Official Provisional Answer Key
CDS I 2026 — General Knowledge
Paper II · Series A
120 Questions · Maximum Marks 100 · 1 Question Dropped · Compiled by Legacy IAS, Bangalore
120Questions
100Max Marks
119For Scoring
Series APaper Set
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Correct = +0.83 marks | Wrong = −0.27 marks (1/3 penalty) | Q.12 dropped
1
The central cytoplasmic region of a prokaryotic cell containing nucleic acids is called:
2
Nearly all infants benefit from milk, but most adults cannot properly digest milk. If an elderly person can still digest milk, his body is producing enough of which enzyme?
3
The antibiotic penicillin can kill invading bacteria without harming human cells because it targets bacterial:
4
A researcher is studying different types of cells. In which cell type will he/she encounter the highest number of lysosomes?
5
Which one of the following is not a function of the pigment carotenoid?
6
A world chess champion has curly hair, attached earlobes and freckles. Which one of the following traits is not likely to be passed on to his/her offsprings?
7
In humans, which chamber of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs first?
8
Consider the following statements with reference to manure and organic farming:
1. Vermicompost is rich in organic matter and nutrients.
2. Biofertilizers and bio-pesticides are not used in organic farming.
3. Crop rotation is beneficial in controlling insects, pests and weeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Vermicompost is rich in organic matter and nutrients.
2. Biofertilizers and bio-pesticides are not used in organic farming.
3. Crop rotation is beneficial in controlling insects, pests and weeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
9
Match List-I (Structure/Organelle) with List-II (Function):
A. Mitochondria — 1. Maintenance of cell shape
B. Cytoskeleton — 2. Detoxification in liver cells
C. Smooth ER — 3. Storage of chemicals and cell enlargement
D. Vacuoles — 4. Cellular respiration
Codes (A-B-C-D):
A. Mitochondria — 1. Maintenance of cell shape
B. Cytoskeleton — 2. Detoxification in liver cells
C. Smooth ER — 3. Storage of chemicals and cell enlargement
D. Vacuoles — 4. Cellular respiration
Codes (A-B-C-D):
10
Which one among the following pairs of diseases and their types is not correctly matched?
11
Which one among the following statements qualitatively explains the second law of motion?
12
[Question 12 — Dropped by UPSC. Marks awarded to all candidates.]
⚸
⚠ This question has been dropped by UPSC. Marks awarded to all candidates.
13
Which one among the following has the least coefficient of thermal conductivity?
14
Which one among the following generation computers used microprocessors in their hardware technology?
15
An X-ray beam can be deflected by:
16
An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm in front of a concave mirror with a radius of curvature of 20 cm. Which one among the following statements is correct for the image formed?
17
Which one among the following statements regarding the electrical resistivity of a conducting wire is correct?
18
Which one among the following statements related to electric cells is correct?
19
An object is launched horizontally from a height of 45 m above the ground with a speed of 10 m/s. The time at which the object will hit the ground is (Take g = 10 m/s²):
20
Consider the following statements regarding waves:
1. If the particles of a medium move along the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a longitudinal wave.
2. If the particles of a medium move perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a transverse wave.
3. Transverse waves may involve change in the shape of the medium, whereas longitudinal waves involve change in the density of the medium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. If the particles of a medium move along the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a longitudinal wave.
2. If the particles of a medium move perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave, the wave is called a transverse wave.
3. Transverse waves may involve change in the shape of the medium, whereas longitudinal waves involve change in the density of the medium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
21
Match List-I (Symbol of Element) with List-II (Group of Element):
A. Sm — 1. Transition Elements
B. Cs — 2. Alkali Metals
C. Os — 3. Actinoid Elements
D. Np — 4. Lanthanoid Elements
Codes (A-B-C-D):
A. Sm — 1. Transition Elements
B. Cs — 2. Alkali Metals
C. Os — 3. Actinoid Elements
D. Np — 4. Lanthanoid Elements
Codes (A-B-C-D):
22
Consider the following statements regarding matter:
1. Elements cannot be broken down into simpler substances.
2. A compound has variable composition and can be broken down into elements.
3. The solution of sulphur in carbon disulphide is an example of a homogeneous mixture.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1. Elements cannot be broken down into simpler substances.
