UPSC CSE Prelims 2018 GS Paper 1 — Interactive PYQ Quiz

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UPSC CSE Prelims · 2018

General Studies Paper 1

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2018 Paper at a Glance

100 questions · 8 subjects · 61 chapters
Dominant Subject
Economy
22 / 100  •  22% of the paper
Difficulty Mode
Medium
50 questions  •  middle-ground paper
Easy Bucket
11%
Few freebies — be sharp
Fundamental Bias
51%
Balanced concept / current affairs
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Indian Polity Parliament Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q1

Consider the following statements :

  1. 1In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
  2. 2In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
  3. 3In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — In the FIRST LOK SABHA (1952-57), the single largest opposition party was the COMMUNIST PARTY OF INDIA (CPI) with 16 seats — NOT the Swatantra Party. The Swatantra Party was founded only in 1959 (by C. Rajagopalachari), so it couldn't have been in the 1st Lok Sabha.
  • S2 CORRECT — The title 'LEADER OF THE OPPOSITION' was statutorily RECOGNIZED FOR THE FIRST TIME in 1969 (informally) and given legal status by the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 (conferring rank + salary) ✓.
  • S3 WRONG — The minimum number for formal recognition as Leader of Opposition is ONE-TENTH of the total House strength (~55 in Lok Sabha), NOT 75. A party needs at least 55 members, not 75. This figure confusion is what Mallikarjun Kharge / pre-Kharge LoO status debates have turned on.

Contemporary Names — S1 is a classic wrong-contemporary trap: Swatantra Party (1959) couldn't exist in the 1st Lok Sabha (1952). Vulnerable Statements — S3's specific number (75) is a concrete-data manipulation of the actual one-tenth (~55) rule.

Science and Technology General Science — Biology Fundamental Easy
Q2

Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. 1Hard and waxy leaves
  2. 2Tiny leaves
  3. 3Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Desert plants (xerophytes) have evolved MULTIPLE leaf modifications to minimize water loss by transpiration:

  • 1. HARD AND WAXY LEAVES ✓ — the cuticle is thickened and waxy, reducing evaporation (e.g., many succulents).
  • 2. TINY LEAVES ✓ — reduced surface area minimizes transpiration (e.g., Casuarina, Acacia).
  • 3. THORNS INSTEAD OF LEAVES ✓ — leaves modified into thorns (e.g., Opuntia/cactus where photosynthesis happens in the stem; Euphorbia).

All three are well-documented xerophytic adaptations for water conservation.

First Among Equals — 'all three' fits when multiple valid adaptations exist. Positive Term / Negative Term — 'inhibit water loss' is the adaptation framing; all three modifications align with the desert-plant survival strategy → all correct.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India CA · Advanced Difficult
Q3

As per the NSSO 70thRound “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements

  1. 1Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
  2. 2Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
  3. 3In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only. Per NSSO 70th Round (2013) 'Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households':

  • S1 CORRECT — RAJASTHAN had the HIGHEST PERCENTAGE SHARE of agricultural households among its rural households (~78%) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — OBCs constitute a significant but not 'over 60%' share of agricultural households. The actual share was around 45% OBCs, with the rest distributed among other social groups.
  • S3 CORRECT — In KERALA, OVER 60% of agricultural households reported MAXIMUM INCOME FROM SOURCES OTHER THAN AGRICULTURE (remittances, non-farm wages) — reflecting Kerala's high dependence on non-agricultural income ✓.

Vulnerable Statements — S2's specific percentage (60% OBC share) is a concrete-data claim easily manipulated. Word Association — Rajasthan = agrarian rural economy (high share); Kerala = remittance economy (low share of agri income) — canonical state-economy pairings.

Environment National Environmental Legislations Fundamental Medium
Q4

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

  1. 1The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
  2. 2The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — BOTH the NGT and CPCB have been established by ACTS of Parliament: NGT by the NGT Act, 2010; CPCB by the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Neither is by executive order. The statement's claim that CPCB is by executive order is factually wrong.
  • S2 CORRECT — NGT PROVIDES ENVIRONMENTAL JUSTICE and helps REDUCE THE BURDEN OF LITIGATION in higher courts (by specialising in environmental cases), WHEREAS CPCB PROMOTES CLEANLINESS OF STREAMS AND WELLS and AIMS TO IMPROVE AIR QUALITY (its statutory mandate under the Water Act and Air Act) ✓.

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps CPCB's statutory-body status (actually established by Act) with an 'executive order' framing — classic body-creation swap. Statutory-Body Suffix — CPCB = Control Board + established by Act = statutory body (per PDF's suffix rule).

Indian Polity Basic Structure of the Constitution Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q5

Consider the following statements :

  1. 1The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  2. 2The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — The PARLIAMENT CAN PLACE A LAW IN THE NINTH SCHEDULE via a constitutional amendment under Article 31B (added by the 1st Amendment, 1951). Laws in the Ninth Schedule were historically beyond judicial review ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Post-I.R. COELHO v. STATE OF TAMIL NADU (2007), the Supreme Court held that LAWS PLACED IN THE NINTH SCHEDULE AFTER 24 APRIL 1973 (Kesavananda Bharati judgment) CAN BE EXAMINED BY COURTS if they violate the BASIC STRUCTURE of the Constitution. So absolute immunity from judicial review is no longer true.

Constitution Qs — The Ninth Schedule's scope changed fundamentally after I.R. Coelho (2007); absolute-immunity claims are now wrong. Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'CANNOT be examined by ANY court and NO JUDGEMENT can be made' is an absolute exclusion → suspect.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India CA · Basic Medium
Q6

Which one of the following best describes the term “Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news ?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank's debit cards. The MERCHANT DISCOUNT RATE (MDR) is a FEE CHARGED to a MERCHANT by a BANK (the acquiring bank) for processing payments made through its point-of-sale terminals using DEBIT OR CREDIT CARDS. The MDR is typically split among the issuing bank, acquiring bank, and card network. RBI capped MDR on debit cards to promote digital payments.

  • (a) Wrong — MDR is NOT an incentive given BY a bank TO a merchant (opposite direction).
  • (b) Wrong — MDR is not cashback to customers.
  • (d) Wrong — MDR is not a government incentive.

Exchange of Options — (a) reverses the actual money-flow direction (merchant pays bank, not bank pays merchant). Word Association — 'Merchant' + 'Discount Rate' = charge deducted from merchant's receivables = fee paid by merchant to the bank (canonical payments-industry terminology).

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Medium
Q7

What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the `Nuclear Suppliers Group’?

  1. 1It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
  2. 2It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Membership of the NUCLEAR SUPPLIERS GROUP (NSG) gives a country ACCESS TO THE LATEST AND MOST EFFICIENT NUCLEAR TECHNOLOGIES through the group's guidelines on civil nuclear trade (reactors, fuel, dual-use items) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — NSG membership does NOT automatically make a country a member of the NPT (Treaty on Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons). Membership of NPT is a SEPARATE multilateral process (signing and ratifying the NPT). In fact, most NSG members are NPT signatories (it's often a precondition), but the reverse mapping isn't automatic — India remains outside NPT while pursuing NSG access.

Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'AUTOMATICALLY becomes a member of NPT' is an absolute mechanism claim → suspect (treaty memberships require separate ratification). Binding Agreements — S2 implies an automatic binding effect that international treaties rarely have.

Indian Economy Indian Tax Structure CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q8

With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
  2. 2Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2. India's 6% EQUALISATION LEVY on online advertisement services by non-residents (introduced Finance Act 2016):

  • S1 WRONG — The Equalisation Levy was NOT introduced as part of the INCOME TAX ACT. It was introduced as a SEPARATE STATUTE under the FINANCE ACT 2016, Chapter VIII — a standalone levy outside the Income Tax Act. This is critical because it bypasses DTAA protections (which cover only income tax).
  • S2 WRONG — Since the Equalisation Levy is OUTSIDE the Income Tax Act, non-residents CANNOT claim TAX CREDIT under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs). DTAAs apply only to taxes covered under the IT Act; the Equalisation Levy is a levy, not income tax, and thus no DTAA credit is available.

Vulnerable Statements — S1's claim of 'part of Income Tax Act' is a specific legal-attribution manipulation; S2's DTAA credit claim is dependent on S1 being true, so both fall together. Exchange of Options — the levy's deliberate design outside the IT Act is precisely to bypass DTAA credit claims.

Indian Economy Public Finance CA · Advanced Difficult
Q9

Consider the following statements

  1. 1The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
  2. 2The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of war of GDP of the State 2 Governments.
  3. 3As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only. FRBM Review Committee Report (N.K. Singh Committee, 2017):

  • S1 CORRECT — Recommended a DEBT-TO-GDP ratio of 60% for general (combined) government by 2023 — 40% CENTRE + 20% STATES (Combined Fiscal Council-style target) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — The specific fiscal comparison of 'Central 21% vs State war of GDP' is garbled in the question (it says 'war of GDP' which is a typo). The actual ratios don't match the garbled statement, so S2 is treated as wrong.
  • S3 CORRECT — Under ARTICLE 293(3) of the Constitution, a State MUST TAKE THE CENTRE'S CONSENT for raising any loan if it has any outstanding liabilities to the Centre ✓ — a constitutional mandate.

Constitution Qs — Art 293(3) is direct textual recall; the state-borrowing-with-Centre-consent rule is a fundamental federal-finance provision. Vulnerable Statements — S2's specific percentages and garbled syntax should be treated as manipulated data.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium
Q10

Consider the following statements

  1. 1The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
  2. 2The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils a special case. Which of two statements given above is/are correct
Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — India is the WORLD'S LARGEST IMPORTER of edible oils; imported edible oils have EXCEEDED domestic production in each of the last five years (India imports ~60-70% of its edible oil consumption — palm oil from Indonesia/Malaysia, soy oil from Argentina/Brazil, sunflower from Ukraine/Russia) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — The Government DOES IMPOSE CUSTOMS DUTY on imported edible oils (varies by oil type and time; CBEC/CBIC periodically revises). The 'no customs duty at all' claim is absolute and factually wrong. India uses import duties as a policy lever to balance farmer interests (higher duty) vs consumer interests (lower duty).

Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'does NOT impose ANY customs duty on ALL imported edible oils' is a triple-absolute claim → suspect. Vulnerable Statements — specific tax-policy claims are easily manipulated; edible oil duty is a widely-known policy lever.

Modern History Era of Militant Nationalism (1905–1909) Fundamental Medium
Q11

He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Lala Lajpat Rai. The clues point unambiguously to LALA LAJPAT RAI (1865-1928):

  • Wrote BIOGRAPHIES of GIUSEPPE MAZZINI (Italian nationalist), GIUSEPPE GARIBALDI, SHIVAJI, and SHRI KRISHNA — reflecting his interest in nationalism, revolutionary heroism, and Hindu identity.
  • STAYED IN AMERICA (1914-1920) during WWI — worked with the Indian Home Rule League of America, wrote 'Young India' during this period.
  • Elected to the CENTRAL LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY in 1926.

Other options:

  • (a) Aurobindo — spiritual writings, not these biographies.
  • (b) Bipin Chandra Pal — journalist, different works.
  • (d) Motilal Nehru — barrister, not these biographies.

Word Association — biographies of Mazzini + Garibaldi (European revolutionaries) + Shivaji (Indian hero) + American residence = Lala Lajpat Rai's Punjab-Hindu-nationalist corpus. Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — the detailed biographical framing reflects freedom-fighter-positive-valence (per PDF principle).

Science and Technology Information and Communication Technology (ICT) CA · Basic Medium
Q12

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
  2. 2Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — AADHAAR IS NOT A PROOF OF CITIZENSHIP OR DOMICILE. The UIDAI Act explicitly states Aadhaar is proof of IDENTITY AND RESIDENCE (biometric-based), but NOT citizenship or state-domicile. UIDAI and MEA have repeatedly clarified this (a resident foreigner can also get Aadhaar).
  • S2 WRONG — Aadhaar NUMBERS CAN BE DEACTIVATED or OMITTED by UIDAI — for example, in cases of duplicate Aadhaar, biometric mismatch, or dead subscribers. UIDAI has deactivated lakhs of Aadhaars for reasons like bogus enrolments, deceased individuals. The 'cannot be deactivated' claim is factually wrong.

Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'CANNOT be deactivated or omitted' is an absolute negative → suspect. Vulnerable Statements — S1's citizenship-proof claim is commonly misunderstood; UIDAI has consistently denied this framing.

Geography Mapping (World) Fundamental Medium
Q13

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?

  1. 1Aral Sea
  2. 2Black Sea
  3. 3Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — The ARAL SEA (Central Asia, between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan) HAS SHRUNK DRAMATICALLY due to Soviet-era diversion of its feeder rivers (Amu Darya, Syr Darya) for cotton irrigation. It has lost ~90% of its original surface area — one of the world's worst man-made ecological disasters ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — BLACK SEA has NOT shrunk immensely; it remains a large, stable inland sea (connected to the Mediterranean via Bosporus-Dardanelles).
  • S3 WRONG — LAKE BAIKAL (Siberia, Russia) is the DEEPEST freshwater lake in the world; it has NOT dried up immensely. Baikal remains stable with minor pollution concerns but no drastic shrinkage.

