UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 GS Paper 1 — Interactive PYQ Quiz

Legacy IAS Academy — UPSC CSE Prelims 2015 GS Paper 1 · Interactive Quiz
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UPSC CSE Prelims · 2015

General Studies Paper 1

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2015 Paper at a Glance

100 questions · 10 subjects · 68 chapters
Dominant Subject
Economy
20 / 100  •  20% of the paper
Difficulty Mode
Medium
42 questions  •  middle-ground paper
Easy Bucket
29%
Low-hanging marks available
Fundamental Bias
59%
Balanced concept / current affairs
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Indian Economy Poverty, Inequality and Unemployment CA · Basic Easy
Q1

“Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojna’ has been launched for

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): promoting financial inclusion in the country. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), launched by PM Modi on 28 Aug 2014, is India's FLAGSHIP FINANCIAL INCLUSION scheme. Core features: zero-balance bank accounts, RuPay debit card, accidental insurance cover, overdraft facility, direct benefit transfer linkage. Aim: 'banking the unbanked' — bring every household into the formal banking system.

  • (a) Wrong — housing loans are not PMJDY's purpose; PMAY handles that.
  • (b) Wrong — SHG promotion is under NRLM / DAY-NRLM.
  • (d) Wrong — too narrow; PMJDY is universal, not restricted to marginalised communities.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'financial inclusion' is the quintessential positive/empowering keyword; option (c) carries this valence directly. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — PMJDY is framed positively; the broader universal objective (c) beats narrower descriptions in (a)/(b)/(d).

Indian Polity Finance Commission CA · Advanced Medium
Q2

With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
  2. 2It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — 14th Finance Commission (chaired by Y.V. Reddy, effective 2015-20) raised the States' share in the central divisible pool from 32% (13th FC) to 42% — a landmark increase in fiscal devolution.
  • S2 WRONG — 14th FC did NOT make sector-specific grants (which were a feature of earlier FCs); it deliberately moved AWAY from sector-specific grants and increased untied transfers + revenue deficit grants instead. This was a major shift.

Vulnerable Statements — concrete numerical claim (32%→42%) is fact-dense; verifiable. Exchange of Options — S2 swaps the 14th FC's defining feature (removed sector grants) into a false positive — classic reversal trap.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Basic Easy
Q3

The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): BRICS. The Fortaleza Declaration was the outcome document of the 6th BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil (July 2014). Landmark decisions: establishment of the NEW DEVELOPMENT BANK (NDB, HQ Shanghai) and the CONTINGENT RESERVE ARRANGEMENT ($100 bn pool). Hence a flagship BRICS moment.

  • (a) ASEAN — uses Bangkok/Kuala Lumpur declarations.
  • (c) OECD — Paris-based, no Fortaleza link.
  • (d) WTO — Bali Ministerial, not Fortaleza.

Word Association — 'Fortaleza' (city in Brazil) → BRICS Summit 2014 (canonical pairing). Contemporary Names — UPSC loves testing recent summit-declaration city names; Fortaleza → NDB → BRICS.

Indian Economy Indian Tax Structure Fundamental Medium
Q4

A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

  1. 1Slowing economic growth rate
  2. 2Less equitable distribution of national income

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only. Tax-to-GDP ratio is a measure of the government's revenue-raising capacity relative to the economy's size.

  • S1 CORRECT — A FALLING tax-to-GDP ratio typically signals slowing economic growth; when GDP grows but tax revenues don't keep pace (or actually shrink), it implies economic activity is softer than the nominal GDP suggests, or compliance is weakening.
  • S2 WRONG — Tax-to-GDP ratio doesn't directly indicate INCOME DISTRIBUTION (that needs Gini coefficient, Palma ratio etc.). A lower tax-to-GDP could reflect policy changes, exemptions, or tax base narrowing — not necessarily income inequality.

Word Association — 'tax-to-GDP' = revenue-capacity / growth indicator, not a distribution indicator (that's Gini). Odd One Out — S2 introduces an unrelated dimension (income distribution) to a revenue-ratio question.