2. A compound has variable composition and can be broken down into elements.
3. The solution of sulphur in carbon disulphide is an example of a homogeneous mixture.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
23
Consider the following statements:
1. Concentrated H₂SO₄ is used as a dehydrating agent in esterification reaction.
2. The hydrophilic part of soap is oil and it dissolves in water.
3. Nickel is used as a catalyst in converting vegetable oil into fat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Concentrated H₂SO₄ is used as a dehydrating agent in esterification reaction.
2. The hydrophilic part of soap is oil and it dissolves in water.
3. Nickel is used as a catalyst in converting vegetable oil into fat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
24
Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?
25
Consider the following statements:
1. Packaged foods are purged with nitrogen gas in order to prevent their oxidation.
2. Tooth decay starts when pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
3. The reactivity of metals decreases in the order: Mg > Fe > Zn.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1. Packaged foods are purged with nitrogen gas in order to prevent their oxidation.
2. Tooth decay starts when pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
3. The reactivity of metals decreases in the order: Mg > Fe > Zn.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
26
Which one among the following pairs of compound and chemical formula is not correctly matched?
27
Consider the following statements:
1. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of calcium.
2. The permanent hardness in water is due to the presence of soluble chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium.
3. The permanent hardness in water is removed by adding Na₂CO₃ to water.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of bicarbonates of calcium.
2. The permanent hardness in water is due to the presence of soluble chlorides and sulphates of calcium and magnesium.
3. The permanent hardness in water is removed by adding Na₂CO₃ to water.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
28
Which one among the following statements regarding micelles is not correct?
29
Consider the following statements regarding bases and alkalis:
1. All bases dissolve in water.
2. Bases which are soluble in water are called alkalis.
3. An alkali is soapy to touch, bitter and corrosive.
4. Addition of water to an alkali generates heat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. All bases dissolve in water.
2. Bases which are soluble in water are called alkalis.
3. An alkali is soapy to touch, bitter and corrosive.
4. Addition of water to an alkali generates heat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
30
Which of the following statements relating to the Modern Periodic Table is/are correct?
1. The atomic radius increases on moving from left to right across a period.
2. Germanium, Tellurium, and Copper are transition metals.
3. The two isotopes of Chlorine occupy the same position in the periodic table.
4. The metallic property of Ca, Ba, Be and Sr follows the order: Be < Ca < Sr < Ba.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. The atomic radius increases on moving from left to right across a period.
2. Germanium, Tellurium, and Copper are transition metals.
3. The two isotopes of Chlorine occupy the same position in the periodic table.
4. The metallic property of Ca, Ba, Be and Sr follows the order: Be < Ca < Sr < Ba.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
31
Which of the following computer languages is/are assembly language(s)?
1. Python 2. Java 3. x86 4. MIPS
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Python 2. Java 3. x86 4. MIPS
Select the answer using the codes given below:
32
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of flash memory?
33
Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the UNIX operating system?
34
In MP3 compression scheme, 60 minutes of music can be stored in about:
35
Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA) technology is primarily used in:
36
Which one of the following items comprises the major portion of Revenue Expenditure in Budget 2025–26 of the Union Government of India?
37
Consider the following statements with respect to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY):
1. PMFBY provides risk insurance to farmers against crop damage due to non-preventable natural risks.
2. PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh in case of death of the insured.
3. PMFBY ensures flow of credit to the agriculture sector.
4. PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh for complete disability of the insured.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. PMFBY provides risk insurance to farmers against crop damage due to non-preventable natural risks.
2. PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh in case of death of the insured.
3. PMFBY ensures flow of credit to the agriculture sector.
4. PMFBY provides risk coverage of ₹2 lakh for complete disability of the insured.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
38
Which of the following statements with respect to the Gender Inequality Index (GII) is/are correct?
1. GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in work participation, property and income dimensions.
2. GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market dimensions.
3. The value of GII ranges from 0 to 1, with a GII of 0 indicating women and men faring equally in all dimensions.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in work participation, property and income dimensions.
2. GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in reproductive health, empowerment and the labour market dimensions.
3. The value of GII ranges from 0 to 1, with a GII of 0 indicating women and men faring equally in all dimensions.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
39
The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is measured by:
40
The financial instruments that generate proceeds for investment in environmentally sustainable and climate-suitable projects are called as:
41
Which one among the following sectors is included in the list of the Sunrise Sectors in India?