Word Association — Aral Sea = Soviet irrigation disaster (canonical environmental-history pairing). Odd One Out — among the three water bodies, Aral is the one notorious for shrinkage; Black Sea and Baikal are healthy — classic odd-one-out.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Basic Medium
Q14

“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): World Justice Project. The RULE OF LAW INDEX is released annually by the WORLD JUSTICE PROJECT (WJP) — an independent, non-profit organization (founded 2006, HQ Washington DC). The Index ranks 140+ countries on 8 factors: constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, civil justice, criminal justice.

  • (a) Amnesty International — human rights, different index focus.
  • (b) ICJ — adjudicates inter-state disputes, no such index.
  • (c) UN OHCHR — monitors HR but doesn't publish Rule of Law Index.

Word Association — 'Rule of Law Index' → World Justice Project (canonical annual publication). Vulnerable Statements — institution-publication pairings are easily swapped; WJP owns the Rule of Law Index.

Indian Economy Technology and Finance CA · Basic Medium
Q15

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): National Payments Corporation of India. The NATIONAL PAYMENTS CORPORATION OF INDIA (NPCI), set up 2008 under RBI/IBA, operates the NATIONAL FINANCIAL SWITCH (NFS) — the infrastructure that INTERCONNECTS ALL ATMs in India, enabling any cardholder to use any bank's ATM. NPCI also runs RuPay, UPI, IMPS, AEPS, BHIM — the country's retail payments spine.

  • (a) Indian Banks' Association — industry body, doesn't operate infrastructure.
  • (b) NSDL — securities depository, not payments.
  • (d) RBI — regulator, not ATM-interconnection operator.

Word Association — NPCI = retail payments umbrella body → NFS → all-ATMs-connected (canonical Indian payments infrastructure). UPSC Respects Government Initiative — NPCI framed positively as Digital-India enabler.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Applied Medium
Q16

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
  2. 2CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — CAPITAL ADEQUACY RATIO (CAR) is the AMOUNT OF OWN FUNDS (Tier 1 + Tier 2 capital) banks must maintain to offset potential LOAN LOSSES — if borrowers default. CAR = (Capital / Risk-Weighted Assets) × 100. Under Basel III norms adopted by RBI, minimum CAR is 9% ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — CAR is NOT decided by each individual bank. It is DETERMINED BY THE RBI (based on Basel Committee on Banking Supervision standards internationally, adjusted for Indian context). The uniform minimum applies to all banks.

Word Association — CAR = bank safety buffer → RBI-mandated uniform minimum (canonical banking-regulation principle). Vulnerable Statements — S2's 'decided by each individual bank' is a specific regulatory-attribution manipulation (actually RBI-set uniformly).

Science and Technology Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Applied Medium-Difficult
Q17

The identity platform `Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply?

  1. 1It can be integrated into any electronic device.
  2. 2Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. Aadhaar platform's OPEN APIs:

  • S1 CORRECT — The open APIs enable INTEGRATION INTO ANY ELECTRONIC DEVICE with a compatible biometric/Aadhaar reader — mobile phones, POS terminals, tablets, smart-card devices can all use Aadhaar authentication ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — The Aadhaar authentication APIs support MULTI-MODAL BIOMETRIC authentication including FINGERPRINT, IRIS, and ONE-TIME-PASSWORD (OTP) methods. Iris-based online authentication IS supported ✓.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — Aadhaar's open-API + biometric authentication is evolving tech with broad applicability → 'both correct' fits the PDF's 'new tech has unlimited potential' framing. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — Aadhaar platform framed positively.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Easy
Q18

Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Yemen and South Sudan. YEMEN (civil war 2014-ongoing, Saudi-UAE coalition vs Houthis) and SOUTH SUDAN (civil war 2013-2020) have both experienced SEVERE FAMINE and ACUTE MALNUTRITION DUE TO WAR AND ETHNIC CONFLICTS. UN declared famine conditions in both. Millions affected; thousands of starvation deaths. Both became UN Global Humanitarian Overview priority emergencies.

  • (a) Angola & Zambia — not in famine crisis 2018.
  • (b) Morocco & Tunisia — no famine crisis.
  • (c) Venezuela & Colombia — economic crisis, but not war-induced famine on the same scale.

Word Association — Yemen civil war + South Sudan civil war = UN-declared famines (canonical humanitarian-crisis pairings 2017-18). Contemporary Names — conflict-driven-famine crises are direct CA recall.

Modern History Development of Education Fundamental Medium
Q19

Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ?

  1. 1Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
  2. 2Establishment of universities was recommended.
  3. 3English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2 only. WOOD'S DESPATCH (1854, Charles Wood, President of Board of Control) — India's 'Magna Carta of English Education':

  • S1 CORRECT — Introduced the GRANTS-IN-AID SYSTEM to support Indian private-aided schools ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — Recommended the ESTABLISHMENT OF UNIVERSITIES at Calcutta, Bombay, Madras (all three established 1857) ✓.
  • S3 WRONG — Wood's Despatch did NOT recommend English as medium of instruction at ALL LEVELS. It actually recommended VERNACULAR languages at the PRIMARY level and ENGLISH at higher levels — a mixed-medium policy. The 'English at all levels' claim is an over-simplification.

Extreme-Word Rule — S3's 'English as medium at ALL LEVELS' is an absolute claim → suspect. Wood's Despatch actually had a nuanced multi-level language policy. Word Association — 1854 Despatch = grants-in-aid + universities = canonical educational reform (positive).

Indian Polity Parliamentary Committees Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q20

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conrerred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Committee on Subordinate Legislation. The COMMITTEE ON SUBORDINATE LEGISLATION (both Houses have one) scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the POWERS TO MAKE RULES, REGULATIONS, SUB-RULES, BY-LAWS, etc., conferred by the Constitution or DELEGATED BY PARLIAMENT are being properly exercised by the EXECUTIVE WITHIN THE SCOPE OF SUCH DELEGATION. Prevents excessive delegation and ensures executive actions remain within parliamentary authorization.

  • (a) Committee on Government Assurances — tracks assurances given by Ministers.
  • (c) Rules Committee — considers House procedure rules.
  • (d) Business Advisory Committee — decides House business schedule.

Word Association — 'Subordinate Legislation' = delegated law-making = scrutiny committee (canonical polity pairing). Council vs Committee — committees scrutinizing executive are chaired by a Member (Speaker appoints), reflecting parliamentary-oversight architecture.

Indian Economy Health and Education Applied Medium-Difficult
Q21

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. 2As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. 3In India, more than 90% of teacher -5 education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only. RTE Act 2009 teacher qualification provisions:

  • S1 WRONG — Minimum qualifications for TEACHERS are laid down by the NATIONAL COUNCIL OF TEACHER EDUCATION (NCTE), NOT by 'State Council of Teacher Education'. RTE Act Section 23 read with NCTE notification. Classic body-attribution swap.
  • S2 CORRECT — For teaching PRIMARY CLASSES (Classes I-V), a candidate is REQUIRED TO PASS THE TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST (TET) conducted in accordance with NCTE guidelines ✓. TET is mandatory qualification.
  • S3 WRONG — Not 90% of teacher education institutions are 'directly under State Governments'. A significant share is PRIVATE/UNAIDED institutions recognised by NCTE. The 90% figure is inflated.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps NCTE (national body) with a state body — classic institutional-attribution manipulation. S3's specific percentage (90%) is an inflated concrete-data claim.

Art and Culture Fairs and Festivals in India Fundamental Difficult
Q22

Consider the following pairs :

#TraditionState
1Chapchar Kut festivalMizoram
2Khongjom Parba balladManipur
3Thong-To danceSikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 2.

  • 1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram ✓ — Chapchar Kut is Mizoram's spring festival (March), marking completion of jhum cultivation ✓.
  • 2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur ✓ — Khongjom Parba is a Manipuri ballad tradition commemorating the 1891 Battle of Khongjom (Anglo-Manipur war) ✓.
  • 3. Thong-To dance — Sikkim ✗ — Thong-To is a MONPA community dance from ARUNACHAL PRADESH, NOT Sikkim. Classic state-swap trap.

Exchange of Options — S3 swaps the state (Arunachal Pradesh's Monpa tradition → Sikkim) — classic NE state mismatch. Word Association — Mizoram = Chapchar Kut; Manipur = Khongjom ballad; Arunachal = Thong-To/Monpa (canonical NE cultural pairings).

Indian Economy Food Processing Industry in India Fundamental Medium
Q23

Consider the following statements

  1. 1The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
  2. 2The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — The FOOD SAFETY AND STANDARDS ACT, 2006 REPLACED the PREVENTION OF FOOD ADULTERATION ACT, 1954 (and seven other pre-existing food laws) — consolidating food safety regulation into a single umbrella law ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — FSSAI is NOT under the charge of the Director General of Health Services. FSSAI is an AUTONOMOUS STATUTORY BODY under the MINISTRY OF HEALTH AND FAMILY WELFARE (MoHFW), headed by its own CHAIRPERSON appointed by the Central Government. The DGHS is a separate technical-advisory position within MoHFW, not FSSAI's chief.

Statutory-Body Suffix — FSSAI = Food Safety and Standards Authority = statutory body (per PDF's 'Authority suffix' rule). Vulnerable Statements — S2 swaps FSSAI's governance structure (autonomous body under MoHFW) with DGHS leadership — classic institutional-parentage manipulation.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Easy
Q24

The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Israel. The 'TWO-STATE SOLUTION' refers to the proposed resolution of the ISRAELI-PALESTINIAN CONFLICT — creating two independent states (Israel and Palestine) side-by-side, with agreed borders, Jerusalem status, refugees and security. Endorsed by UN, EU, and most international community. Periodically revived and stalled; the Oslo Accords (1993-95) were a key milestone.

  • (a) China — not in two-state framing.
  • (c) Iraq — post-2003 different geopolitical context.
  • (d) Yemen — civil war, not two-state solution.

Word Association — 'two-state solution' → Israel-Palestine (canonical geopolitical phrase). Contemporary Names — Middle East peace vocabulary is direct CA recall.

Current Affairs Social Justice Applied Medium-Difficult
Q25

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements:

  1. 1The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised grains.
  2. 2The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
  3. 3Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only. National Food Security Act, 2013 (NFSA):

  • S1 WRONG — NFSA does NOT restrict subsidised grains to ONLY BPL families. It covers up to 75% RURAL and 50% URBAN population (Priority Households + Antyodaya Anna Yojana), using a broad inclusion-based targeting NOT limited to the old BPL classification. The 'only BPL' framing is wrong.
  • S2 CORRECT — NFSA mandates that the ELDEST WOMAN IN A HOUSEHOLD, aged 18+, SHALL BE THE HEAD OF HOUSEHOLD for issuance of the ration card ✓ (a progressive women-empowerment provision).
  • S3 WRONG — Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a MATERNITY BENEFIT of ₹6,000 + free meals/take-home ration BUT the daily calorie figure of 1,600 is inaccurate (Act specifies 600 kcal + 18g protein as take-home ration; 1,600 is the normal adult daily requirement).

Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'BPL only' is an absolute exclusivity claim → suspect; NFSA is deliberately broader than BPL. Vulnerable Statements — S3's specific calorie figure (1,600) is a concrete-data manipulation of the actual NFSA entitlement.

Science and Technology Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) and Technology Policy Fundamental Medium
Q26

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): WTO. India enacted the GEOGRAPHICAL INDICATIONS OF GOODS (REGISTRATION AND PROTECTION) ACT, 1999 to COMPLY WITH ITS OBLIGATIONS UNDER THE WTO'S TRIPS AGREEMENT (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights). TRIPS Articles 22-24 require WTO members to provide legal means for GI protection. The Act came into force on 15 September 2003. Famous Indian GIs include Darjeeling tea (first), Basmati rice, Banarasi saree, Alphonso mango.

  • (a) ILO — labour standards, not IPR.
  • (b) IMF — monetary cooperation, not IPR.
  • (c) UNCTAD — trade and development, not a treaty requiring GI laws.

Word Association — IPR legislation (GI Act, Patents Act, Copyright Act) in India post-1995 = TRIPS + WTO compliance (canonical pairing). Binding Agreements — TRIPS is one of the few genuinely binding international agreements (per PDF's binding-agreements rule), hence domestic IPR laws are required.

Geography Mineral and Energy Resources Applied Medium-Difficult
Q27

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
  2. 2Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
  3. 3Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — State Governments DO HAVE the power to auction NON-COAL MINES. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) MMDR Act (as amended 2015), states auction major mineral concessions (iron ore, bauxite, limestone, etc.). Only COAL is under Central Government auction (Ministry of Coal). The statement inverts the division.
  • S2 WRONG — Both ANDHRA PRADESH (Ramagiri, Chigargunta) and JHARKHAND (Lawa-Pahar, Parasi region) DO HAVE GOLD MINE DEPOSITS and exploration sites. The 'no gold mines' claim is factually wrong.
  • S3 CORRECT — RAJASTHAN DOES HAVE IRON ORE MINES (Jaipur, Udaipur, Sikar districts have iron ore deposits — though smaller than Odisha/Chhattisgarh/Karnataka which are top producers) ✓.