Geography Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q5

In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs. Tropical cyclones need (i) warm sea (≥26.5°C), (ii) Coriolis force (not too close to equator), (iii) convergent low-pressure zone (ITCZ/trough), (iv) pre-existing disturbance. In SOUTH ATLANTIC and SOUTH-EAST PACIFIC, the ITCZ rarely extends south → no convergent trigger → cyclones don't originate there.

  • (a) Wrong — SSTs are actually adequate.
  • (c) Wrong — Coriolis is weak only near equator; these regions are within 10-20° S with adequate Coriolis.
  • (d) Wrong — land/ocean isn't the issue; Pacific has plenty of ocean.

Word Association — 'tropical cyclone non-formation' in South Atlantic → ITCZ absence is the textbook reason. Odd One Out — the other three distractors describe usual cyclone prerequisites; ITCZ is the specific absent one here.

Geography India — Location Fundamental Easy
Q6

Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. India's EASTERNMOST state is Arunachal Pradesh (longitude extends to ~97°25' E at Kibithu). Its WESTERNMOST state is Gujarat (~68°7' E at Guhar Moti in Kutch). Assam is not the easternmost (Arunachal extends further east). Rajasthan is not the westernmost (Gujarat extends further west).

  • Longitudinal extent of India: 68°7' E to 97°25' E, spanning ~30°.

Word Association — 'easternmost' + 'westernmost' → Arunachal + Gujarat (canonical longitude-extent fact). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct geographical recall; no manipulation possible.

Indian Polity Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Easy
Q7

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy

  1. 1The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
  2. 2The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2.

  • S1 CORRECT — DPSPs embody the socio-economic democracy vision (Articles 36-51) — equitable distribution of resources (Art 39), living wage (Art 43), education/nutrition/health (Arts 45-47). Political democracy (Part III rights) + socio-economic democracy (Part IV DPSPs) form the complete democratic ideal.
  • S2 CORRECT — Article 37: 'The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court...' — DPSPs are explicitly non-justiciable.

Constitution Qs — Art 37 is the clean textual anchor for non-enforceability. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'socio-economic democracy' carries positive empowerment valence → correct framing of DPSPs.

Indian Economy Indian Industry Applied Medium
Q8

In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Electricity generation. The Index of Eight Core Industries (base 2004-05, later revised) weights: Refinery products (28.04%), ELECTRICITY (19.85%), STEEL (17.92%), COAL (10.33%), Crude oil (8.98%), Natural gas (6.88%), CEMENT (5.37%), Fertilizers (2.63%). Among the four OPTIONS given (coal, electricity, fertilizer, steel), ELECTRICITY has the highest weight at ~19.85%.

Vulnerable Statements — concrete weights are fact-dense; knowing the ordering matters. Odd One Out — electricity is the most volume-heavy among energy/industrial categories.

Environment Protected Area Network Fundamental Medium
Q9

Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Keibul Lamjao National Park. Keibul Lamjao NP in Manipur is the world's ONLY floating national park — built on the 'phumdis' (floating masses of vegetation + soil + organic matter) of Loktak Lake. It is the last natural habitat of the ENDANGERED SANGAI (Manipur brow-antlered deer), the state animal.

  • (a) Bhitarkanika (Odisha) — mangrove, saltwater crocodile.
  • (c) Keoladeo Ghana (Rajasthan) — man-made wetland, bird sanctuary.
  • (d) Sultanpur (Haryana) — wetland bird sanctuary.

Word Association — 'floating vegetation' + 'swamp' = Keibul Lamjao + Loktak's phumdis (unique UPSC fact). UPSC Favourite Area — unique ecological features (world's only, floating NP) are tested repeatedly.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News Applied Medium
Q10

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?

  1. 1NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
  2. 2NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — NIF is an autonomous institution under the DEPARTMENT OF SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY (DST), Govt of India. Headquartered in Ahmedabad; founded 2000 under Prof. Anil Gupta.
  • S2 WRONG — NIF's mandate is to scout, document, and support GRASSROOTS TECHNOLOGICAL INNOVATIONS by local people (farmers, artisans, rural innovators) — NOT 'highly advanced scientific research' in 'premier institutions with foreign collaboration'. The statement inverts NIF's purpose entirely.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — NIF's real focus on 'grassroots innovators' is bottom-up and empowering; S2 substitutes 'highly advanced scientific research' (elitist) — setter-swap that contradicts NIF's mission. Exchange of Options — S2 swaps NIF's actual mandate (grassroots) with an elite-science description.

