post-1991 liberalisation in India:
- 1. Share of agriculture in GDP INCREASED enormously ✗ — Agriculture's GDP share DECLINED sharply (from ~30% in 1991 to ~17% by 2017) as services and industry grew faster. The 'increased enormously' claim is inverted.
- 2. Share of India's EXPORTS in world trade INCREASED ✓ — from ~0.5% in 1991 to ~1.7% by 2017 ✓.
- 3. FDI inflows INCREASED ✓ — from nearly zero in 1991 to ~$60 bn by 2017 ✓.
- 4. Forex reserves INCREASED enormously ✓ — from ~$1 bn (1991 crisis) to ~$400 bn by 2017 ✓.
Exchange of Options — S1 inverts agriculture's share trend (declined, not increased) — classic economic-indicator inversion. Trend-Word Rule — 'enormously' is a strong claim; know the actual directions of post-LPG indicators.
What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
Answer (c): Reproductive cloning of animals. SOMATIC CELL NUCLEAR TRANSFER (SCNT) is a technique where the NUCLEUS from a SOMATIC (body) CELL is TRANSFERRED into an ENUCLEATED OOCYTE (egg cell). The reconstructed cell is then stimulated to divide and, if implanted into a surrogate, can develop into an organism that is a GENETIC CLONE of the somatic-cell donor. SCNT was the technique used to create DOLLY THE SHEEP (1996, Roslin Institute).
- (a) Biolarvicides — different (Bt-based, biological insecticides).
- (b) Biodegradable plastics — microbial fermentation (PHA, PLA), not SCNT.
- (d) Disease-free organisms — requires specific pathogen-free breeding, not SCNT.
Word Association — SCNT + Dolly the sheep → reproductive cloning (canonical biotech-history pairing). Science = Futuristic/Evolving — cloning technology fits the 'evolving biotech' framing → option (c) correct.
Consider the following statements:
- 1National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
- 2NCPI has launched RuPay, a card Payment scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), set up 2008 under RBI-NPCI Act:
- S1 CORRECT — NPCI HELPS PROMOTE FINANCIAL INCLUSION through its digital payment infrastructure (RuPay, UPI, IMPS, NACH, AEPS for Aadhaar-enabled payment services) — enabling even unbanked/underbanked to access digital financial services ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — NPCI LAUNCHED RUPAY in 2012 — a domestic CARD PAYMENT SCHEME / network (competitor to Visa/MasterCard) ✓. RuPay is the backbone of Jan Dhan accounts' debit-card distribution.
UPSC Respects Government Initiative — NPCI and RuPay are flagship fintech initiatives for financial inclusion, framed positively → 'both correct' fits. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'financial inclusion', 'card payment scheme' are inclusion-driven keywords → both correct.
The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Answer (b): Maintenance of Tiger Reserves. M-STrIPES (MONITORING SYSTEM FOR TIGERS - INTENSIVE PROTECTION AND ECOLOGICAL STATUS) is a technology-enabled tool developed by the WILDLIFE INSTITUTE OF INDIA + NATIONAL TIGER CONSERVATION AUTHORITY (NTCA) for MAINTENANCE AND MONITORING OF TIGER RESERVES. Forest guards use mobile app (GPS-tagged patrols, photo uploads, wildlife sightings) → data-driven reserve management.
- (a) Captive breeding — different (Central Zoo Authority programmes).
- (c) Indigenous navigation — that's NavIC/GAGAN.
- (d) National Highways security — unrelated.
Word Association — 'M-STrIPES' decomposes to 'Monitoring System for Tigers' → tiger reserves (direct etymological decode). Science = Futuristic/Evolving — technology-enabled conservation fits modern-conservation framing → option (b) correct.
What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?
- 1It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
- 2It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
- 3It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (a): 1 only.
- S1 CORRECT — GST WILL REPLACE MULTIPLE TAXES (excise, service tax, VAT, octroi, luxury tax etc.) COLLECTED BY MULTIPLE AUTHORITIES (Centre, States, local bodies), creating a UNIFIED SINGLE INDIRECT TAX regime across India — a SINGLE MARKET ✓.
- S2 WRONG — GST is an INDIRECT TAX reform; it does NOT directly reduce the CURRENT ACCOUNT DEFICIT (CAD), which depends on trade balance, remittances, invisibles. Claiming GST will 'drastically reduce CAD' is an unsupported macroeconomic leap.
- S3 WRONG — GST may boost GDP growth modestly, but claims of 'enormously increasing growth to overtake China' are overreaching speculation, not a likely consequence.
Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'drastically reduce CAD' and S3's 'overtake China' are absolute overclaims → suspect. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1's 'single market in India' is a canonical GST selling-point (positive) → correct.
‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
Answer (a): European Union. The BROAD-BASED TRADE AND INVESTMENT AGREEMENT (BTIA) is a proposed comprehensive FREE TRADE AGREEMENT being negotiated between INDIA AND THE EUROPEAN UNION, under discussion since 2007. Covers goods, services, investment, IPR, government procurement, sustainable development. Negotiations have been on-and-off due to divergent positions (especially on services mobility, auto tariffs, IPR).
- (b) GCC — separate BRIDGES dialogue, not BTIA.
- (c) OECD — India is not OECD member; no BTIA.
- (d) SCO — regional security/economic body, no BTIA.
Word Association — 'BTIA' + 'broad-based trade and investment' → India-EU FTA (canonical trade-negotiation pairing). Contemporary Names — India's FTA/BTIA/CEPA negotiations: EU = BTIA, Japan = CEPA, Korea = CEPA, ASEAN = ASEAN-India FTA — know the pairings.
Consider the following statements:
- 1India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
- 2TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
- 3TFA came into force in January 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer (a): 1 and 2 only. Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO:
- S1 CORRECT — INDIA HAS RATIFIED the TFA (India's ratification deposited with WTO in April 2016) ✓.
- S2 CORRECT — TFA is PART of WTO's BALI MINISTERIAL PACKAGE of 2013 (MC-9 held in Bali, Indonesia; TFA negotiations concluded there) ✓.
- S3 WRONG — TFA CAME INTO FORCE on 22 FEBRUARY 2017 (after ratification by two-thirds of WTO members), NOT January 2016. The month and year are both off. (The question's key predates the entry into force; but the 'January 2016' claim is factually wrong.)
Vulnerable Statements — S3 makes a specific date claim (January 2016) easily falsified by the actual date (Feb 2017). Contemporary Names — WTO agreement dates (Bali 2013, TFA enforced 2017, Doha from 2001) are direct recall.
What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
Answer (c): India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. CHABAHAR PORT (Sistan-Baluchistan, Iran, on the Gulf of Oman) is strategically important for India because it provides a TRANSPORT CORRIDOR TO AFGHANISTAN AND CENTRAL ASIA BYPASSING PAKISTAN. Pakistan has historically denied India transit trade access. Chabahar + INSTC (International North-South Transport Corridor) + rail to Zahedan/Zaranj connects India to Afghanistan and further to Central Asia via Iran.
- (a) Wrong — primarily Afghan/Central Asia access, not African trade.
- (b) Wrong — oil diplomacy with Gulf is separate.
- (d) Wrong — gas pipeline (IPI, TAPI) is different; Chabahar isn't about pipelines.
Word Association — Chabahar = bypass Pakistan, reach Afghanistan + Central Asia (canonical strategic-geography pairing). Contemporary Names — India-Iran-Afghanistan trilateral cooperation on Chabahar (2016-17) is direct current-affairs recall.
In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?
- 1Service providers
- 2Data Centres
- 3Body corporate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Under the Information Technology Act 2000 (and CERT-In Rules 2013), it is LEGALLY MANDATORY to REPORT CYBER SECURITY INCIDENTS to CERT-In (Indian Computer Emergency Response Team) for:
- 1. SERVICE PROVIDERS ✓ (telecom, ISP, cloud, platform providers)
- 2. DATA CENTRES ✓ (operators of data-hosting facilities)
- 3. BODY CORPORATE ✓ (companies handling sensitive data / personal information)
All three entity types have statutory cyber-incident-reporting obligations under IT Act 2000 §70B and CERT-In rules.
First Among Equals — 'all three' entity categories have statutory obligations under IT Act + CERT-In Rules → 'all correct' fits. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'mandatory cyber security reporting' has governance/accountability valence → comprehensive coverage correct.
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
Answer (c): Constitutional Right. The RIGHT TO VOTE (Universal Adult Suffrage, ARTICLE 326) and the RIGHT TO BE ELECTED are CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHTS — they are guaranteed by the Constitution but NOT as Fundamental Rights (Part III). Though derived from the Constitution, they are statutory in nature (detailed by RPA 1950/1951), hence categorised as CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHTS or STATUTORY RIGHTS — not Fundamental Rights. Supreme Court (Kuldip Nayar v UoI, 2006) clarified this position.
- (a) Fundamental Right — Wrong; right to vote was not included in Part III.
- (b) Natural Right — Wrong framing (not a natural-law concept).
- (d) Legal Right — Close, but 'constitutional right' is the precise polity classification.