42
Which of the following countries were the founding members of SAARC, established in 1985?
1. India 2. Nepal 3. Maldives 4. Afghanistan
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. India 2. Nepal 3. Maldives 4. Afghanistan
Select the answer using the codes given below:
43
The Government of India has announced a 6-year Mission for Aatmanirbharta (Self-reliance) in Pulses with a special focus to ensure 100% procurement at MSP of:
44
Which one among the following statements correctly defines the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?
45
Which one of the following indexes is used to assess the state of governance across the States and UTs?
46
Swami Vivekananda’s speech in the World Parliament of Religions at Chicago in 1893 opened with which of the following words?
47
Who among the following was called by Gandhiji as his Rajya Guru in May, 1915?
48
With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
1. The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the Anti-Partition movement, which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.
2. Aurobindo Ghosh was in favour of extending the movement to the rest of India and carrying it beyond the programme of just Swadeshi and Boycott to a full-fledged political mass struggle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the Anti-Partition movement, which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.
2. Aurobindo Ghosh was in favour of extending the movement to the rest of India and carrying it beyond the programme of just Swadeshi and Boycott to a full-fledged political mass struggle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
49
With reference to the Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman, consider the following statements:
1. The script of this inscription is Kharosthi and the language is Prakrit.
2. The inscription records the restoration of a reservoir called Sudarshana Lake.
3. It is an undated inscription.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The script of this inscription is Kharosthi and the language is Prakrit.
2. The inscription records the restoration of a reservoir called Sudarshana Lake.
3. It is an undated inscription.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
50
The Bower Manuscript is known for being a valuable source on which one of the following subjects in ancient India?
51
Who among the following was the only Indian member to be present when the Vernacular Press Bill came up before the Legislative Council?
52
With reference to the Ranigumpha Cave (Odisha), consider the following statements:
1. Ranigumpha Cave is plain and contains no murals or sculptures.
2. Ranigumpha Cave is two-storeyed.
3. Ranigumpha Cave consists of an oval courtyard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Ranigumpha Cave is plain and contains no murals or sculptures.
2. Ranigumpha Cave is two-storeyed.
3. Ranigumpha Cave consists of an oval courtyard.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
53
The Mesolithic site of Bagor is one of the most well-documented sites. It is located in:
54
Extensive pit-dwellings have been identified at the two Neolithic sites of:
55
The Chalcolithic Ahar Culture has been identified in which of the following river systems?
56
Which one of the following is a Neolithic site?
57
During the period 100 BCE – 200 CE, valuable evidence of India’s maritime trade links has been identified from which of the following sites on the Coromandel Coast?
58
Consider the following statements about the Gupta administrative system:
1. The Gupta kings assumed imperial titles such as Maharajadhiraja, Parama-bhattaraka and Parameshvara.
2. The Gupta kings also connected themselves with the Gods through epithets such as Parama-daivata and Parama-bhagavata.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Gupta kings assumed imperial titles such as Maharajadhiraja, Parama-bhattaraka and Parameshvara.
2. The Gupta kings also connected themselves with the Gods through epithets such as Parama-daivata and Parama-bhagavata.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
59
Who was the author of the book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, providing extremely rich and interesting details about India?
60
The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka, led by Basavanna (1106-68 CE) who was a minister in the court of a Kalachuri ruler. His followers were known as:
61
With reference to the Industrial Revolution, consider the following statements:
1. The Industrial Revolution saw the replacement of handicrafts by power-driven machinery.
2. The industrialised countries became dependent upon other countries for the supply of raw materials necessary for their industries.
3. Large-scale production started with the help of machinery in factories.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. The Industrial Revolution saw the replacement of handicrafts by power-driven machinery.
2. The industrialised countries became dependent upon other countries for the supply of raw materials necessary for their industries.
3. Large-scale production started with the help of machinery in factories.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
62
Which of the pairs of Ashokan inscription and location is/are correctly matched?