Environment Green Revolution, Sustainable and Modern Agricultural Practices Fundamental Medium
Q11

What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?

  1. 1Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
  2. 2Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
  3. 3Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Excessive nitrogenous fertilizer does NOT proliferate N-fixing microorganisms; on the contrary, it SUPPRESSES them (Rhizobium etc. reduce activity when soil N is abundant; plants stop investing in nodule formation).
  • S2 CORRECT — Continuous N-fertilizer use leads to soil ACIDIFICATION (urea, ammonium sulphate produce H+ ions during nitrification).
  • S3 CORRECT — Nitrate (NO3-) is highly soluble and LEACHES rapidly to groundwater, contaminating it (blue-baby syndrome).

Exchange of Options — S1 inverts reality: excess N SUPPRESSES N-fixation (by reducing plant dependence on bacteria). Positive & Empowering Keywords / Negative-Term valence — 'excessive' is negative → acidification and leaching (S2, S3) are the negative consequences that fit.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium-Difficult
Q12

With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
  2. 2IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
  3. 3CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — IUCN is NOT a UN organ; it is an INTERNATIONAL UNION (union of states + NGOs + scientists), with observer status at UN. CITES is correctly an inter-governmental agreement.
  • S2 CORRECT — IUCN runs thousands of field projects globally for biodiversity and conservation.
  • S3 CORRECT — CITES is legally binding on signatory states but DOES NOT REPLACE national laws — countries must implement domestic legislation to comply.

Vulnerable Statements — S1 makes a specific institutional claim ('organ of the UN') that's easy to verify as false. Word Association — IUCN = union/NGO consortium, NOT a UN organ (classic UPSC trap).

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium
Q13

The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane is:

  • RECOMMENDED by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
  • APPROVED by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by the PM.

The CACP only recommends; CCEA is the decision-making approving authority.

  • (b) CACP only recommends MSP/FRP.
  • (c) DMI regulates marketing, not pricing.
  • (d) APMC is a state-level market regulator, not a central pricing body.

Exchange of Options — CACP (recommends) vs CCEA (approves) is the classic setter-swap — distinguish the recommender from the approver. Council vs Committee — 'Cabinet Committee' = minister-chaired body = approving authority.

Geography Movements of Ocean Water Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q14

What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Convergence of the two equatorial currents. The Equatorial Counter-Current (ECC) flows EASTWARD between the westward-flowing North Equatorial Current (north of equator) and South Equatorial Current (south). The water driven westward by both accumulates near the western boundary and flows back EASTWARD along the equatorial doldrums/low-pressure zone as a return flow — i.e., CONVERGENCE drives the ECC.

  • (a) Earth's rotation causes Coriolis deflection, not direct eastward flow.
  • (c) Salinity contributes weakly.
  • (d) Calm belt is the location, not the cause.

Word Association — 'counter-current' (flows opposite to main currents) + 'convergence' — the physical mechanism directly explains return flow. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — ocean-physics textbook fact.

Art and Culture Religion in India Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q15

Consider the following pairs: Pace of Pilgrimage Location

#ItemMatch
1SrisailamNallamala Hills
2OmkareshwarSatmala Hills
3PushkarMahadeo Hills

Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Srisailam (Andhra Pradesh) is in the NALLAMALA HILLS (Eastern Ghats) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Omkareshwar (MP, Narmada river) is in the VINDHYA RANGE, NOT Satmala Hills (which are in Maharashtra).
  • S3 WRONG — Pushkar (Rajasthan) is in the ARAVALLI RANGE, NOT Mahadeo Hills (which are in central India, Satpura range).

Vulnerable Statements — hill-location pairings are fact-dense and easy to swap. Exchange of Options — S2 and S3 both swap correct hill-ranges with unrelated ones.