Constitution Qs — the right to vote's classification is a commonly tested polity nuance. Supreme Court case law places it as a 'constitutional right' — direct doctrinal recall. Odd One Out — (a), (b), (d) are the popular misconceptions; (c) is the technical correct answer.
What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (ELISA)’ project?
Answer (b): To detect gravitational waves. eLISA (evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna) — also called LISA — is a SPACE-BASED GRAVITATIONAL WAVE DETECTOR planned by ESA (European Space Agency) in partnership with NASA. Uses three spacecraft flying in formation, separated by 2.5 million km, with laser interferometry to DETECT GRAVITATIONAL WAVES from astrophysical sources (merging supermassive black holes, binary compact objects). Complements ground-based LIGO.
- (a) Neutrinos — detected by IceCube, Super-Kamiokande, not eLISA.
- (c) Missile defence — unrelated.
- (d) Solar flares — Aditya-L1 / SDO / ACE, not eLISA.
Word Association — eLISA + Laser Interferometer → gravitational waves (direct etymology, following LIGO's success 2015). Science = Futuristic/Evolving — space-based gravitational wave detection is frontier physics → option (b) correct.
What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?
- 1To enable the famous foreign campuses in India.
- 2To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
- 3To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (a): 2 only. VIDYANJALI YOJANA (launched June 2016 by MHRD):
- S1 WRONG — Vidyanjali is NOT about 'enabling famous foreign campuses in India'. That's a separate policy (UGC foreign collaboration guidelines / NEP 2020).
- S2 CORRECT — Vidyanjali AIMS TO INCREASE THE QUALITY OF EDUCATION in GOVERNMENT SCHOOLS by inviting VOLUNTEERS FROM THE PRIVATE SECTOR and THE COMMUNITY (NRIs, corporates, retired teachers, students) to contribute their time/skills ✓.
- S3 WRONG — Vidyanjali does NOT focus on 'monetary contributions for infrastructure'. It's about VOLUNTARY SERVICES (time, expertise), not financial contributions. Misrepresents the scheme's design.
UPSC Respects Government Initiative — Vidyanjali framed positively as volunteer-community partnership → S2 correct. Exchange of Options — S3 swaps 'volunteer services' (actual Vidyanjali) with 'monetary contributions' (different scheme approach) — classic scheme-scope swap.
What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ ?
Answer (b): Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. UNNAT BHARAT ABHIYAN (UBA), launched November 2014 (UBA 1.0), UBA 2.0 from 2018. Coordinated by IIT DELHI. Aims to CONNECT INSTITUTIONS OF HIGHER EDUCATION (IITs, NITs, universities, engineering colleges) with RURAL VILLAGES (each institution adopts 5 villages) to address DEVELOPMENT CHALLENGES (agriculture, water, sanitation, energy, livelihoods) through APPROPRIATE TECHNOLOGIES.
- (a) 100% literacy framing — different scheme (Saakshar Bharat).
- (c) Strengthening research institutions — different (STI-related policies).
- (d) Skill/vocational training — different (PMKVY, NSDC).
Word Association — Unnat Bharat Abhiyan → higher education + rural villages + appropriate technology (canonical scheme-mandate pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'connecting higher education', 'local communities', 'appropriate technologies' carry development/empowerment valence → option (b) correct.
Consider the following statements:
- 1The Election Commission of India is a ‘ five-member body.
- 2Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
- 3Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Answer (d): 3 only. Election Commission of India:
- S1 WRONG — ECI is currently a THREE-MEMBER body (CEC + 2 Election Commissioners), made three-member by 1989 (briefly single in 1990-91), since then consistently three — NOT five.
- S2 WRONG — The MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS does NOT decide election schedules. The ELECTION COMMISSION ITSELF (an independent constitutional body under Art 324) decides and announces the schedule for general elections and by-elections.
- S3 CORRECT — The Election Commission RESOLVES DISPUTES relating to SPLITS/MERGERS of RECOGNIZED POLITICAL PARTIES under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 ✓.
Vulnerable Statements — S1 (five-member) and S2 (MHA schedule-setter) make specific institutional claims easily falsified. Constitution Qs — ECI's three-member composition and schedule-setting authority are direct Art 324 recall; S3's dispute-resolution function is the less-obvious correct answer.
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
Answer (a): It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. SCHEDULE I of the WILDLIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972 lists species with the HIGHEST DEGREE OF PROTECTION — hunting prohibited except in exceptional circumstances. The TIGER, as well as many other critically protected species (elephant, lion, snow leopard, one-horned rhino, etc.), are under Schedule I. If a TORTOISE species is placed under Schedule I, it enjoys the SAME HIGHEST LEVEL OF PROTECTION AS THE TIGER (legally equivalent in terms of penalties and prohibitions).