1. Jaugada : Karnataka
2. Bahapur : New Delhi
3. Rajula-Mandagiri : Andhra Pradesh
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Jaugada : Karnataka
2. Bahapur : New Delhi
3. Rajula-Mandagiri : Andhra Pradesh
Select the answer using the codes given below:
63
With reference to the Indo-Roman trade in ancient India, the term ‘aurei’ refers to:
64
Basohli, a bold and intense style of miniature painting, is associated with which one of the following regions of India?
65
Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the rise of Magadha as the most powerful Mahajanapada during the 6th century BCE?
1. Region of productive agriculture
2. Accessibility to iron-mines
3. Availability of elephants in the region
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Region of productive agriculture
2. Accessibility to iron-mines
3. Availability of elephants in the region
Select the answer using the codes given below:
66
Which of the following pairs of theories about origin of the Earth and their propounders is/are correctly matched?
1. Gaseous Hypothesis : Kant
2. Binary Star Hypothesis : Russell
3. Planetesimal Hypothesis : Chamberlin
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Gaseous Hypothesis : Kant
2. Binary Star Hypothesis : Russell
3. Planetesimal Hypothesis : Chamberlin
Select the answer using the codes given below:
67
Which one among the following statements regarding igneous rock is correct?
68
Consider the following statements regarding metamorphic rocks:
1. Ortho-metamorphic rocks are formed from igneous rocks.
2. Intense heat of the intruding magmas results in metamorphism of the surrounding rocks, a process known as dynamic metamorphism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Ortho-metamorphic rocks are formed from igneous rocks.
2. Intense heat of the intruding magmas results in metamorphism of the surrounding rocks, a process known as dynamic metamorphism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
69
Consider the following statements regarding Volcanic Cones:
1. During volcanic eruptions, acid lava cones are formed by highly viscous lavas.
2. Viscous lavas have high mobility and can travel for long distances.
3. Acid lavas result in the formation of high cones with steep slopes.
4. Composite cones are the highest volcanic cones.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. During volcanic eruptions, acid lava cones are formed by highly viscous lavas.
2. Viscous lavas have high mobility and can travel for long distances.
3. Acid lavas result in the formation of high cones with steep slopes.
4. Composite cones are the highest volcanic cones.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
70
Consider the following statements about Mechanical Weathering:
1. More compact and highly consolidated rocks are least affected by freeze-thaw weathering.
2. Shattering of rocks is more common in hot deserts.
3. Crystalline rocks are often prone to exfoliation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. More compact and highly consolidated rocks are least affected by freeze-thaw weathering.
2. Shattering of rocks is more common in hot deserts.
3. Crystalline rocks are often prone to exfoliation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
71
Consider the following statements about the causes of ground surface inversion of temperature:
1. Ground surface inversion is also termed as radiation inversion.
2. The existence of negative lapse rate results in surface inversion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Ground surface inversion is also termed as radiation inversion.
2. The existence of negative lapse rate results in surface inversion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
72
Match List-I (Forest type) with List-II (Specie):
A. Tropical Moist Forest — 1. Kail
B. Littoral and Swamp Forest — 2. Khair
C. Tropical Thorn Forest — 3. Sonneratia
D. Alpine Forest — 4. Rosewood
Codes (A-B-C-D):
A. Tropical Moist Forest — 1. Kail
B. Littoral and Swamp Forest — 2. Khair
C. Tropical Thorn Forest — 3. Sonneratia
D. Alpine Forest — 4. Rosewood
Codes (A-B-C-D):
73
Consider the following statements regarding the Northwestern Himalayas:
1. Karewa formations in Kashmir consist of thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
2. Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri in Ladakh are freshwater lakes.
3. River Jhelum exhibits meanders in the Kashmir Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Karewa formations in Kashmir consist of thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.
2. Pangong Tso and Tso Moriri in Ladakh are freshwater lakes.
3. River Jhelum exhibits meanders in the Kashmir Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
74
Consider the following statements about the types of drought in India:
1. A meteorological drought occurs when the mean annual rainfall is less than 75%.
2. Agricultural drought arises out of extreme moisture stress.
3. Soil moisture drought is related to meteorological drought.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. A meteorological drought occurs when the mean annual rainfall is less than 75%.