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps the Centre-State mineral-jurisdiction division (Centre = coal; States = non-coal; the Q inverts this). Vulnerable Statements — S2 makes specific 'no gold mines' claim easily falsified by regional geology.

Indian Economy Technology and Finance Applied Medium-Difficult
Q28

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

  1. 1BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
  2. 2While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — The BHIM app (Bharat Interface for Money, launched 2016) ALLOWS THE USER TO TRANSFER MONEY TO ANYONE WITH A UPI-ENABLED BANK ACCOUNT ✓ — via VPA, bank account + IFSC, or Aadhaar number.
  • S2 WRONG — The authentication-factor comparison is inverted. A CHIP-PIN DEBIT CARD has TWO FACTORS: card possession + PIN knowledge (what you have + what you know). BHIM app has THREE FACTORS OR MORE: mobile possession + UPI PIN + biometric/device binding (and some flows add transaction-level OTPs). So BHIM has MORE factors than chip-pin, not fewer. The 'BHIM has only two factors' vs 'chip-pin has four' is the reverse of reality.

Exchange of Options — S2 swaps the factor counts between BHIM and chip-pin debit cards — classic numerical-reversal trap. Science = Futuristic/Evolving — BHIM (newer tech) typically has MORE authentication than legacy chip-pin, not fewer.

Geography Mapping (India) Applied Medium
Q29

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Bengaluru. DELHI lies at approximately 77.2° E longitude. The cities' longitudes:

  • BENGALURU ≈ 77.6° E ✓ (closest to Delhi's 77.2°)
  • Hyderabad ≈ 78.5° E (slightly further east)
  • Nagpur ≈ 79.1° E (further east)
  • Pune ≈ 73.9° E (much further west)

Bengaluru is almost directly SOUTH of Delhi on the same longitudinal meridian — a well-known geographic alignment.

Word Association — Delhi-Bengaluru near-same-longitude is canonical mapping fact. Applied Geography — requires recall of specific city longitudes; Bengaluru stands out as directly south of Delhi.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News Fundamental Medium
Q30

International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Child labour. ILO CONVENTION 138 (1973) — MINIMUM AGE for ADMISSION TO EMPLOYMENT, setting baseline age (generally 15, or 14 for developing countries in light work). ILO CONVENTION 182 (1999) — WORST FORMS OF CHILD LABOUR Convention, calling for the elimination of the worst forms (slavery, trafficking, debt bondage, prostitution, illicit activities, hazardous work). Both are the two FUNDAMENTAL ILO CONVENTIONS ON CHILD LABOUR — India ratified both in June 2017.

  • (b) Climate adaptation in agriculture — not ILO.
  • (c) Food prices — FAO/WTO domain.
  • (d) Gender parity — separate ILO conventions (100, 111).

Word Association — ILO + Conventions 138 and 182 → child labour (canonical labour-rights pairing). Contemporary Names — ratification of ILO child labour conventions by India (2017) is direct CA recall.

Indian Polity Parliament Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q31

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. (NOT correct — this is the one WRONG statement the Q asks about.) Money Bill (Article 110) deals with matters relating to taxes, public borrowing, Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), and Contingency Fund CUSTODY — but APPROPRIATION of moneys is specifically from the CONSOLIDATED FUND, NOT the Contingency Fund.

  • (a) CORRECT statement — tax-related provisions are core Money Bill subjects (Art 110(1)(a)).
  • (b) CORRECT — custody provisions for CFI and Contingency Fund are Money Bill subjects (Art 110(1)(c)).
  • (c) WRONG statement ✓ — appropriation is from Consolidated Fund (Art 110(1)(d)), not Contingency Fund. Contingency Fund is a small emergency reserve; it's not subject to normal appropriation.
  • (d) CORRECT — borrowing and guarantees (Art 110(1)(b)).

Constitution Qs — Art 110 defines Money Bill exhaustively; knowing which Fund appropriations relate to is direct textual recall. Exchange of Options — C swaps 'Consolidated Fund' (actual appropriation target) with 'Contingency Fund' — classic fund-name swap.

Indian Polity President Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q32

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

  1. 1The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  2. 2The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
  3. 3Which of following statements given above is/are Correct?
Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — In presidential election, the VALUE OF AN MLA'S VOTE VARIES FROM STATE TO STATE, based on the formula: (State population / Total number of elected MLAs) ÷ 1,000. Denser/more-populous states have higher MLA vote values (e.g., UP MLAs have higher value than small states) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — The VALUE OF MP's VOTE in Lok Sabha is the SAME as in Rajya Sabha (both are MPs, and the formula treats all elected MPs alike): Total MLA votes nationally ÷ Elected MPs = single MP vote value. There's no differentiation between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha MP votes.

Constitution Qs — Presidential election vote-value formulae (Art 55) are direct textual recall. Exchange of Options — S2's claim of LS-vs-RS MP differential is a fabricated distinction — actual rule treats both equally.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q33

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the `International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’ ?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The ADDITIONAL PROTOCOL (AP) to the IAEA safeguards agreement, when ratified, means the CIVILIAN NUCLEAR REACTORS/FACILITIES COME UNDER IAEA SAFEGUARDS — inspections, declarations, and expanded access by IAEA for non-proliferation verification. India signed the AP on 15 May 2009; ratified 25 June 2014. It applies to the CIVIL nuclear list separated from military facilities under the 2008 India-US nuclear deal.

  • (b) Wrong — Military facilities are NOT under IAEA; India's strategic weapons programme is outside safeguards.
  • (c) Wrong — NSG membership is a separate process.
  • (d) Wrong — AP does not automatically make a country NSG member.

Word Association — IAEA Additional Protocol + civilian safeguards + India 2014 = direct non-proliferation-compliance pairing. Binding Agreements — The AP is a binding safeguards agreement that applies only to the civilian (declared) list — strategic facilities remain outside.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Medium
Q34

Consider the following countries :

  1. 1Australia
  2. 2Canada
  3. 3China
  4. 4India
  5. 5Japan
  6. 6USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 3, 4 and 5. ASEAN has SIX FREE-TRADE AGREEMENT (FTA) PARTNERS (ASEAN+6) that later became RCEP signatories (minus India). The ASEAN FTA partners as of 2018:

  • 1. AUSTRALIA ✓ (AANZFTA, 2010)
  • 2. Canada ✗ — NOT an ASEAN FTA partner (only a dialogue partner, no FTA in force)
  • 3. CHINA ✓ (ACFTA, 2010)
  • 4. INDIA ✓ (AIFTA, 2010)
  • 5. JAPAN ✓ (AJCEP, 2008)
  • 6. USA ✗ — NOT an FTA partner (only TIFA trade investment framework, no FTA)

So the free-trade partners are: Australia, China, India, Japan (plus New Zealand and South Korea — not listed in Q).

Word Association — ASEAN+6 = Australia + NZ + China + India + Japan + South Korea (canonical ASEAN-FTA list). Odd One Out — Canada and USA stand out as non-FTA partners among the six listed; (c) 1-3-4-5 captures the correct four.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q35

With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (CACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct.”

  1. 1GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
  2. 2Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
  3. 3India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — GACSA (Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture) was LAUNCHED at the UN CLIMATE SUMMIT in NEW YORK in SEPTEMBER 2014, NOT the 'Climate Summit held in Paris 2015' (COP21 is a different event). Date-and-venue swap.
  • S2 CORRECT — GACSA is a VOLUNTARY MULTI-STAKEHOLDER ALLIANCE; MEMBERSHIP DOES NOT CREATE ANY BINDING OBLIGATIONS — it's a non-legally-binding partnership (one of the 'no commitments' multilateral clubs for climate-smart agriculture practices) ✓.
  • S3 WRONG — INDIA WAS NOT INSTRUMENTAL in the creation of GACSA. India has been cautious about GACSA, not a founding leader. The idea was pushed by FAO + developed-country agricultural interests; India expressed reservations about GACSA's framing (viewing it as tilted toward input-industry interests).

Vulnerable Statements — S1's date/venue and S3's 'India instrumental' claim are specific institutional-history manipulations. Binding Agreements — S2's 'non-binding' framing aligns with the PDF's 'binding agreements are few' principle → S2 correct.

Science and Technology Information and Communication Technology (ICT) CA · Basic Easy
Q36

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

  1. 1Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
  2. 2Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
  3. 3Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our school, public places and major tourist

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 only. Digital India Plan aims:

  • 1. WRONG — Digital India is NOT about forming India's own Internet companies 'like China did'. India doesn't replicate China's Great Firewall model of state-backed Internet champions; Digital India is more about digital inclusion, service delivery, and infrastructure.
  • 2. WRONG — Digital India does NOT establish a framework to encourage FOREIGN MULTINATIONAL CORPORATIONS to build data centres in India. Data localisation has become a separate policy (Personal Data Protection Bill, RBI data-localisation for payment systems) — but isn't a Digital India aim per se.
  • 3. CORRECT — A CORE AIM of Digital India IS to CONNECT MANY VILLAGES TO THE INTERNET (BharatNet) and BRING WI-FI TO SCHOOLS, PUBLIC PLACES, AND MAJOR TOURIST SPOTS (Digital Village, Wi-Fi Hotspots) ✓.

UPSC Respects Government Initiative — Digital India is a flagship programme with well-known positive-framing aims (S3 correct). Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'like China did' comparison and S2's 'big data centres within borders' both overstep actual policy scope → suspect.

Geography Mapping (World) CA · Basic Medium
Q37

Consider the following pairs:

#Town sometime mentioned in newsCountry
1AleppoSyria
2KirkukYemen
3MosulPalestine
4Mazar-i-SharifAfghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 4.

  • 1. Aleppo — Syria ✓ — Ancient Syrian city; heavily damaged in Syrian Civil War (2011-ongoing) ✓.
  • 2. Kirkuk — Yemen ✗ — Kirkuk is in NORTHERN IRAQ (Kurdish-Arab-Turkmen mixed region), NOT Yemen. Classic country-swap trap.
  • 3. Mosul — Palestine ✗ — Mosul is in NORTHERN IRAQ (Nineveh province); fell to ISIS 2014, liberated 2017. NOT in Palestine.
  • 4. Mazar-i-Sharif — Afghanistan ✓ — Major city in NORTHERN AFGHANISTAN (Balkh province) ✓.

Exchange of Options — S2 (Kirkuk → Iraq, not Yemen) and S3 (Mosul → Iraq, not Palestine) swap country-level geography — classic Middle East region swap. Word Association — Kirkuk/Mosul = Iraq; Aleppo = Syria; Mazar-i-Sharif = Afghanistan (canonical West Asia pairings).

Modern History Constitutional Developments (1919–1935) Fundamental Medium
Q38

In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Governor General. Under the GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935, RESIDUARY POWERS (subjects not listed in any of the three lists — Federal, Provincial, Concurrent) were VESTED IN THE GOVERNOR GENERAL (not in any legislature). This was a distinctive feature of the 1935 Act — unlike the Indian Constitution's 1950 design where residuary powers rest with the Union Parliament (Art 248). The 1935 Act reserved residuary powers for the Governor General's discretion.

  • (a) Federal Legislature — no; this is the Indian Constitution's current arrangement.
  • (c) Provincial Legislature — no.
  • (d) Provincial Governors — no; they had discretionary powers but not residuary.

Constitution Qs — 1935 Act's distinctive features (federal scheme, residuary with Governor General) vs 1950 Constitution (residuary with Union) are direct modern-history recall. Word Association — GoI Act 1935 → three-list federal scheme + Governor-General-centric residuary (classic distinction).

Indian Polity State Legislature Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q39

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
  2. 2Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — The SPEAKER of the Legislative Assembly SHALL VACATE his/her office if he/she CEASES TO BE A MEMBER of the Assembly (Article 179(a)). If the Speaker loses Assembly membership (disqualification, death, resignation of seat), the Speaker's post is automatically vacated ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — When the Assembly is DISSOLVED, the Speaker does NOT vacate his office IMMEDIATELY. The Speaker CONTINUES IN OFFICE until a NEW Speaker is elected by the next Assembly (Article 179 proviso). This ensures continuity of House administration during the inter-Assembly period.

Constitution Qs — Art 179(a) and its proviso are direct textual recall. Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'vacate IMMEDIATELY' on dissolution is an absolute-timing claim → suspect; the actual rule provides continuity until the next Speaker is elected.

Indian Polity Fundamental Rights Fundamental Medium
Q40

Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): If there are no laws, there is no liberty. The classical political-philosophy position (Locke, Rousseau, Kant): LAW IS THE CONDITION OF LIBERTY. Without laws, there is ANARCHY — individuals have power to harm each other, and meaningful liberty (protected freedoms) cannot exist. Laws create the framework within which freedoms are secured. 'Where there is no law, there is no freedom' (Locke, Second Treatise on Government).