Modern History Emergence of Gandhi Fundamental Medium
Q16

With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
  2. 2In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
  3. 3Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 2 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — The Rowlatt Act (1919) was based on recommendations of the SEDITION COMMITTEE chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt.
  • S2 CORRECT — Gandhi attempted to mobilise the HOME RULE LEAGUES during Rowlatt Satyagraha (April 1919); he even became president of Home Rule League briefly.
  • S3 WRONG — Rowlatt Satyagraha was in 1919. SIMON COMMISSION arrived in 1928 — almost a DECADE APART. The two protests did not coincide.

Contemporary Names — S3's 'contemporary' linking of 1919 and 1928 events is exactly the wrong-contemporary trap. Word Association — Rowlatt Act → Sedition Committee → Rowlatt Satyagraha → Jallianwala Bagh (1919 timeline).

Current Affairs Science & Tech CA · Basic Easy
Q17

Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia. The 2014-16 West African Ebola outbreak was centred in GUINEA, SIERRA LEONE, and LIBERIA — three neighbouring West African countries. It was the largest Ebola outbreak in history with ~11,000 deaths.

  • (a) Syria/Jordan — Middle East, not Ebola.
  • (c) Philippines/PNG — Southeast Asia, no major Ebola outbreak.
  • (d) Jamaica/Haiti/Surinam — Caribbean/S. America, not Ebola.

Word Association — Ebola 2014 → West Africa (Guinea/Sierra Leone/Liberia) is the canonical current-affairs pairing. Contemporary Names — recent outbreak-location is a direct CA recall.

Environment Air Pollution Applied Medium
Q18

With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
  2. 2Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
  3. 3Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2.

  • S1 CORRECT — Fly ash is widely used to make FLY ASH BRICKS (lightweight, strong, eco-friendly alternative to clay bricks).
  • S2 CORRECT — Fly ash is a SUPPLEMENTARY CEMENTITIOUS MATERIAL in concrete, replacing 15-35% of Portland cement (pozzolanic reaction) — improves durability and reduces CO2 emissions.
  • S3 WRONG — Fly ash is NOT only SiO2 + CaO; it contains Al2O3, Fe2O3, and TOXIC ELEMENTS like arsenic, mercury, cadmium, lead, selenium. The 'no toxic elements' claim is factually incorrect.

Extreme-Word Rule — S3's 'silicon + calcium oxide ONLY' and 'does NOT contain ANY toxic elements' are absolute claims → classic setter wrong-stmt marker. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1 and S2 describe reuse/sustainability applications → correct valence.

Environment Wildlife Conservation Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q19

With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is a herbivorous marine animal.
  2. 2It is found along the, entire coast of India.
  3. 3It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3.

  • S1 CORRECT — Dugong (Dugong dugon) is a HERBIVOROUS marine mammal (sirenian) feeding on seagrass ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Dugongs are NOT found along the ENTIRE coast of India. Distribution restricted to Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, and Andaman-Nicobar — NOT in West Bengal/Odisha/western coast comprehensively.
  • S3 CORRECT — Dugong is listed in SCHEDULE I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 (highest protection) ✓.

Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'entire coast of India' is an absolute → suspect → eliminate. Odd One Out — dugong is a restricted-range marine mammal, not coastal-wide.

Modern History Economic Impact of British Rule in India Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q20

Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?

  1. 1Dadabhai Naoroji
  2. 2G. Subramania Iyer
  3. 3R. C. Dutt

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. All three were prominent economic critics of British colonialism:

  • 1. Dadabhai Naoroji ✓ — author of 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901); developed the DRAIN THEORY.
  • 2. G. Subramania Iyer ✓ — founder of The Hindu and Swadesamitran; wrote extensively on economic drain.
  • 3. R. C. Dutt ✓ — author of 'The Economic History of India' (2 vols), detailing impoverishment under British rule.

All three are canonical economic nationalists.

British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — economic critique of colonialism = freedom-fighter-positive framing → 'all three' fits perfectly. UPSC Favourite Area — economic nationalism thinkers are tested repeatedly.

Indian Economy International Economic Institutions Applied Medium
Q21

Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): The World Bank. The 'Global Economic Prospects' (GEP) is a flagship publication of the WORLD BANK, issued twice a year (January and June). It analyses growth prospects for developing economies and global trends.

  • (a) ADB publishes 'Asian Development Outlook'.
  • (b) EBRD publishes 'Transition Report'.
  • (c) US Fed publishes 'Beige Book', FOMC statements — not GEP.