2. Agricultural drought arises out of extreme moisture stress.
3. Soil moisture drought is related to meteorological drought.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
75
Match List-I (Forest Research Institute) with List-II (Location):
A. Tropical Forest Research Institute — 1. Prayagraj
B. Rain Forest Research Institute — 2. Jorhat
C. Himalayan Forest Research Institute — 3. Jabalpur
D. Forest Research Centre for Eco-Rehabilitation — 4. Shimla
Codes (A-B-C-D):
A. Tropical Forest Research Institute — 1. Prayagraj
B. Rain Forest Research Institute — 2. Jorhat
C. Himalayan Forest Research Institute — 3. Jabalpur
D. Forest Research Centre for Eco-Rehabilitation — 4. Shimla
Codes (A-B-C-D):
76
Which of the following statements about the Black Soils of India is/are correct?
1. Black Soils cover most of the Deccan Plateau.
2. Also known as ‘Regur’, they are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
3. Since they are impermeable, rainfed crops do not grow well in Black Soils.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Black Soils cover most of the Deccan Plateau.
2. Also known as ‘Regur’, they are generally clayey, deep and impermeable.
3. Since they are impermeable, rainfed crops do not grow well in Black Soils.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
77
Which one of the following rivers is also known by the name of ‘Dihang’ in Northeast India?
78
‘Shipki La’, a high altitude pass in the Himalayas, is located in:
79
During chemical weathering, when minerals in feldspar change to kaolinite clays, the process is termed as:
80
Which one among the following pairs of National Parks and locations is not correctly matched?
81
Which one among the following is the first and the oldest Government-owned coal mining company in India?
82
Consider the following statements regarding ocean currents:
1. Difference in water density is the main cause for the formation of ocean currents.
2. Density of water depends on temperature, salinity and pressure.
3. As a rule, ocean waters move from areas of higher density to areas of lower density as a current.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Difference in water density is the main cause for the formation of ocean currents.
2. Density of water depends on temperature, salinity and pressure.
3. As a rule, ocean waters move from areas of higher density to areas of lower density as a current.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
83
Consider the following statements about the Sargasso Sea:
1. It is the only sea without a land boundary.
2. The Sargasso Sea records the lowest salinity in the Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It is the only sea without a land boundary.
2. The Sargasso Sea records the lowest salinity in the Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
84
Match List-I (Type of Tide) with List-II (Characteristic):
A. Spring Tides — 1. Low tides caused when Sun, Earth and Moon are in position of quadrature
B. Neap Tides — 2. Occur when the Moon is farthest from the Earth
C. Apogean Tides — 3. Tides recurring at an interval of six months
D. Equinoctial Spring Tides — 4. Very high tides caused when Sun, Moon and Earth are almost in the same line
Codes (A-B-C-D):
A. Spring Tides — 1. Low tides caused when Sun, Earth and Moon are in position of quadrature
B. Neap Tides — 2. Occur when the Moon is farthest from the Earth
C. Apogean Tides — 3. Tides recurring at an interval of six months
D. Equinoctial Spring Tides — 4. Very high tides caused when Sun, Moon and Earth are almost in the same line
Codes (A-B-C-D):
85
Which of the following pairs of major sea ports of India and their characteristics are correctly matched?
1. Deendayal Port : Tidal Port
2. Jawaharlal Nehru Port : Landlocked Port
3. V.O. Chidambaranar Port : Artificial Deep-Sea Harbour
4. Paradip Port : Natural Shallow Water Port
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. Deendayal Port : Tidal Port
2. Jawaharlal Nehru Port : Landlocked Port
3. V.O. Chidambaranar Port : Artificial Deep-Sea Harbour
4. Paradip Port : Natural Shallow Water Port
Select the answer using the code given below:
86
Consider the following statements about the position of the Chief of Defence Staff:
1. He is the Head of the Department of Military Affairs within the Ministry of Defence.
2. He is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
3. He does not exercise any military command over the three Service Chiefs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. He is the Head of the Department of Military Affairs within the Ministry of Defence.