  • (a) 'More laws = less liberty' — partial truth (anti-statist), but not the foundational relationship.
  • (c) 'If there is liberty, laws must be made by people' — conflates liberty with democracy.
  • (d) 'Frequent law changes endanger liberty' — too narrow.

Word Association — law ↔ liberty as foundational (Locke, Kant) = 'no law, no liberty' (canonical political-philosophy axiom). Positive & Empowering Keywords — option (b) captures the constitutive (not restrictive) relationship → correct.

Indian Polity Governor Fundamental Medium
Q41

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  2. 2The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. Governor's immunities and protections under the Constitution:

  • S1 CORRECT — Article 361: NO CRIMINAL PROCEEDINGS shall be INSTITUTED OR CONTINUED against the Governor of a State IN ANY COURT DURING HIS TERM OF OFFICE (absolute immunity from criminal process during tenure) ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — Article 158(4): The EMOLUMENTS AND ALLOWANCES of the Governor SHALL NOT BE DIMINISHED DURING HIS TERM OF OFFICE (protection against financial pressure) ✓.

Both are part of the constitutional design to protect the Governor's independence.

Constitution Qs — Art 361 (immunities) and Art 158(4) (emoluments) are direct textual recall — both are well-known protections for constitutional office-holders. Positive & Empowering Keywords — constitutional safeguards for high offices are framed positively → both correct.

Art and Culture Indian Paintings Fundamental Medium
Q42

The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Kishangarh school. The painting 'BANI THANI' (c. 1750s) is the MOST FAMOUS MASTERPIECE of the KISHANGARH SCHOOL of RAJASTHANI MINIATURE PAINTING. Painted by NIHAL CHAND under the patronage of King SAWANT SINGH (Nagari Das). The subject was reportedly a court singer-poetess whose beauty captivated the king. Distinctive features: elongated face, arched eyebrows, lotus-like eyes, refined lines.

  • (a) Bundi — Rajasthani school but different style (hunting scenes, verdant landscapes).
  • (b) Jaipur — Rajasthani school but different style.
  • (c) Kangra — Pahari school (Himachal), different region.

Word Association — Bani Thani + elongated face + Nihal Chand + Sawant Singh = Kishangarh (canonical Rajasthani-miniature pairing). UPSC Favourite Area — miniature painting schools (Kishangarh, Kangra, Mughal, Deccani) are tested regularly.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Easy
Q43

What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): An American anti missile system. THAAD (TERMINAL HIGH ALTITUDE AREA DEFENSE) is an AMERICAN ANTI-BALLISTIC-MISSILE DEFENSE SYSTEM developed by LOCKHEED MARTIN, designed to intercept short-to-intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal (descent) phase using hit-to-kill technology. Notably deployed in SOUTH KOREA (2017) to counter North Korean missile threats — which caused diplomatic friction with China.

  • (a) Israeli radar — not Israeli.
  • (b) India's indigenous — no, India's programme is separate (Prithvi ADS etc.).
  • (d) Japan-South Korea — no, US-developed.

Word Association — THAAD + South Korea deployment + US system = canonical defense-tech pairing (post-2017 geopolitical CA). Contemporary Names — defense-system country of origin is direct CA recall.

Art and Culture Indian Music Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q44

With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

  1. 1Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
  2. 2Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
  3. 3Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
  4. 4Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 4 only.

  • 1. WRONG — Most of TYAGARAJA'S KRITIS are devotional songs in praise of LORD RAMA (not Krishna). Tyagaraja was a devout Ramabhakta; his Pancharatna Kritis and hundreds of compositions are Rama-centric.
  • 2. CORRECT — Tyagaraja DID CREATE SEVERAL NEW RAGAS (e.g., Kharaharapriya, Harikambhoji innovations), contributing to Carnatic music's ragalakshana ✓.
  • 3. WRONG — Annamacharya (1408-1503) and Tyagaraja (1767-1847) were NOT CONTEMPORARIES — separated by over THREE CENTURIES. Annamacharya belonged to the 15th century Vijayanagara era; Tyagaraja to the 18th-19th century Carnatic trinity.
  • 4. CORRECT — Annamacharya's kirtanas are DEVOTIONAL SONGS IN PRAISE OF LORD VENKATESHWARA (of Tirupati) ✓.

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps Rama (Tyagaraja's deity) → Krishna; S3 inflates contemporaneity across centuries — classic historical-period swaps. Word Association — Tyagaraja = Rama bhakti; Annamacharya = Venkateshwara bhakti (canonical Carnatic composer pairings).

Indian Polity Salient Features of the Constitution Fundamental Medium
Q45

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?

  1. 1Limitation of powers
  2. 2Equality before law
  3. 3People’s responsibility to the Government
  4. 4Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 2 and 4 only. RULE OF LAW (A.V. Dicey formulation + modern extensions) main features:

  • 1. LIMITATION OF POWERS ✓ — no arbitrary power; government acts within legal framework.
  • 2. EQUALITY BEFORE LAW ✓ — all persons equal under ordinary law (Dicey's first principle).
  • 3. PEOPLE'S RESPONSIBILITY TO GOVERNMENT ✗ — WRONG direction! Rule of Law emphasises GOVERNMENT'S ACCOUNTABILITY to the people (and to law), not the reverse. This statement inverts the relationship.
  • 4. LIBERTY AND CIVIL RIGHTS ✓ — protection of fundamental freedoms is integral to Rule of Law.

Exchange of Options — S3 inverts the direction of accountability (government is accountable to people + law; not the reverse) — classic polity-concept inversion. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'limitation of powers', 'equality', 'liberty', 'civil rights' are all rule-of-law affirmative keywords → S1, S2, S4 correct.

Indian Economy Money Demand and Money Supply Fundamental Medium
Q46

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims. LEGAL TENDER MONEY is the money that a CREDITOR IS LEGALLY OBLIGATED (UNDER COMPULSION) TO ACCEPT in discharge of a debt. In India, RBI-issued banknotes and coins are legal tender. Refusal to accept legal tender for a legitimate debt is legally untenable.

  • (a) Wrong — 'money tendered in courts' is a word-play confusion.
  • (c) Wrong — cheques, drafts, bills of exchange are NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS (credit money), not legal tender.
  • (d) Wrong — metallic money is one form; legal tender includes paper currency too.

Word Association — 'legal tender' = legally-mandated acceptance for debt settlement (canonical monetary-economics definition). Constitution Qs — RBI Act § 26 (legal tender status of banknotes) is direct recall; also Coinage Act.

Indian Economy Public Finance Applied Medium
Q47

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public. When a commodity is provided FREE TO THE PUBLIC BY THE GOVERNMENT, the RESOURCES are still scarce and being used — so OPPORTUNITY COST STILL EXISTS (it's never zero — (a) and (b) are wrong). The cost is borne by the GENERAL TAX-PAYING PUBLIC (who finance the government's provision through taxes), not the direct consumers. The burden shifts from specific consumers to all taxpayers.

  • (a) Zero opportunity cost — impossible; resources are scarce.
  • (b) 'Ignored' — semantically weak; opportunity cost exists.
  • (d) Wrong — the government doesn't 'bear' the cost; taxpayers do (government is the intermediary).

Word Association — 'opportunity cost' is never zero (foundational economics principle). Odd One Out — (a) 'zero' stands out as economically impossible, eliminating it; (c) precisely identifies the cost-bearer as the broader taxpayer base.

Indian Economy Economic Growth versus Economic Development Applied Medium-Difficult
Q48

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): poverty and unemployment increase. ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT is a broader concept than mere economic growth (measured by GNP/GDP rise). DEVELOPMENT INVOLVES QUALITATIVE IMPROVEMENT — reduction in poverty, unemployment, inequality; improvement in health, education, human welfare. If GNP rises but POVERTY AND UNEMPLOYMENT ALSO INCREASE, the growth is 'jobless' or 'inequitable' — it does NOT signify development (concept popularised by Amartya Sen, Mahbub ul Haq, HDI architects).

  • (a), (b) Agriculture-industry balance — partial indicator only.
  • (d) Trade imbalance — separate issue.

Positive Term / Negative Term consequences — GNP rise (positive) + poverty/unemployment rise (negative) = non-development (contradictory consequences indicate uneven growth). Word Association — development ≠ growth; Sen-Haq's broader definition is direct economics recall.

Indian Economy Skill Development Fundamental Medium
Q49

Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables

  1. 1individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
  2. 2increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
  3. 3accumulation of tangible wealth.
  4. 4accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 4. HUMAN CAPITAL FORMATION (concept developed by T.W. Schultz, Gary Becker):

  • S1 WRONG — 'Individuals accumulate MORE CAPITAL' conflates human capital with financial capital. Human capital is not about money accumulation.
  • S2 CORRECT — HCF is INCREASING THE KNOWLEDGE, SKILL LEVELS, AND CAPACITIES of the people ✓ (the core definition; via education, training, health).
  • S3 WRONG — TANGIBLE WEALTH is physical capital (buildings, machines); HCF is distinctly different from tangible capital.
  • S4 CORRECT — HCF involves ACCUMULATION OF INTANGIBLE WEALTH ✓ (knowledge, skills, health embodied in people — intangible, capital-like productive assets).

Word Association — Human Capital = knowledge + skills + capacities = intangible productive wealth (canonical Schultz/Becker definition). Exchange of Options — S1 swaps 'money capital' into HCF; S3 swaps 'tangible wealth' into HCF — classic definition-swap.

Indian Economy Economic Growth versus Economic Development Applied Medium
Q50

Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): high capital-output ratio. CAPITAL-OUTPUT RATIO (COR) = Capital required / Output produced. If COR is HIGH, a lot of capital is needed to produce each unit of output — so HIGH INVESTMENT (from high savings) doesn't translate into proportionally HIGH OUTPUT growth. This was Professor Harrod-Domar's insight: growth rate = saving rate / capital-output ratio. So high saving + high COR = modest output growth.

  • (a) Weak administration — possible but not the canonical economic-theory answer.
  • (b) Illiteracy — not directly the capital-formation constraint.
  • (c) High population density — not about COR.

Word Association — Harrod-Domar model + high COR = capital inefficiency (canonical development-economics framing). Vulnerable Statements — the Q's setup explicitly mentions capital formation not yielding output; the answer must bear on capital efficiency → (d) COR.

Modern History Tribal Movements Fundamental Medium
Q51

After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial government?

  1. 1The territories called `Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
  2. 2It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. After the SANTHAL UPRISING/HUL of 1855-56 (led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu against moneylenders, zamindars, and British authority) subsided, the British colonial government took the following measures:

  • S1 CORRECT — The TERRITORY CALLED 'SANTHAL PARGANAS' was CREATED in 1855 (carved out from Bhagalpur and Birbhum districts) — a separate administrative unit with special rules for the Santhals ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — IT BECAME ILLEGAL FOR A SANTHAL TO TRANSFER LAND TO A NON-SANTHAL under the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act, 1876 (and earlier regulations) — protecting tribal land from alienation ✓.

British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — the colonial response to Santhal uprising framed as grudging protective measures (both correct as historical response). Word Association — Santhal Uprising 1855 → Santhal Parganas + land alienation ban (canonical tribal-movement aftermath).

Modern History Economic Impact of British Rule in India Fundamental Easy
Q52

Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): commercialization of Indian agriculture. One of the most significant ECONOMIC RESULTS of British rule in 19th century India was the COMMERCIALIZATION OF AGRICULTURE — shift from SUBSISTENCE to MARKET-ORIENTED cash-crop cultivation (indigo, opium, cotton, jute, tea, coffee). Driven by British industrial raw-material demand, tax burden on peasants, land-revenue pressures, and railway/port infrastructure.

  • (a) WRONG — Indian handicrafts DECLINED sharply (de-industrialization).
  • (b) WRONG — Indian-owned factories were suppressed; British/European capital dominated.
  • (d) WRONG — Urban population didn't rapidly increase in 19th century India; urbanisation stayed slow.

British in Negative Light — colonial economic impact typically framed as de-industrialisation + cash-crop commercialisation (canonical negative-framing). Exchange of Options — (a) handicraft EXPORT increase and (b) Indian factory growth invert the actual de-industrialisation trend.

Indian Polity Emergency Provisions Fundamental Medium
Q53

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. Under ARTICLE 356 (PRESIDENT'S RULE), on failure of constitutional machinery in a State, the President may assume to himself ALL OR ANY of the State Government's functions. Most importantly, ARTICLE 356(1)(b) provides that the POWERS OF THE STATE LEGISLATURE SHALL BE EXERCISABLE BY OR UNDER THE AUTHORITY OF PARLIAMENT (Parliament legislates for the state, or delegates to the President).

  • (a) WRONG — Assembly is NOT automatically dissolved under Art 356 — it may be merely suspended; dissolution requires a separate decision.
  • (c) WRONG — Article 19 is suspended under Article 358 (during Article 352 national emergency), NOT under Art 356.
  • (d) WRONG — President doesn't personally make laws; Parliament does (or President via ordinance if Parliament not in session).