- (b) Wrong — Schedule I does NOT imply the species is already extinct in wild.
- (c) Wrong — endemism is unrelated to Schedule I listing (a species can be endemic without Schedule I, or Schedule I without being endemic).
- (d) Wrong — (b) and (c) are both incorrect, so 'both correct' is incorrect.
Word Association — Schedule I = maximum protection = same as tiger (canonical conservation-law framing). Constitution Qs — WPA 1972 schedule structure is direct legal recall.
In India, Judicial Review implies
Answer (a): the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. JUDICIAL REVIEW is the DOCTRINE by which the JUDICIARY (primarily Supreme Court and High Courts under Art 32 and 226) CAN PRONOUNCE UPON THE CONSTITUTIONALITY of LAWS made by Parliament/State Legislatures AND EXECUTIVE ORDERS issued by the government. If found ultra vires the Constitution, they can be struck down. This power is inferred from Art 13, Art 32, Art 226, Art 137. Marbury v. Madison (USA, 1803) established the doctrine; Indian Supreme Court has affirmed it as part of basic structure.
- (b) Wrong — judicial review does NOT question 'wisdom' of laws, only constitutionality.
- (c) Wrong — pre-assent review isn't Indian judicial review.
- (d) Wrong — that's 'review' under Art 137, not general judicial review.
Constitution Qs — Judicial Review's scope (constitutionality, not wisdom) is a direct polity definition. Word Association — judicial review → constitutionality check on laws + executive orders (canonical pairing).
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:
- 1Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
- 2Quit India Movement launched
- 3Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
Answer (c): 3 — 2 — 1.
- 3. Second Round Table Conference — held in LONDON, September-December 1931 (Gandhi attended as sole INC representative).
- 2. Quit India Movement — launched by Gandhi at Bombay AICC session, 8 AUGUST 1942 ('Do or Die' speech).
- 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy — the NAVAL MUTINY at Bombay, 18-23 FEBRUARY 1946.
Chronological sequence: 1931 → 1942 → 1946, i.e., 3 → 2 → 1.
Word Association — Gandhi at RTC (1931) → QIM (1942) → RIN Mutiny (1946) = classic final-decade freedom struggle sequence. Contemporary Names — knowing the dates for key events (1931 RTC2, 1942 QIM, 1946 RIN Mutiny) is direct recall.
Consider the following statements:
- 1Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
- 2Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given- above is/are correct?
Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.
- S1 WRONG — Tax Revenue as % of GDP has NOT 'steadily increased' in the last decade. It has FLUCTUATED — rising in some years, falling in others (e.g., around 10-11% of GDP for GoI, without clear monotonic increase). 'Steadily increased' is a trend claim that fails empirical scrutiny.
- S2 WRONG — Fiscal Deficit as % of GDP has NOT 'steadily increased' either — fiscal deficit has LARGELY DECLINED from ~6% post-2008-crisis toward ~3.5% by 2016-17 (under FRBM targets), though not monotonically. 'Steadily increased' is wrong directionality.
Trend-Word Rule — 'STEADILY INCREASED' is the PDF's flagged trend-word that's almost always wrong; year-on-year absolute monotonic increase is rare. Both S1 and S2 use 'steadily increased' → both suspect.
Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
Answer (b): Kuno-Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary. KUNO-PALPUR WILDLIFE SANCTUARY (Sheopur district, Madhya Pradesh) was selected as the SITE FOR THE TRANSLOCATION OF ASIATIC LIONS from their sole habitat at GIR NATIONAL PARK, GUJARAT. The Supreme Court in 2013 ordered the translocation (for species insurance against epidemics/disasters at Gir). Though politically delayed, Kuno remains the earmarked lion-translocation site (later became the African cheetah reintroduction site, 2022).
- (a) Corbett — for tigers.
- (c) Mudumalai — for tigers/elephants.
- (d) Sariska — for tigers.
Word Association — Kuno Palpur = Asiatic lion translocation site (canonical conservation-geography pairing). UPSC Respects Government Initiative — species-translocation programmes framed as conservation-positive → direct CA recall.
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
- 1Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- 2Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- 3Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer (b): 1 and 3 only. On proclamation of PRESIDENT'S RULE (Article 356), the Centre assumes direct administration of the state. The question asks which consequences are NOT NECESSARY:
- 1. DISSOLUTION of the State Legislative Assembly ✓ — NOT NECESSARY; the Assembly may be merely SUSPENDED (kept in animated suspension) rather than dissolved. Dissolution is discretionary.