2. He is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
3. He does not exercise any military command over the three Service Chiefs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
87
Match List-I (Name of Institution) with List-II (Type of Training):
A. Indian Military Academy — 1. Training cadets for Short Service Commission
B. National Defence Academy — 2. Training the persons joining the Army as officers
C. National Defence College — 3. Training cadets of three services before inducting them into pre-commissioning training academies
D. Officers Training Academy — 4. Training of selected senior officers of the armed forces and civil service officers
Codes (A-B-C-D):
A. Indian Military Academy — 1. Training cadets for Short Service Commission
B. National Defence Academy — 2. Training the persons joining the Army as officers
C. National Defence College — 3. Training cadets of three services before inducting them into pre-commissioning training academies
D. Officers Training Academy — 4. Training of selected senior officers of the armed forces and civil service officers
Codes (A-B-C-D):
88
Which of the following statements about ‘Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana’ (SAGY) is/are correct?
1. It comes under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, Government of India.
2. It was launched in 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jayaprakash Narayan.
3. Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of Gram Swaraj is the inspiration behind this scheme.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. It comes under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, Government of India.
2. It was launched in 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jayaprakash Narayan.
3. Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of Gram Swaraj is the inspiration behind this scheme.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
89
Consider the following former Presidents of India:
1. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
2. Dr. Zakir Hussain
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
How many of the above Presidents has/have also served as Vice-President of India?
1. Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
2. Dr. Zakir Hussain
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
How many of the above Presidents has/have also served as Vice-President of India?
90
Which one among the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights of the Constitution of India is not correct?
91
Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure under Article 368 of the Constitution of India:
1. Constitutional amendment bills can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
2. Constitutional amendment bills should be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
3. All Constitutional amendment bills must be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one-half of the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Constitutional amendment bills can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
2. Constitutional amendment bills should be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
3. All Constitutional amendment bills must be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one-half of the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
92
Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications of a person for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India:
1. The person has to be, for at least five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
2. The person has to be, for at least ten years, an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
3. The person is, in the opinion of the Chief Justice of India, a distinguished jurist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The person has to be, for at least five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
2. The person has to be, for at least ten years, an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
3. The person is, in the opinion of the Chief Justice of India, a distinguished jurist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
93
Which one among the following pairs of Article and Provision with reference to the Constitution of India is not correctly matched?
94
Consider the following statements with regard to the UN Peacekeeping Operation:
1. The power to authorize a Peacekeeping Operation is exclusively vested with the General Assembly.
2. UN Peacekeeping Operations are deployed with the consent of the main parties to the conflict.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The power to authorize a Peacekeeping Operation is exclusively vested with the General Assembly.
2. UN Peacekeeping Operations are deployed with the consent of the main parties to the conflict.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
95
Which one among the following items is not included in the State List of the Constitution of India?
96
Which one among the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India and special provisions given therein is not correctly matched?
97
Which of the following are administered under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India?
1. Territorial Army
2. Hydrographic surveys and preparation of navigational charts
3. National Cadet Corps
4. All matters relating to Coast Guard Organization
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Territorial Army
2. Hydrographic surveys and preparation of navigational charts
3. National Cadet Corps
4. All matters relating to Coast Guard Organization
Select the answer using the codes given below:
98
Consider the following statements about the powers of the Governor of a State:
1. The Governor has the power to appoint the Advocate-General.
2. Advocate-General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
3. The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor.
4. The members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the President of India on the report of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. The Governor has the power to appoint the Advocate-General.
2. Advocate-General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
3. The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor.
4. The members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the President of India on the report of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
99
Which one of the following statements about BIMSTEC is not correct?
100
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
101
Which one of the following Acts is correctly paired with the year of its enactment?
102
Which of the following statements related to the National Commission for Backward Classes is/are correct?
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 has been repealed.
3. The Secretary, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India heads the Commission.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. It is a constitutional body.
2. The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 has been repealed.
3. The Secretary, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India heads the Commission.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
103
Which of the following acts/behaviour shall amount to ‘sexual harassment’ as per the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
1. Verbal remarks of sexual nature
2. Non-verbal conduct of sexual nature
3. Physical conduct of sexual nature
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Verbal remarks of sexual nature
2. Non-verbal conduct of sexual nature
3. Physical conduct of sexual nature
Select the answer using the codes given below:
104
Which among the following tribes inhabit the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
1. Onge 2. Jarawas 3. Sentinelese
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Onge 2. Jarawas 3. Sentinelese
Select the answer using the codes given below:
105
Arrange the following dignitaries in the correct sequence with respect to their rank precedence, as per the ‘Table of Precedence’ approved by the President of India:
1. Chief Justice of India 2. Governors within their respective states 3. Former Presidents 4. Deputy Prime Minister
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Chief Justice of India 2. Governors within their respective states 3. Former Presidents 4. Deputy Prime Minister
Select the answer using the codes given below:
106
Which of the following statements about the ‘SMART VILLAGE’ project, launched by CSIR is/are correct?