Constitution Qs — Art 356 consequences are direct textual recall: Legislature's powers → Parliament. Exchange of Options — (a) swaps 'suspended or dissolved' (discretionary) with 'automatically dissolved' (false).

Art and Culture Indian Handicrafts Fundamental Difficult
Q54

Consider the following pairs:

#CraftHeritage of
1Puthukkuli shawlsTamil Nadu
2Sujni embroideryMaharashtra
3Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • 1. Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu ✓ — PUTHUKKULI is a distinctive EMBROIDERED SHAWL of the TODA tribe from the Nilgiri Hills of TAMIL NADU ✓.
  • 2. Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra ✗ — SUJNI is an embroidery craft of BIHAR (particularly Muzaffarpur district), NOT Maharashtra. Classic state-swap.
  • 3. Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka ✗ — UPPADA JAMDANI is a traditional sari weaving craft of ANDHRA PRADESH (Uppada village, East Godavari district), NOT Karnataka.

Exchange of Options — S2 (Bihar → Maharashtra) and S3 (AP → Karnataka) swap the origin states — classic handicraft-region swap. Word Association — Todas/Nilgiris = Puthukkuli; Bihar = Sujni; AP Uppada = Jamdani (canonical craft-state pairings).

Science and Technology Space Technology Applied Easy
Q55

In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?

  1. 1Mobile phone operations
  2. 2Banking operations
  3. 3Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. GPS (Global Positioning System) technology has PRECISE TIMING capabilities, making it useful in all three areas:

  • 1. MOBILE PHONE OPERATIONS ✓ — GPS enables location services, navigation, cell-tower synchronization, network timing.
  • 2. BANKING OPERATIONS ✓ — GPS-derived precise time is used for TIME-STAMPING high-frequency trading transactions, ATM networks, financial-messaging systems.
  • 3. CONTROLLING THE POWER GRIDS ✓ — GPS-synchronized timing is used for SYNCHROPHASORS in power grid monitoring, frequency synchronization across generators, load balancing.

All three rely on GPS for TIME and LOCATION precision.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — GPS is foundational tech with applications across sectors → 'all three' fits the broad-applicability framing. First Among Equals — 'all three' covers wide-domain tech utility.

Indian Economy Financial Market Applied Medium-Difficult
Q56

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
  2. 2Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
  3. 3Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — RBI MANAGES AND SERVICES BOTH Central and State Government Securities. Under the RBI Act 1934 and separate agreements with State Governments, RBI acts as banker to both the Centre and States, issuing/managing state bonds too. The 'not any State Government' claim is factually wrong.
  • S2 CORRECT — TREASURY BILLS are SHORT-TERM DEBT INSTRUMENTS issued by the CENTRAL GOVERNMENT ONLY (14-day, 91-day, 182-day, 364-day T-bills). STATES do NOT issue T-bills — they issue State Development Loans (SDLs) for longer tenors but not T-bills ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — TREASURY BILLS are ISSUED AT A DISCOUNT FROM PAR VALUE (zero-coupon) and redeemed at face value — the difference being the investor's return ✓.

Vulnerable Statements — S1's 'not any State Government securities' is an absolute-negative claim → suspect. Word Association — T-bills = Centre-only, short-term, discount-from-par (canonical money-market instrument).

Geography The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q57

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
  2. 2When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
  3. 3When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Earth's MAGNETIC FIELD HAS REVERSED MANY TIMES in geological history; the interval between reversals varies from tens of thousands to millions of years (average ~200,000-300,000 years). 'Every few hundred thousand years' is a reasonable characterization ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — When Earth was first formed ~4.5 billion years ago, the EARLY ATMOSPHERE had very LITTLE OR NO FREE OXYGEN (it was mostly hydrogen, helium, then water vapor, CO2, methane, ammonia). The '54% oxygen and no CO2' claim is exactly inverted — early atmosphere was CO2-rich and oxygen-poor. Oxygen accumulation began only after photosynthetic cyanobacteria emerged (~2.5 billion years ago Great Oxygenation Event).
  • S3 CORRECT — LIVING ORGANISMS (especially early photosynthetic cyanobacteria and later plants) DID MODIFY the early atmosphere — producing oxygen, depleting CO2, transforming Earth's chemistry ✓.

Exchange of Options — S2 inverts the actual primordial atmosphere composition (CO2-rich, O2-poor) with its modern opposite — classic science-fact reversal. Vulnerable Statements — S2's concrete percentages (54% O2) are clearly fabricated concrete data.

Science and Technology Information and Communication Technology (ICT) CA · Basic Easy
Q58

The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Cyber attacks. 'WannaCry', 'Petya' (and NotPetya), and 'EternalBlue' are all RELATED TO MAJOR CYBER ATTACKS (2017):

  • WANNACRY — global ransomware attack (May 2017), encrypted files, demanded Bitcoin ransom; affected 200,000+ computers in 150+ countries.
  • PETYA/NOTPETYA — ransomware/wiper malware (June 2017), hit Ukraine and spread globally.
  • ETERNALBLUE — the underlying SMB exploit (leaked from NSA by ShadowBrokers) used by both WannaCry and NotPetya.
  • (a) Exo-planets — unrelated.
  • (b) Cryptocurrency — unrelated (though ransomware demanded crypto).
  • (d) Mini satellites — unrelated.

Word Association — WannaCry + Petya + EternalBlue (all 2017 cyber incidents) → cyber-attack category (canonical CA pairing). Contemporary Names — 2017 cyber-threat vocabulary is direct CA recall.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium
Q59

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

  1. 1Avoiding the monoculture practices
  2. 2Adopting minimum tillage
  3. 3Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
  4. 4Using crop residues to cover soil surface
  5. 5Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2, 4 and 5. CONSERVATION AGRICULTURE (CA) rests on THREE INTERLOCKING PRINCIPLES (FAO definition):

  • 2. ADOPTING MINIMUM TILLAGE ✓ — Zero-till / minimum soil disturbance is CA Principle 1.
  • 4. USING CROP RESIDUES TO COVER SOIL SURFACE ✓ — Permanent organic cover is CA Principle 2.
  • 5. ADOPTING SPATIAL AND TEMPORAL CROP SEQUENCING/ROTATIONS ✓ — Crop diversification/rotation is CA Principle 3.

Not CA principles:

  • 1. Avoiding monoculture practices — similar to crop rotation but 'avoiding monoculture' is broader than CA's specific rotation principle.
  • 3. Avoiding cultivation of plantation crops — NOT a CA principle (plantation crops can follow CA practices).

Word Association — Conservation Agriculture = three FAO principles (min till + residue cover + rotation) → S2, S4, S5. Exchange of Options — S1 and S3 are plausible-sounding but are NOT part of the canonical CA triad.

Environment Biodiversity and Its Loss Fundamental Medium
Q60

The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change. The 'SIXTH MASS EXTINCTION' (or Anthropocene extinction / Holocene extinction) refers to the CURRENT, ONGOING mass extinction of species ATTRIBUTED TO HUMAN ACTIVITIES — including over-exploitation, habitat loss and fragmentation, ecosystem destruction, pollution, climate change. Unlike the previous five mass extinctions (Ordovician, Devonian, Permian, Triassic, Cretaceous — causes ranging from volcanism to asteroid impacts), the sixth is human-induced. The comprehensive (d) captures this multi-causal anthropogenic framing.

  • (a) Monoculture alone — too narrow.
  • (b) Meteorite fears — that's the asteroid-impact fifth extinction scenario.
  • (c) GM crop cultivation — one concern but not the full 'sixth extinction' narrative.

First Among Equals — option (d) is the BROADEST, most inclusive descriptor covering all anthropogenic extinction drivers → canonical 'first-among-equals' correct answer. Negative Term → Negative Consequences — 'over-exploitation', 'destruction', 'pollution' all carry negative valence matching mass-extinction framing.

Science and Technology Space Technology CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q61

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :

  1. 1IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
  2. 2IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
  3. 3India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only. IRNSS (Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System, operational name NavIC):

  • S1 CORRECT — IRNSS has 7 SATELLITES: 3 IN GEOSTATIONARY ORBIT (GEO, fixed over equator) and 4 IN GEOSYNCHRONOUS ORBITS (GSO, inclined to equator, figure-8 ground track) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — IRNSS covers INDIA AND A REGION EXTENDING ABOUT 1,500 KM BEYOND INDIA'S BORDERS (primary service area), NOT '5,500 sq. km' (tiny number — even 5,500 KM would be wrong scope). The 'sq.km' wrong unit + wrong magnitude.
  • S3 WRONG — IRNSS is a REGIONAL system by design — it does NOT have FULL GLOBAL COVERAGE and was NEVER planned to achieve global coverage by 2019. India's global-coverage satnav is a separate future ambition.

Vulnerable Statements — S2's specific figure (5,500 sq. km) and unit (area vs distance) are concrete-data manipulations. S3 inverts regional vs global design scope. Science = Futuristic/Evolving — S1's orbital configuration is direct space-tech recall.

Science and Technology General Science — Physics Fundamental Medium
Q62

Consider the following phenomena :

  1. 1Light is affected by gravity.
  2. 2The Universe is constantly expanding.
  3. 3Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media ?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. EINSTEIN'S GENERAL THEORY OF RELATIVITY (1915) made several predictions that have been experimentally confirmed:

  • 1. LIGHT IS AFFECTED BY GRAVITY ✓ — light bending around massive objects (gravitational lensing), confirmed by Eddington's 1919 solar eclipse observation. Black holes bend light even more dramatically.
  • 2. THE UNIVERSE IS CONSTANTLY EXPANDING ✓ — GR equations (with Hubble's 1929 observation) predict an expanding universe; accelerating expansion later confirmed.
  • 3. MATTER WARPS ITS SURROUNDING SPACE-TIME ✓ — the CENTRAL INSIGHT of GR: mass-energy curves the fabric of space-time, and gravity is this curvature's effect on motion. Detected as gravitational waves (LIGO 2015).

All three are classical GR predictions.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — GR (cornerstone of modern physics) has broad predictive power → 'all three' fits the broad-application framing. First Among Equals — GR's multiple predictions all being correct is the 'subsume-all' pattern.

Science and Technology Biotechnology CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q63

With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :

  1. 1GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
  2. 2GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
  3. 3GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only. GM MUSTARD (DMH-11, Dhara Mustard Hybrid):

  • S1 WRONG — GM mustard does NOT have genes of a SOIL BACTERIUM FOR PEST-RESISTANCE (that would be the Bt/Bacillus thuringiensis gene, used in Bt cotton/Bt brinjal). GM mustard uses a DIFFERENT genetic modification for hybrid seed production, not pest resistance. The 'pest-resistance to wide variety' claim is inverted — DMH-11 is not pest-resistant.
  • S2 CORRECT — GM mustard has genes (BARNASE and BARSTAR, from Bacillus amyloliquefaciens) that ALLOW CROSS-POLLINATION AND HYBRIDIZATION. Barnase makes male-sterile lines; Barstar restores fertility in hybrid — enabling reliable F1 hybrid seed production ✓.
  • S3 WRONG — GM mustard was developed jointly by the CENTRE FOR GENETIC MANIPULATION OF CROP PLANTS (CGMCP) at UNIVERSITY OF DELHI (led by Prof. Deepak Pental) and NDDB — NOT IARI and Punjab Agricultural University. Institutional attribution swap.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps GM mustard's trait (hybridization) with Bt cotton's trait (pest resistance) — classic GM-trait confusion. S3 swaps developing institutions (DU+NDDB → IARI+PAU) — ministerial-attribution trap.

Science and Technology Biotechnology Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q64

Consider the following pairs :

#Terms sometimes seen in newsContext /Topic
1Belle II experimentArtificial Intelligence
2Blockchain technologyDigital/Cryptocurrency
3CRISPR — Cas9Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only. Tech-term pairings:

  • 1. Belle II experiment — Artificial Intelligence ✗ — Belle II is a PARTICLE PHYSICS EXPERIMENT at the SuperKEKB electron-positron collider (KEK, Japan) studying B meson decays and CP violation. NOT related to AI.
  • 2. Blockchain technology — Digital/Cryptocurrency ✓ — Blockchain underlies Bitcoin, Ethereum, and most cryptocurrencies; a distributed ledger technology ✓.
  • 3. CRISPR-Cas9 — Particle Physics ✗ — CRISPR-Cas9 is a GENE-EDITING TECHNOLOGY (molecular biology / biotechnology), NOT particle physics. Jennifer Doudna + Emmanuelle Charpentier won 2020 Nobel in Chemistry for it.

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps Belle II (particle physics) with AI; S3 swaps CRISPR (gene editing) with particle physics — classic tech-domain cross-swap. Word Association — Blockchain = cryptocurrency; CRISPR = gene editing; Belle II = particle physics (canonical tech-domain pairings).

Environment Global Warming and Climate Change Fundamental Medium
Q65

Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. CARBON FERTILIZATION EFFECT refers to the PHENOMENON of INCREASED PHOTOSYNTHETIC ACTIVITY AND PLANT GROWTH DUE TO HIGHER ATMOSPHERIC CO2 LEVELS. Higher CO2 enhances photosynthesis (the C3 pathway especially) and can improve water-use efficiency. Observed in many ecosystems (forests, agricultural fields). Often cited as a partial climate-change offset, though limits from nutrient availability and other stressors cap the effect.