Word Association — 'Global Economic Prospects' → World Bank (direct canonical pairing). Vulnerable Statements — publication-organisation pairings are easily manipulated.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Fundamental Medium
Q22

When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates. SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) is the % of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that banks must maintain in SPECIFIED LIQUID ASSETS (G-secs, cash, gold). A reduction by 50 bps releases bank funds for LENDING — banks have more money to lend → competitive pressure may cause them to REDUCE LENDING RATES.

  • (a) GDP growth doesn't rise 'drastically' from a single SLR cut.
  • (b) FII flows depend on broader factors, not just SLR.
  • (d) Wrong — SLR cut INCREASES liquidity (not reduces).

Extreme-Word Rule — (a) 'drastically' increases GDP and (d) 'drastically reduce liquidity' are both extreme → likely wrong. Positive Term → Positive Consequence — SLR cut (expansionary) → banks lend more, cheaper → option (c) aligns.

Science and Technology Nanotechnology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q23

With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
  2. 2Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2.

  • S1 CORRECT — Nanotechnology enables TARGETED DRUG DELIVERY — nanoparticles (liposomes, dendrimers) can be engineered to deliver drugs specifically to tumour cells, reducing systemic toxicity. Already in clinical use (Doxil).
  • S2 CORRECT — Nanotechnology facilitates GENE THERAPY via nano-vectors (polymeric nanoparticles, gold nanoparticles) that can carry nucleic acids into cells — safer than viral vectors in some applications.

Both are established nanomedicine applications.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — nanotech has unlimited potential in emerging tech; positive/inclusive answer 'both correct' fits the PDF principle. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'targeted drug delivery', 'gene therapy' are positive biomedical applications.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Easy
Q24

In, India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States. Agricultural markets in India are regulated by APMC Acts enacted by STATE GOVERNMENTS (under State List — agriculture being a state subject). APMCs operate mandis where regulated trade of notified agricultural produce takes place. Farmers sell to licensed traders; subject to market fees.

  • (a) Essential Commodities Act regulates hoarding/supply of essential commodities.
  • (c) AGMARK deals with quality grading/certification.
  • (d) Food Products Orders regulate product standards, not markets.

Constitution Qs — 'Agriculture' is a State List subject → state-level Act (APMC) is the logical regulator. Word Association — 'market for agri produce' → mandis → APMC.

Environment Wildlife Conservation Fundamental Easy
Q25

Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Gangetic dolphin. The Gangetic river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared India's NATIONAL AQUATIC ANIMAL by the National Ganga River Basin Authority in 2009 (formally 2010). It is found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems. Critically declining; Schedule I protected; indicator of river ecosystem health.

  • (a) Saltwater crocodile — not aquatic-animal designation.
  • (b) Olive ridley — national reptile? No; not aquatic animal designation.
  • (d) Gharial — not national aquatic animal (though critically endangered).

Word Association — 'national aquatic animal' + 'river' + India → Gangetic dolphin. UPSC Favourite Area — national symbols of India are staple recall.

Modern History Emergence of Swarajists, Socialist Ideas, Revolutionary Activities & Other New Forces Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q26

With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:

  1. 1It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
  2. 2It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
  3. 3It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): None. Congress Socialist Party (CSP, 1934, Jayaprakash Narayan + Acharya Narendra Dev + Minoo Masani) was a socialist faction within INC.

  • S1 WRONG — CSP did NOT advocate boycott of British goods/evasion of taxes as its programme (that was broader INC strategy); CSP was more ideologically focused on economic restructuring.
  • S2 WRONG — CSP, though socialist, did NOT advocate 'dictatorship of the proletariat' (that's the orthodox Communist line). CSP was democratic socialist, opposed Communist tactics.
  • S3 WRONG — CSP OPPOSED separate electorates (they divided the national movement) and favoured joint electorates.

Extreme-Word Rule — 'dictatorship of proletariat' in S2 is an extreme ideological claim, misattributing communism to CSP. Exchange of Options — all three statements misattribute positions of OTHER groups to CSP (INC's boycott, communists' dictatorship, Muslim League's separate electorates).