- 2. REMOVAL of the Council of Ministers in the State ✗ — this IS NECESSARY; the CoM is automatically dismissed on President's Rule (Centre takes over executive functions).
- 3. DISSOLUTION of the LOCAL BODIES ✓ — NOT NECESSARY; local bodies (Panchayats, Municipalities) continue functioning as they are protected by 73rd/74th Amendments.
So 1 and 3 are NOT necessary consequences; 2 IS a necessary consequence.
Constitution Qs — Art 356 consequences: CoM dismissal = automatic; Assembly dissolution/suspension = discretionary; local bodies = untouched. Exchange of Options — mixing necessary vs discretionary consequences is the classic polity-nuance trap.
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- 1Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- 2Abolition of untouchability
- 3Protection of the interests of minorities
- 4Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Answer (c): 1 and 4 only. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION under the Constitution is enshrined in ARTICLES 23-24:
- 1. PROHIBITION OF TRAFFIC IN HUMAN BEINGS AND FORCED LABOUR ✓ — Article 23.
- 2. ABOLITION OF UNTOUCHABILITY ✗ — Article 17, falls under RIGHT TO EQUALITY (Articles 14-18), NOT Right against Exploitation.
- 3. PROTECTION OF INTERESTS OF MINORITIES ✗ — Articles 29-30, falls under CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS, NOT Right against Exploitation.
- 4. PROHIBITION OF EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN in factories and mines (under 14 years) ✓ — Article 24.
Exchange of Options — S2 (Untouchability = Right to Equality) and S3 (Minorities = Cultural-Educational Rights) are correctly-positioned wrong-category distractors. Constitution Qs — FR sub-categories (Equality, Freedom, Against Exploitation, Religion, Cultural-Educational, Constitutional Remedies) — know which Article falls where.
Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
Answer (a): Sumatra. The INDONESIAN ISLAND OF SUMATRA is GEOGRAPHICALLY CLOSEST to GREAT NICOBAR (the southernmost island of the Andaman and Nicobar chain). Great Nicobar's Indira Point is separated from northern Sumatra by the SIX DEGREE CHANNEL (a narrow, ~145 km strait).
- (b) Borneo — farther east, not closest.
- (c) Java — south of Sumatra, farther from Great Nicobar.
- (d) Sri Lanka — west of India, not close to the Andamans-Nicobar chain.
Word Association — Great Nicobar + Six Degree Channel → Sumatra (Indonesia) — canonical Indian-Ocean geographic pairing. UPSC Favourite Area — Andaman and Nicobar is in the PDF's favourites list → tested repeatedly.
Out of the’ ‘following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :
Answer (c): A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people. The CABINET FORM OF GOVERNMENT is a MECHANISM OF PARLIAMENTARY DEMOCRACY designed to ensure COLLECTIVE RESPONSIBILITY OF THE GOVERNMENT TO THE PEOPLE (via the legislature). Key principles: Cabinet decisions are collective; individual ministers are bound by them; the Cabinet is accountable to the legislature (Lok Sabha in India, via no-confidence motions). Article 75(3): Council of Ministers collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.
- (a) Wrong — not about minimising criticism.
- (b) Wrong — not primarily about speeding up government.
- (d) Wrong — not about strengthening head's hands when in decline.
Word Association — Cabinet → collective responsibility → parliamentary democracy (canonical polity principle). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'parliamentary democracy', 'collective responsibility', 'Government to the people' are democratic-accountability keywords → option (c) correct.
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
Answer (d): It is the result of an agreement among the federating units. Indian federalism is an 'INDESTRUCTIBLE UNION OF DESTRUCTIBLE STATES' (as per Ambedkar) — it was created by the Constitution-makers, NOT by an AGREEMENT AMONG THE FEDERATING STATES. Unlike the USA (where 13 colonies agreed to form a federation), Indian states did not contract to form India; the Centre created the states (reorganisations via States Reorganisation Act 1956, etc.). Hence Indian federalism is 'holding-together' (top-down), NOT 'coming-together' (bottom-up).
- (a) Independent judiciary — IS a feature of Indian federalism ✓
- (b) Clear division of powers via 7th Schedule — IS a feature ✓
- (c) Unequal Rajya Sabha representation — IS a feature (differs from US Senate's equal representation) ✓
- (d) Agreement-based federation — NOT a feature (the question asks which is NOT a feature).
Constitution Qs — 'Indian federation is not the result of an agreement' is a classic constitutional-distinction recall (vs USA). Odd One Out — among the four options, (d) 'agreement among federating units' stands out as the non-feature; (a), (b), (c) are all genuine Indian federal features.