  • (b) Increased Earth temperature = GLOBAL WARMING (different concept).
  • (c) Increased ocean acidity = OCEAN ACIDIFICATION (different CO2 effect).
  • (d) 'Adaptation of all living beings' = climate-change adaptation (broad concept).

Word Association — 'Carbon FERTILIZATION' + fertilization → enhanced plant growth (direct etymological decode). Positive Term / Negative Term — 'fertilization' has positive-growth valence; option (a) matches this → correct.

Science and Technology Artificial Intelligence and Emerging Technologies CA · Basic Easy
Q66

When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following term” best applies to the above scenario?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Internet of Things. The described SCENARIO (smartphone → geyser auto-on; smart mirror shows weather + water tank; refrigerator auto-orders groceries; house auto-switches-off lights/AC when locked; car suggests alternative routes and notifies office) is the CLASSIC DESCRIPTION OF INTERNET OF THINGS (IoT) — the NETWORKED INTERCONNECTION OF EVERYDAY PHYSICAL OBJECTS (sensors, actuators, household appliances, vehicles) that communicate over the Internet to provide intelligent, context-aware automation.

  • (a) Border Gateway Protocol — Internet routing protocol, unrelated.
  • (c) Internet Protocol — foundation of Internet but not the scenario.
  • (d) Virtual Private Network — privacy tool, not IoT.

Word Association — connected appliances + sensors + automation = Internet of Things (canonical emerging-tech pairing). Science = Futuristic/Evolving — IoT is a flagship futuristic-tech concept in UPSC's Sci-Tech CA.

Environment Sources of Energy CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q67

With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

  1. 1India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
  2. 2The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — India is NOT the THIRD LARGEST manufacturer of SILICON WAFERS (for photovoltaics). India imports most of its solar cells/modules/wafers from CHINA (which dominates ~80%+ global solar PV supply chain). India's domestic silicon wafer manufacturing is very small. The 'third largest' claim is fabricated.
  • S2 WRONG — Solar power TARIFFS are NOT DETERMINED BY SECI (Solar Energy Corporation of India). Tariffs are DISCOVERED THROUGH COMPETITIVE BIDDING / REVERSE AUCTIONS conducted by SECI and State DISCOMs; they are NOT set or determined unilaterally by SECI. SECI is the counterparty/nodal agency; tariffs are MARKET-DISCOVERED. Also, CERC/SERCs regulate tariffs.

Vulnerable Statements — S1's 'third largest' specific ranking is a concrete-data claim easily falsified (India is a net importer, not top producer). S2 swaps SECI's role (auction facilitator) with tariff-setter — classic institutional-function manipulation.

Modern History Economic Impact of British Rule in India Fundamental Medium
Q68

The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium. The STAPLE COMMODITIES exported by the ENGLISH EAST INDIA COMPANY from BENGAL in the MIDDLE OF THE 18TH CENTURY were COTTON (textiles), SILK, SALTPETRE (potassium nitrate — for gunpowder), and OPIUM. Bengal was the EIC's most lucrative trading hub; these four were the classic 'Bengal staples' of EIC commerce (complementing jaggery, indigo, rice).

  • (a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds, opium — misses silk and saltpetre; raw cotton was not yet dominant in 1750s.
  • (b) Sugar, salt, zinc, lead — salt/zinc/lead were not Bengal staple exports.
  • (c) Copper, silver, gold, spices, tea — gold/silver/copper were IMPORTS into India; spices/tea were from Southeast Asia/China.

Word Association — 18th c Bengal + EIC exports → cotton + silk + saltpetre + opium (canonical colonial commerce pairing). British in Negative Light — the saltpetre (gunpowder raw material) + opium (later smuggled to China) framing reflects negative-valence colonial commerce.

Modern History Emergence of Gandhi Fundamental Easy
Q69

Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement. THE CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA (April-October 1917, Bihar) was GANDHI'S FIRST SATYAGRAHA in India. Its most significant aspect was that it MARKED THE JOINING OF PEASANT UNREST (indigo ryots protesting the tinkathia system — forced indigo cultivation under European planters) TO THE INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT. Before Champaran, nationalism was largely urban-elite-centred; Gandhi's intervention linked mass peasant struggle with the national cause, previewing the mass-movement phase that followed (Kheda 1918, Ahmedabad 1918, Non-Cooperation 1920).

  • (a) Active all-India participation — happened later (Non-Cooperation onwards).
  • (b) Dalit/Tribal involvement — came in Civil Disobedience and later.
  • (d) Drastic decrease in commercial crops — not a Champaran outcome.

Word Association — Champaran 1917 = Gandhi's first Satyagraha + peasant-nationalism linkage (canonical modern-history significance). Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — Champaran's significance framed as expanding the national movement's social base (positive-valence).

Modern History Workers' Movements Fundamental Difficult
Q70

Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948 ?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta. HIND MAZDOOR SABHA (HMS), established 1948 at Calcutta, is a trade union federation. It was founded by SOCIALIST-LEANING trade unionists who split from the AITUC (Communist-dominated) after 1947. Key founders included:

  • ASHOK MEHTA — Praja Socialist Party leader and trade unionist.
  • T.S. RAMANUJAM — Socialist-leaning unionist.
  • G.G. MEHTA — Another Socialist trade union leader.

The HMS became affiliated with the Praja Socialist Party.

  • (a) B. Krishna Pillai, Namboodiripad, K.C. George — Kerala Communist leaders.
  • (b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay, M.N. Roy — different ideological spectrum.
  • (c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj, Veeresalingam Pantulu — Congress figures, not HMS founders.

Word Association — HMS + 1948 + Socialist ideology → Ashok Mehta (Praja Socialist) + associates (canonical labour-history pairing). Contemporary Names — post-1947 trade union split (AITUC → INTUC + HMS + UTUC) is direct labour history recall.

Art and Culture Buddhism and Jainism Fundamental Medium
Q71

With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Jainism. The STHANAKVASI (also Sthanakavasi) is a SECT OF JAINISM belonging to the SHVETAMBARA tradition. Distinctive features:

  • REJECT IDOL WORSHIP (image-free worship).
  • Worship in STHANAKS (plain meditation halls) rather than temples.
  • Founded by LONKA SHAH (15th century) as a reform movement within Svetambara Jainism.
  • Monks wear white and cover mouth with muhpatti to avoid harming micro-organisms.
  • (a) Buddhism — no Sthanakvasi sect.
  • (c) Vaishnavism — different tradition.
  • (d) Shaivism — different tradition.

Word Association — Sthanakvasi (stānak = meditation hall) + aniconic + Svetambara = Jainism (canonical religious-sect pairing). UPSC Favourite Area — Jainism is in the PDF's favourites list (Buddhism, Jainism, Ashoka, Vijayanagara) → sect-level detail tested.

Art and Culture Indian Architecture Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q72

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :

  1. 1White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
  2. 2Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — BULAND DARWAZA and the KHANKAH at FATEHPUR SIKRI are built of RED SANDSTONE (locally quarried), with INLAY of white marble — NOT primarily 'white marble'. Fatehpur Sikri is famous for its red-sandstone Akbar-era architecture.
  • S2 WRONG — BARA IMAMBARA and RUMI DARWAZA at LUCKNOW are built primarily of LAKHORI BRICKS, PLASTER, AND LIME STUCCO — NOT 'red sandstone and marble'. Nawabi Lucknow architecture departed from Mughal stone tradition, using bricks plastered with lime-mortar.

Vulnerable Statements — both statements swap the actual construction materials of iconic structures — classic architectural-material manipulation. Word Association — Fatehpur Sikri = red sandstone (Akbar); Lucknow Imambara = lakhori brick + stucco (Nawabi) (canonical architectural pairings).

Art and Culture India Through the Eyes of Foreign Travellers Fundamental Medium
Q73

Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Jean-Baptiste Tavernier. JEAN-BAPTISTE TAVERNIER (1605-1689) was a FRENCH GEM MERCHANT and TRAVELLER who made SIX VOYAGES to India (1630-1668). His book 'Travels in India' (Les Six Voyages de Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, 1676) ELABORATELY DESCRIBED THE DIAMOND MINES OF GOLCONDA (KOLLUR mine, source of the Koh-i-Noor and the Hope Diamond) and the diamond trade. He is credited with BRINGING the famous KOH-I-NOOR-referenced 'TAVERNIER BLUE' diamond (later Hope Diamond) to Europe.

  • (a) Francois Bernier — French physician-traveller, described Mughal court.
  • (c) Jean de Thevenot — French traveller, broader topics.
  • (d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre — French traveller, less known for diamonds.

Word Association — Tavernier + diamond merchant + Golconda mines = canonical foreign-traveller pairing (17th c French travellers to India). Ancient / Medieval Terminology — gems/ports/coins-related foreign-traveller accounts tested (per PDF).

Art and Culture Buddhism and Jainism Fundamental Easy
Q74

With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Maitreya. MAITREYA (Sanskrit: मैत्रेय; Pali: Metteyya) is the FUTURE BUDDHA, yet to come to the world when the current Buddha Shakyamuni's teachings have faded. Prophesied across Theravada and Mahayana traditions as the NEXT BUDDHA who will attain enlightenment and teach the pure Dharma. Currently a BODHISATTVA residing in the Tushita heaven until his earthly appearance.

  • (a) Avalokiteshvara — Bodhisattva of Compassion (Mahayana), but not the future Buddha.
  • (b) Lokesvara — another name for Avalokiteshvara; not future Buddha.
  • (d) Padmapani — 'lotus bearer', epithet of Avalokiteshvara; not future Buddha.

Word Association — future Buddha = Maitreya (canonical Buddhist iconography). UPSC Favourite Area — Buddhism is in the PDF's favourites list → Maitreya/Avalokiteshvara/Padmapani distinctions tested.

Modern History Expansion and Consolidation of British Power in India Fundamental Medium
Q75

Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): To secure a fixed income for the Company. The SUBSIDIARY ALLIANCE introduced by LORD WELLESLEY (1798-1805) had multiple aims, but 'TO SECURE A FIXED INCOME for the Company' is NOT an aim. Actually, the Subsidiary Alliance REQUIRED the Indian state to PAY A SUBSIDY to the Company for maintaining a British force — which was a financial BURDEN on the Indian state, often leading to defaults and territorial cessions. Far from securing fixed income, it sometimes caused financial losses when subsidies weren't paid.

  • (a) CORRECT aim — maintain a large standing army at the expense of Indian states ✓.
  • (b) CORRECT aim — keep India safe from Napoleonic threats (French expansion during the Napoleonic Wars) ✓.
  • (c) NOT AN AIM — securing fixed income was not the objective; subsidies were the mechanism, not always reliable.
  • (d) CORRECT aim — establish British paramountcy over Indian States ✓.

British in Negative Light — Subsidiary Alliance framed as imperialist expansion mechanism (aims = army + paramountcy + anti-Napoleon). Odd One Out — among the four aims, (c) fixed income stands out as non-aim (actually a side-effect at best).

Modern History Development of Education Fundamental Medium
Q76

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?

  1. 1Charter Act of 1813
  2. 2General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
  3. 3Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. The introduction of ENGLISH EDUCATION in colonial India was a cumulative process:

  • 1. CHARTER ACT OF 1813 ✓ — Allocated Rs. 1 lakh annually for 'revival and improvement of literature... and encouragement of learned natives of India' — the FIRST explicit British commitment to fund education in India.
  • 2. GENERAL COMMITTEE OF PUBLIC INSTRUCTION, 1823 ✓ — Set up to decide how the Rs. 1 lakh should be spent; its deliberations became the forum for the Orientalist-Anglicist debate.
  • 3. ORIENTALIST AND ANGLICIST CONTROVERSY ✓ — The debate (1830s) between Orientalists (favouring Sanskrit/Arabic/Persian) and Anglicists (favouring English); resolved by MACAULAY'S MINUTE ON EDUCATION (1835) and Lord Bentinck's decision in favour of English — establishing English as the medium of higher education in India.

All three directly contributed to the introduction of English education.

Word Association — Charter 1813 + GCPI 1823 + Orientalist-Anglicist debate + Macaulay 1835 = canonical English-education-introduction sequence. First Among Equals — 'all three' is the correct answer when multiple historical triggers cumulatively led to the outcome.

Geography Mapping (India) Applied Medium
Q77

Which one of the following is an artificial lake ?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu). KODAIKANAL LAKE (Tamil Nadu, Palani Hills) is an ARTIFICIAL LAKE (a star-shaped man-made reservoir) created in 1863 by SIR VERE HENRY LEVINGE, the then-Collector of Madurai. Often called the 'Princess of Hill Stations', the lake is a famous Kodaikanal tourist landmark.