1. This is a pilot project, which focuses on the integrated village development.
2. The distinctive aspect of this project is that CSIR is following the guiding principle of ‘Land to Lab’ in improving the condition of villages through indigenous technologies.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. This is a pilot project, which focuses on the integrated village development.
2. The distinctive aspect of this project is that CSIR is following the guiding principle of ‘Land to Lab’ in improving the condition of villages through indigenous technologies.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
107
Which of the following measures has/have been undertaken by the Government of India for supporting the cotton exporters and the textile sector?
1. Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE)
2. RBI Trade Relief 2025
3. Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) for cotton and cotton-based products
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Credit Guarantee Scheme for Exporters (CGSE)
2. RBI Trade Relief 2025
3. Rebate of State and Central Taxes and Levies (RoSCTL) for cotton and cotton-based products
Select the answer using the codes given below:
108
Which of the following statements about Government programmes/schemes is/are correct?
1. Skill Training of Rural Youth (STRY) is a programme meant for improving skills of the rural youth in different thematic areas of agriculture.
2. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY–NRLM) focuses on creating income generation opportunities for Self-Help Group (SHG) women.
3. Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP) is meant for creating an enabling rural business development ecosystem for supporting all women except for those engaged with Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. Skill Training of Rural Youth (STRY) is a programme meant for improving skills of the rural youth in different thematic areas of agriculture.
2. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY–NRLM) focuses on creating income generation opportunities for Self-Help Group (SHG) women.
3. Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP) is meant for creating an enabling rural business development ecosystem for supporting all women except for those engaged with Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
Select the answer using the codes given below:
109
Which one of the following schemes is not meant for the development of agriculture sector in India?
110
Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. The 3rd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine was held in New Delhi in December 2025.
2. The theme for the 11th International Yoga Day 2025 was ‘Yoga for One Earth, One Health’.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. The 3rd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine was held in New Delhi in December 2025.
2. The theme for the 11th International Yoga Day 2025 was ‘Yoga for One Earth, One Health’.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
111
Which one of the following statements about the bridges of India is not correct?
112
Which of the following statements about India’s Green Energy target is/are correct?
1. ONGC Green has set a plan to achieve 10 GW of green energy capacity by 2030.
2. ONGC Green and IIM Nagpur have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU), which aims at contributing to India’s broader goal of achieving net zero emissions by 2050.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. ONGC Green has set a plan to achieve 10 GW of green energy capacity by 2030.
2. ONGC Green and IIM Nagpur have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU), which aims at contributing to India’s broader goal of achieving net zero emissions by 2050.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
113
In which one of the following cities of India was the PESA (Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas)) Mahotsav 2025 held?
114
The Sujalam Bharat App, launched in December 2025, aims at:
115
Operation Sagar Bandhu was launched by India to provide Search & Rescue and Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief (HADR) support to which one of the following countries?
116
India and New Zealand have signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) in December 2025. In which of the following areas has cooperation under the FTA been agreed upon between the two countries?
1. AYUSH 2. Audio-Visual tourism 3. Traditional knowledge system 4. Horticulture
Select the answer using the codes given below:
1. AYUSH 2. Audio-Visual tourism 3. Traditional knowledge system 4. Horticulture
Select the answer using the codes given below:
117
Which one of the following statements is correct about the PM-MITRA scheme?
118
Who, amongst the following, was not a part of the Indian Squash team that won the first ever World Cup title at the SDAT Squash World Cup 2025?
119
DRDO and Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU) have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in December 2025. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of this MoU?
1. This MoU aims to foster collaboration in the areas of training and technology support for defence and internal security.
2. RRU is an institution of eminence under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. This MoU aims to foster collaboration in the areas of training and technology support for defence and internal security.
2. RRU is an institution of eminence under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
120
Who among the following has recently scripted history by becoming the first Indian cricketer to secure 100 wickets and 1000 runs in T20 Internationals?