  • (b) Kolleru (AP) — NATURAL freshwater lake (a Ramsar site and bird sanctuary).
  • (c) Nainital (Uttarakhand) — NATURAL lake (formed by tectonic-glacial activity in Kumaon Himalaya).
  • (d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh) — NATURAL lake (Ramsar site), sacred to Hindus.

Odd One Out — among 4 lakes, Kodaikanal (man-made 1863) stands out from three natural lakes — classic odd-one-out geography test. Word Association — Kodaikanal = Levinge + 1863 + artificial (canonical hill-station fact).

Indian Economy Skill Development CA · Basic Medium
Q78

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements

  1. 1It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  2. 2It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
  3. 3It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 3 only. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):

  • S1 WRONG — PMKVY is the flagship scheme of the MINISTRY OF SKILL DEVELOPMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP (MSDE) — NOT the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Classic ministry-attribution swap.
  • S2 CORRECT — PMKVY IMPARTS TRAINING IN SOFT SKILLS, ENTREPRENEURSHIP, FINANCIAL LITERACY, AND DIGITAL LITERACY alongside technical skills ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — PMKVY AIMS TO ALIGN THE COMPETENCIES of the UNREGULATED WORKFORCE to the NATIONAL SKILL QUALIFICATION FRAMEWORK (NSQF) ✓ — via Short-Term Training (STT) and Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps ministries (MSDE → Labour) — classic ministry-attribution manipulation. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — PMKVY framed positively as skilling flagship → S2, S3 correct.

Modern History First World War and Nationalist Response Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q79

In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): All India Home Rule League. In APRIL 1920, the ALL INDIA HOME RULE LEAGUE (founded by Annie Besant in 1916 as one of two Home Rule Leagues, the other by Tilak) CHANGED ITS NAME TO 'SWARAJYA SABHA' at Gandhi's insistence. Gandhi became president. The change reflected the movement's transition under Gandhi's influence — 'Home Rule' (British constitutional dominion status) was replaced by 'Swarajya' (self-rule, a more radical national ambition). However, differences soon emerged, and Gandhi eventually steered political energies into the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22).

  • (b) Hindu Mahasabha — different organisation (communal-nationalist).
  • (c) South Indian Liberal Federation — Justice Party, different trajectory.
  • (d) Servants of India Society — G.K. Gokhale's body, separate.

Contemporary Names — 1920 as a pivot year: Home Rule League → Swarajya Sabha → Non-Cooperation Movement (canonical sequential transition). Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — renaming reflects escalating nationalist aspiration (Home Rule → Swaraj).

Modern History A General Survey of Socio-Cultural Reform Movements & Reformers Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q80

Which among the following events happened earliest ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan. Chronological order of the events:

  • (b) DINABANDHU MITRA wrote NEELDARPAN in 1859-60 ✓ (depicting the sufferings of indigo-cultivators under European planters; staged as play in 1861).
  • (d) SATYENDRANATH TAGORE became the FIRST INDIAN in the INDIAN CIVIL SERVICE in 1863 (cleared the ICS exam in England).
  • (a) SWAMI DAYANAND established ARYA SAMAJ in 1875 (Bombay, 10 April).
  • (c) BANKIM CHANDRA CHATTOPADHYAY wrote ANANDMATH in 1882 (featuring the song Vande Mataram).

Sequence: Neeldarpan 1859 → Satyendranath Tagore ICS 1863 → Arya Samaj 1875 → Anandmath 1882. So EARLIEST = (b) Neeldarpan.

Contemporary Names — precise dating of key 19th c socio-cultural reform events is direct modern-history recall. Word Association — Neeldarpan (1859-60, indigo rebellion backdrop) vs Arya Samaj (1875, religious reform) = different decades → chronology test.

Environment Land Degradation Applied Medium
Q81

Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds ?

  1. 1Decreased salinity in the river
  2. 2Pollution of groundwater
  3. 3Lowering of the water-table

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only. Heavy sand mining in riverbeds consequences:

  • 1. Decreased salinity in the river ✗ — Sand mining does NOT typically DECREASE salinity. In coastal rivers, reduced sand load and altered flow can actually INCREASE saltwater ingress/salinity upstream. 'Decreased salinity' is wrong directionality.
  • 2. POLLUTION OF GROUNDWATER ✓ — Sand mining exposes groundwater table to pollution (contamination ingress, sedimentation disruption) ✓.
  • 3. LOWERING OF THE WATER TABLE ✓ — Removal of sand (natural aquifer recharge medium) lowers the water table, reduces groundwater recharge ✓.

Negative Term → Negative Consequences — 'heavy sand mining' (negative activity) → negative hydrological consequences (groundwater pollution + water-table lowering). Exchange of Options — S1 inverts the actual salinity effect — classic environmental-impact direction swap.

Geography Soils Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q82

With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :

  1. 1A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
  2. 2Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
  3. 3Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — HIGH ORGANIC MATTER IN SOIL INCREASES water-holding capacity (organic matter acts like a sponge). The claim that it 'DRASTICALLY REDUCES water holding capacity' is exactly opposite to soil science. Organic matter is a KEY water-retention enhancer.
  • S2 WRONG — Soil DOES PLAY A ROLE IN THE SULPHUR CYCLE. Soil microorganisms mineralize organic sulphur, and sulphate ions cycle through soil-plant-atmosphere. Soil is a key sulphur reservoir and transformation medium.
  • S3 CORRECT — IRRIGATION OVER TIME CAN CONTRIBUTE TO SALINIZATION OF AGRICULTURAL LANDS ✓ (excessive irrigation raises water table, brings salts to surface via capillary action, causes salt accumulation — a well-known land degradation pathway).

Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'DRASTICALLY REDUCES' is an absolute claim → suspect; actual effect is the opposite (increases water-holding). Exchange of Options — S2 inverts soil's actual role in the sulphur cycle (soil IS an active participant, not absent).

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q83

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. The PARTNERSHIP FOR ACTION ON GREEN ECONOMY (PAGE) was LAUNCHED in 2013 AS A RESPONSE TO THE OUTCOMES of the UN CONFERENCE ON SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT (Rio+20) held in RIO DE JANEIRO IN 2012. PAGE brings together five UN agencies (UNEP, ILO, UNDP, UNIDO, UNITAR) to assist countries in transitioning to greener, more inclusive economies. Rio+20's outcome document 'The Future We Want' called for such an initiative.

  • (a) Johannesburg 2002 — WSSD (World Summit on Sustainable Development), different event.
  • (c) Paris 2015 — UNFCCC COP21 (climate treaty), different focus.
  • (d) WSDS 2016 New Delhi — TERI-organised annual summit, not UN conference.

Word Association — PAGE + Green Economy + 2012 → Rio+20 (UNCSD) (canonical multilateral-origin pairing). Contemporary Names — sustainability-summit dates (Stockholm 1972, Rio 1992, Johannesburg 2002, Rio+20 2012, Paris 2015) are direct CA recall.

Science and Technology Artificial Intelligence and Emerging Technologies Applied Medium
Q84

“3D printing” has applications in which of the following?

  1. 1Preparation of confectionery items
  2. 2Manufacture of bionic ears
  3. 3Automotive industry
  4. 4Reconstructive surgeries
  5. 5Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. 3D PRINTING (additive manufacturing) has WIDE-RANGING APPLICATIONS across ALL five listed areas:

  • 1. PREPARATION OF CONFECTIONERY ITEMS ✓ — food 3D printers can print chocolate, sugar structures, custom confectionery.
  • 2. MANUFACTURE OF BIONIC EARS ✓ — biomedical 3D printing has been used to print bionic ear prototypes (Princeton University experiment).
  • 3. AUTOMOTIVE INDUSTRY ✓ — major application for prototypes, custom parts, jigs and fixtures.
  • 4. RECONSTRUCTIVE SURGERIES ✓ — 3D-printed patient-specific implants, surgical guides, prosthetics.
  • 5. DATA PROCESSING TECHNOLOGIES ✓ — 3D printing of semiconductor test fixtures, cooling solutions, etc., supports data processing hardware.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — 3D printing is classic evolving technology with 'unlimited potential' → 'all five' fits the broad-application framing. First Among Equals — 'all five' covers wide-domain emerging-tech utility.

Geography Mapping (India) Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q85

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
  2. 2Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
  3. 3The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only. Barren Island volcano:

  • S1 CORRECT — BARREN ISLAND is an ACTIVE VOLCANO located in the INDIAN TERRITORY (Andaman Sea, Andaman and Nicobar Islands UT) ✓ — India's ONLY confirmed active volcano.
  • S2 WRONG — Barren Island lies about 135 km NORTHEAST of PORT BLAIR (South Andaman), NOT 140 km EAST OF GREAT NICOBAR. Great Nicobar is the southernmost island and is far (~800+ km) from Barren Island. Wrong reference island.
  • S3 WRONG — Barren Island volcano has ERUPTED MULTIPLE TIMES SINCE 1991 — significant eruptions in 1994-95, 2005, 2017, 2018. The 'remained inactive since 1991' claim is factually wrong; it has been intermittently active.

Vulnerable Statements — S2 swaps reference island (Port Blair/South Andaman → Great Nicobar) and S3 manipulates eruption-activity chronology — classic geographical/data manipulations. UPSC Favourite Area — Andaman and Nicobar is in PDF's favourites list; Barren Island is the canonical 'India's only active volcano' fact.

Environment Biodiversity and Its Loss Fundamental Medium
Q86

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows. PROSOPIS JULIFLORA (commonly 'vilayati kikar', 'mesquite') is an INVASIVE ALIEN SPECIES in India (native to Mexico/South America; introduced in British era for fuelwood/fodder). Its INVASIVENESS SUPPRESSES NATIVE VEGETATION through allelopathy (root secretions) and aggressive growth, REDUCING LOCAL BIODIVERSITY. Classified among the world's 100 worst invasive species by IUCN. Recent Supreme Court decisions have favoured its removal from Aravalli ecosystems.

  • (a) Cosmetics — Prosopis is not a cosmetic-source plant.
  • (c) Pesticide synthesis — not known for this.
  • (d) None — (b) is correct, so (d) fails.

Word Association — Prosopis juliflora + invasive alien + biodiversity loss (canonical environmental-CA pairing). Negative Term → Negative Consequences — invasive species = biodiversity suppression (negative cascade); (b) correctly captures the ecological harm.

Environment Wetland Ecosystem Fundamental Medium
Q87

Consider the following statements

  1. 1Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
  2. 2More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
  3. 3Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. Coral reef ecology:

  • S1 CORRECT — MOST OF THE WORLD'S CORAL REEFS are in TROPICAL WATERS (between 30°N and 30°S latitude; warm, shallow, clear oceans — reef-building corals need ~20-30°C water) ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — More than ONE-THIRD of the world's coral reefs are located in the TERRITORIES OF AUSTRALIA (Great Barrier Reef), INDONESIA, AND PHILIPPINES (Coral Triangle is the epicentre of marine biodiversity) ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — Coral reefs host FAR MORE ANIMAL PHYLA than tropical rainforests. Reefs support animals from 30+ phyla; rainforests have fewer phyla. Despite rainforests' species richness (more species), reefs have broader PHYLUM-LEVEL biodiversity ✓.

UPSC Favourite Area — Corals are in the PDF's favourites list (one of 6) → tested regularly. First Among Equals — 'all three' fits when multiple valid features describe a canonical ecosystem.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Advanced Difficult
Q88

“Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): The UNFCCC Secretariat. MOMENTUM FOR CHANGE: CLIMATE NEUTRAL NOW is a COMMUNICATIONS INITIATIVE launched by the UNFCCC SECRETARIAT (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change) to RECOGNIZE and SHOWCASE innovative and transformative solutions that address both climate change and wider economic, social and environmental challenges. The 'Climate Neutral Now' strand encourages organisations and individuals to measure, reduce and offset their GHG emissions.

  • (a) IPCC — scientific assessment body, different role.
  • (b) UNEP Secretariat — different multilateral secretariat.
  • (d) WMO — meteorology body, different mandate.

Word Association — Momentum for Change + Climate Neutral Now → UNFCCC Secretariat (canonical climate-governance initiative). Vulnerable Statements — UN-body pairings are easily swapped (UNFCCC vs UNEP vs WMO vs IPCC); knowing each body's distinct initiatives matters.

Modern History Development of Education Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q89

With reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs :

#InstitutionFounder
1Sanskrit College at BenarasWilliam Jones
2Calcutta MadarsaWarren Hastings
3Fort William CollegeArthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • 1. Sanskrit College at Benaras — William Jones ✗ — Sanskrit College at Benaras was founded in 1791 by JONATHAN DUNCAN (Resident of Benaras), NOT William Jones. William Jones founded the ASIATIC SOCIETY OF BENGAL (1784) — a different institution.
  • 2. Calcutta Madarsa — Warren Hastings ✓ — Calcutta Madrasa (Aliah Madrasa) was founded in 1781 by WARREN HASTINGS, the first Governor-General, for Islamic studies ✓.
  • 3. Fort William College — Arthur Wellesley ✗ — Fort William College at Calcutta (1800) was founded by LORD RICHARD WELLESLEY (the Governor-General, not Arthur Wellesley). Arthur Wellesley was Richard's younger brother — the future Duke of Wellington who fought in India but did NOT found Fort William College.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps institution-founder (Jonathan Duncan → William Jones); S3 swaps Wellesley brothers (Richard → Arthur) — classic founder-attribution traps. Contemporary Names — Wellesley brothers distinction is a common UPSC trap.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Medium
Q90

Consider the following pairs :

#Regions sometimes mentioned in newsCountry
1CataloniaSpain
2CrimeaHungary
3MindanaoPhilippines
4OromiaNigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • 1. Catalonia — Spain ✓ — Catalonia is an AUTONOMOUS COMMUNITY of SPAIN; Barcelona is its capital. Catalan independence referendum happened in 2017 ✓.
  • 2. Crimea — Hungary ✗ — Crimea is a PENINSULA in the BLACK SEA region, part of UKRAINE (though annexed by Russia in 2014, internationally recognised as Ukrainian territory). NOT Hungary. Country-swap trap.
  • 3. Mindanao — Philippines ✓ — Mindanao is the SECOND-LARGEST ISLAND in the PHILIPPINES (southern Philippines, region of Muslim separatist insurgency) ✓.
  • 4. Oromia — Nigeria ✗ — Oromia is a REGIONAL STATE in ETHIOPIA (the largest ethnic group, Oromo, lives there), NOT Nigeria. African country-swap.

Exchange of Options — S2 (Crimea: Ukraine → Hungary) and S4 (Oromia: Ethiopia → Nigeria) swap country attribution — classic geographical-region traps. Word Association — Catalonia = Spain, Crimea = Ukraine/Russia, Mindanao = Philippines, Oromia = Ethiopia (canonical regional hotspot pairings).

Modern History Constitutional, Administrative & Judicial Developments Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q91

Consider the following events:

  1. 1The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.
  2. 2India’s then largest bank, ‘Imperial Bank of India’, was renamed ‘State Bank of India’.
  3. 3Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
  4. 4Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 – 2 – 1 – 4. Chronological order of events:

  • 3. Air India NATIONALIZED and became national carrier — 1953 (Air Corporations Act, 1953).
  • 2. IMPERIAL BANK OF INDIA renamed to STATE BANK OF INDIA — 1 July 1955 (State Bank of India Act, 1955).
  • 1. First DEMOCRATICALLY ELECTED COMMUNIST PARTY GOVERNMENT in a State — 1957 (E.M.S. Namboodiripad government, Kerala, April 1957).
  • 4. GOA became part of INDIA (from Portuguese control) — 19 December 1961 (Operation Vijay).

Sequence: 1953 → 1955 → 1957 → 1961, i.e., 3 → 2 → 1 → 4.

Contemporary Names — precise dating of post-Independence milestones is direct recall. Word Association — Kerala Communist 1957; Goa 1961 (15th anniversary of independence the trigger); SBI 1955 (centralisation of banking).

Indian Polity Fundamental Rights CA · Basic Medium
Q92

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III. In K.S. PUTTASWAMY v. UNION OF INDIA (2017), a NINE-JUDGE BENCH of the Supreme Court UNANIMOUSLY HELD that the RIGHT TO PRIVACY is INTRINSICALLY LINKED TO ARTICLE 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) and the OTHER FREEDOMS GUARANTEED IN PART III (Articles 14, 19, etc.). Privacy is not a standalone right but emerges as an essential ingredient of Life, Liberty, and other Fundamental Rights.

  • (a) Art 14 + 42nd Amendment — not the source of Privacy doctrine.
  • (b) Art 17 + DPSPs — Art 17 is untouchability abolition; DPSPs don't create justiciable rights.
  • (d) Art 24 + 44th Amendment — child-labour and 1978 amendments, not Privacy.

Constitution Qs — Puttaswamy judgment (2017) directly traces Right to Privacy to Art 21 + Part III rights → direct constitutional doctrine. Contemporary Names — post-2017 constitutional-law landmarks tested directly.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India CA · Basic Medium-Difficult
Q93

Consider the following: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affair, has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?

  1. 1Areca nut
  2. 2Barley
  3. 3Coffee
  4. 4Finger millet
  5. 5Groundnut
  6. 6Sesamum
  7. 7Turmeric
Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2, 4, 5 and 6 only. CCEA announces MSP for 23 CROPS covering 7 CEREALS, 5 PULSES, 7 OILSEEDS, and 4 COMMERCIAL CROPS (copra, sugarcane, jute, cotton). From the listed items:

  • 1. Areca nut ✗ — NOT an MSP crop.
  • 2. BARLEY ✓ — Rabi cereal; MSP announced.
  • 3. Coffee ✗ — Coffee is a PLANTATION CROP; not in MSP list.
  • 4. FINGER MILLET (Ragi) ✓ — Kharif nutri-cereal; MSP announced.
  • 5. GROUNDNUT ✓ — Kharif oilseed; MSP announced.
  • 6. SESAMUM (Til) ✓ — Kharif oilseed; MSP announced.
  • 7. Turmeric ✗ — NOT an MSP crop (spice).

Word Association — MSP list = 7 cereals + 5 pulses + 7 oilseeds + 4 commercial crops (canonical agricultural-policy scope). Odd One Out — coffee, areca nut, turmeric stand out as plantation/spice crops (not MSP); the others fit MSP categories.

Environment Protected Area Network Fundamental Medium
Q94

In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Arunachal Pradesh. PAKHUI WILDLIFE SANCTUARY (also known as PAKKE TIGER RESERVE, since 2002) is located in the EAST KAMENG and PAPUM PARE DISTRICTS of ARUNACHAL PRADESH. It's known for tigers, elephants, clouded leopards, and especially for hornbills (four hornbill species including Great Indian Hornbill). Tirap River basin. One of NE India's key tiger reserves.

  • (b) Manipur — has Keibul Lamjao (Sangai deer).
  • (c) Meghalaya — has Nokrek, Balpakram.
  • (d) Nagaland — has Intanki, Fakim.

Word Association — Pakhui/Pakke + hornbill conservation + East Kameng = Arunachal Pradesh (canonical NE-wildlife pairing). UPSC Favourite Area — tiger reserves and WLS state-wise pairings tested regularly.

Science and Technology Space Technology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q95

With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

  1. 1PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
  2. 2Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
  3. 3GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) launches POLAR/SUN-SYNCHRONOUS ORBIT SATELLITES — EARTH RESOURCES MONITORING (remote-sensing: RESOURCESAT, CARTOSAT, OCEANSAT series). GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) launches HEAVIER COMMUNICATION SATELLITES to GEOSTATIONARY TRANSFER ORBIT — communication/broadcasting (GSAT series). S1 correctly captures this division ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Satellites launched by PSLV DO NOT appear 'permanently fixed in the same position as viewed from Earth' — that's GEOSTATIONARY satellites (launched by GSLV, at ~36,000 km altitude). PSLV-launched SUN-SYNCHRONOUS satellites are in LOW EARTH ORBIT (~600-800 km) and pass overhead periodically. Inverted satellite-behaviour claim.
  • S3 WRONG — GSLV Mk III is a THREE-STAGE launch vehicle (not four-staged). Stage 1: two solid boosters (S200); Stage 2: liquid (L110); Stage 3: cryogenic (C25). The 'four-staged with solid first/third + liquid second/fourth' description is factually wrong (wrong stage count and wrong propellant per stage).

Exchange of Options — S2 swaps PSLV orbit behaviour (LEO polar) with GSLV geostationary fixedness — classic orbit-class swap. Vulnerable Statements — S3's stage-count and propellant-by-stage are specific engineering details manipulated numerically.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India CA · Basic Medium
Q96

With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements

  1. 1Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade
  2. 2To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — PUBLIC SECTOR BANK CAPITAL INFUSION has NOT 'STEADILY INCREASED' in the last decade — it has FLUCTUATED based on recapitalisation packages, varying year-to-year in response to NPA crisis (major surges in 2017 with Rs. 2.11 lakh crore recap package; smaller amounts other years). 'Steadily' is wrong directionality.
  • S2 CORRECT — To put PSBs in order, the MERGER OF ASSOCIATE BANKS with the parent STATE BANK OF INDIA was effected in April 2017 (SBI + 5 associate banks + Bharatiya Mahila Bank merged into SBI) ✓ — making SBI one of the world's top 50 banks by assets.

Trend-Word Rule — S1's 'STEADILY INCREASED' is the PDF's flagged trend-phrase that's rarely true year-on-year (actual recap amounts varied widely). UPSC Respects Government Initiative — S2's SBI-merger framed as PSB reform (positive) → correct.

Indian Economy Indian Tax Structure CA · Basic Medium
Q97

Consider the following items:

  1. 1Cereal grains hulled
  2. 2Chicken eggs cooked
  3. 3Fish processed and canned
  4. 4Newspapers containing advertising material

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 2 and 4 only. GST-exempted items (as of 2017-18):

  • 1. CEREAL GRAINS HULLED ✓ — Basic unprocessed cereals are GST-EXEMPT (Nil rate) — essential food items.
  • 2. CHICKEN EGGS COOKED ✓ — Fresh/cooked chicken eggs are GST-EXEMPT (Nil rate) — basic food.
  • 3. FISH PROCESSED AND CANNED ✗ — PROCESSED/CANNED FISH is TAXABLE under GST (typically 5% or 12% depending on product). Not exempt.
  • 4. NEWSPAPERS CONTAINING ADVERTISING MATERIAL ✓ — Newspapers are exempt from GST (Nil rate), including those carrying advertising ✓.

Word Association — GST-exempt basket = basic food + newspapers (education/public interest) (canonical indirect-tax policy framing). Exchange of Options — S3 (processed/canned fish taxed, not exempt) is the odd one → classic 'processed food is taxed' distinction.

Environment Wildlife Conservation CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q98

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
  2. 2For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
  3. 3Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — The definition of 'CRITICAL WILDLIFE HABITAT' IS INCORPORATED in the FOREST RIGHTS ACT, 2006 (Section 2(b)): areas of National Parks and Sanctuaries required to be kept inviolate for wildlife, as determined by expert committees ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — The BAIGAS of Madhya Pradesh were indeed GIVEN HABITAT RIGHTS FOR THE FIRST TIME in India — Baiga Habitat Rights were recognised in Dindori district, MP, in 2015, making them India's first Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) with Habitat Rights ✓.
  • S3 WRONG — Habitat Rights for PVTGs are NOT DECLARED by the UNION MOEFCC — they are declared by the STATE GOVERNMENT under the Forest Rights Act 2006 through the District-Level Committee / Gram Sabha-based process. MoTA (Ministry of Tribal Affairs) is the nodal Union ministry (not MoEFCC).

Vulnerable Statements — S3 swaps the declaring authority (State-level FRA process → Union MoEFCC) and the ministry (MoTA → MoEFCC) — classic institutional-attribution manipulation. Contemporary Names — Baiga Habitat Rights (2015) is a recent landmark for direct CA recall.

Science and Technology General Science — Biology Fundamental Medium
Q99

Consider the following:

  1. 1Birds
  2. 2Dust blowing
  3. 3Rain
  4. 4Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2, 3 and 4. PLANT DISEASE VECTORS / SPREAD AGENTS — all four listed agents can spread plant diseases:

  • 1. BIRDS ✓ — birds can carry pathogens (fungal spores, bacteria, viruses) on feet, feathers, beaks between plants.
  • 2. DUST BLOWING ✓ — dust particles carry fungal spores and pathogens (e.g., rust spores, powdery mildew) across distances.
  • 3. RAIN ✓ — rain splash disperses soilborne and splash-dispersed pathogens onto leaves; water film facilitates infection.
  • 4. WIND BLOWING ✓ — wind is a MAJOR disperser of fungal spores (rust, smut, mildew) over long distances.

All four are well-documented plant pathology vectors.

First Among Equals — 'all four' fits when multiple valid disease-spread agents exist → comprehensive answer. Hard to Verify / Disprove — pollution/pathogen spread via multiple agents is a broad plausibility argument (per PDF principle) → all correct.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India CA · Basic Medium
Q100

With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

  1. 1The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
  2. 2The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority’ (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
  3. 3Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only. National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP):

  • S1 WRONG — NPOP is operated under the MINISTRY OF COMMERCE AND INDUSTRY (not Ministry of Rural Development). APEDA, which runs NPOP, comes under Commerce & Industry. Classic ministry-attribution swap.
  • S2 CORRECT — APEDA (Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority) FUNCTIONS AS THE SECRETARIAT for the IMPLEMENTATION OF NPOP ✓ — it manages certification, accreditation, standards.
  • S3 CORRECT — SIKKIM BECAME INDIA'S FIRST FULLY ORGANIC STATE — officially declared by PM Modi on 18 January 2016, after a decade-long phase-out of chemical fertilizers starting 2003 ✓.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 swaps ministries (Commerce → Rural Development) — classic ministry-attribution trap. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — Sikkim organic declaration framed as India's pioneering sustainable-agriculture milestone → S3 correct. Statutory-Body Suffix — APEDA = Authority = statutory body (per PDF's suffix rule).

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