Indian Polity Parliament Fundamental Medium
Q27

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
  2. 2The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
  3. 3The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 2 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Rajya Sabha has NO POWER to reject or amend a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations which the LS may accept or reject (Art 109). RS must return the Bill in 14 days.
  • S2 CORRECT — Demands for Grants (Art 113) are voted ONLY by the LOK SABHA; RS cannot vote on them.
  • S3 WRONG — RS CAN DISCUSS the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) under Art 112 — it just cannot vote on Demands for Grants or amend/reject Money Bills. Discussion is permitted.

Constitution Qs — Articles 109, 112, 113 precisely define the Money-Bill and budget process. Extreme-Word Rule — S3's 'cannot discuss' is a strong exclusion → suspect → in fact RS CAN discuss.

Modern History Constitutional Developments (1919–1935) Fundamental Medium
Q28

The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments. The Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) introduced DYARCHY in the provinces and clearly DEMARCATED SUBJECTS between central and provincial lists (Central Subjects + Provincial Subjects). This is the signature feature.

  • (a) Wrong — judiciary-legislature separation not the main feature.
  • (c) Wrong — SoS / Viceroy powers existed earlier too.
  • (d) Wrong — (b) is clearly defined.

Word Association — GoI 1919 = DYARCHY + central-provincial subject demarcation → option (b). UPSC Favourite Area — Constitutional evolution (1858-1947) tested repeatedly.

Indian Economy Inflation Applied Medium
Q29

Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): The Labour Bureau. The CPI for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is compiled and released by the LABOUR BUREAU (under Ministry of Labour and Employment), Shimla/Chandigarh. Base year 2016 (earlier 2001). Used for DA calculation of government employees, industrial workers, and wage-linked payments.

  • (a) RBI publishes inflation outlook, not CPI-IW.
  • (b) DEA handles economic affairs more broadly.
  • (d) DoPT is HR management, not statistical publication.

Word Association — 'Industrial Workers' → Labour Bureau (Ministry of Labour). Vulnerable Statements — organisation-publication pairing easily swapped; Labour Bureau is the canonical answer.

Current Affairs Science & Tech CA · Advanced Medium-Difficult
Q30

In the context of modem scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news:

  1. 1It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
  2. 2It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
  3. 3It is buried deep in the ice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3. IceCube Neutrino Observatory at South Pole Station (Antarctica):

  • S1 CORRECT — World's LARGEST NEUTRINO DETECTOR; instruments cover a CUBIC KILOMETRE of Antarctic ice ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — Used to SEARCH FOR DARK MATTER, cosmic neutrinos, and high-energy astrophysical phenomena ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — Detectors (photomultiplier strings) are BURIED DEEP in Antarctic ice (~1.5 to 2.5 km deep) ✓.

All three facts are correct.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — advanced physics detector = inclusive 'all correct' answer aligns with 'evolving tech' framing. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'world's largest', 'search for dark matter' → positive/impressive science framing → all correct.

Indian Economy International Economic Institutions Applied Medium
Q31

The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): World Trade Organization.

  • 'Agreement on Agriculture' (AoA) — a core WTO agreement (since 1995) covering market access, domestic support, export subsidies.
  • 'Agreement on SPS' — WTO agreement on food safety and animal/plant health standards.
  • 'Peace Clause' — WTO Bali Ministerial (2013) temporary arrangement protecting India's food-security public stockholding from penalties despite breaching subsidy caps.

All three are WTO-specific terms.

Word Association — 'Agreement on' + international trade → WTO (direct pairing). UPSC Favourite Area — WTO-related terminology tested repeatedly.

Science and Technology Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Applied Medium
Q32

With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
  2. 2NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other.
  3. 3NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — NFC is a contactless, short-range communication technology using ELECTROMAGNETIC RADIO FIELDS at 13.56 MHz ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — NFC is designed for VERY SHORT range (typically 4 CM or less); NOT 'even a metre' — that's Bluetooth/Wi-Fi range. The short range is a key security feature.
  • S3 CORRECT — NFC supports ENCRYPTION for sensitive data (contactless payments, access control, secure authentication) ✓.

Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'even a metre' contradicts NFC's defining short-range nature. Exchange of Options — S2 swaps NFC's short range with Bluetooth-range — classic property-swap.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Basic Easy
Q33

The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Middle East. Golan Heights is a rocky plateau in the LEVANT / Middle East — captured by Israel from Syria in the 1967 Six-Day War and annexed in 1981 (unrecognised internationally). Continues to be a flashpoint between Israel and Syria; in news for border incidents, peace negotiations, UN resolutions.

  • (a) Central Asia — no connection.
  • (c) SE Asia — no connection.
  • (d) Central Africa — no connection.

Word Association — 'Golan Heights' = Israel-Syria border = Middle East (canonical pairing). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct current-affairs geographical fact.

Indian Economy India's Foreign Exchange and Foreign Trade Fundamental Easy
Q34

Convertibility of rupee implies

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa. Convertibility of a currency means the freedom to convert it into foreign currencies (and vice versa) WITHOUT government restrictions. India has CURRENT ACCOUNT CONVERTIBILITY (since 1994) but PARTIAL CAPITAL ACCOUNT CONVERTIBILITY (gradually liberalised).

  • (a) Wrong — gold-convertibility was a Bretton Woods-era concept, not current.
  • (b) Flexible exchange rates are separate from convertibility.
  • (d) Wrong — not about market creation, but about freedom of conversion.

Word Association — 'convertibility' = free conversion to other currencies (textbook definition). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct economic-definition recall.

Medieval History Early Medieval India: Age of Regional Configurations (c. 600–1200 CE) Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q35

Consider the following Pairs : Medieval Indian Present Region State

#ItemMatch
1ChampakaCentral India
2DurgaraJammu
3KulutaMalabar

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Champaka was in HIMACHAL PRADESH (Chamba region, northwest Himalayas), NOT Central India.
  • S2 CORRECT — Durgara was the ancient kingdom corresponding to modern JAMMU region ✓.
  • S3 WRONG — Kuluta was ancient Kullu valley in HIMACHAL PRADESH, NOT Malabar (which is coastal Kerala).

Ancient / Medieval Terminology — medieval region names are staple UPSC fodder. Exchange of Options — S1 (Central India for Chamba) and S3 (Malabar for Kullu) are classic far-distance swaps.

Geography Drainage System Fundamental Medium
Q36

Consider the following rivers:

  1. 1Vamsadhara
  2. 2Indravati
  3. 3Pranahita
  4. 4Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 2 and 3 only.

  • 1. Vamsadhara — an INDEPENDENT east-flowing river in Odisha/AP (drains directly into Bay of Bengal), NOT a Godavari tributary ✗.
  • 2. Indravati — major tributary of the GODAVARI from Chhattisgarh/Odisha ✓.
  • 3. Pranahita — formed by Wainganga + Wardha confluence, tributary of Godavari (largest) ✓.
  • 4. Pennar — an INDEPENDENT south-flowing river in AP/Karnataka, NOT a Godavari tributary ✗.

Word Association — Godavari tributaries (left bank): Indravati, Pranahita, Sabari (canonical list). Vamsadhara and Pennar are independent peninsular rivers. Odd One Out — Vamsadhara and Pennar both flow to Bay of Bengal independently.

Indian Polity Parliament Fundamental Easy
Q37

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): a simple majority of members present and voting. Article 108 (Joint Sitting) — called when there's disagreement between LS and RS on a Non-Money Bill. Presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. The bill is passed by a SIMPLE MAJORITY of MEMBERS PRESENT AND VOTING in the joint sitting.

  • (b), (c), (d) prescribe higher majorities that don't apply.

Note: Because LS has more members (545) than RS (245), simple majority in joint sitting usually favours LS's position.

Constitution Qs — Article 108 is the direct textual provision on joint-sitting voting. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct constitutional fact.

Geography Natural Vegetation Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q38

Which one of the following regions of Indian has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands uniquely host ALL THREE forest types:

  • MANGROVE forest — along coasts (major mangrove biodiversity).
  • EVERGREEN forest — in the dense tropical rainforest interior (high rainfall >3000 mm).
  • DECIDUOUS forest — in drier leeward patches.

This combination is not found elsewhere in the options (a-c are single-forest ecosystems).

UPSC Favourite Area — Andaman & Nicobar is in the PDF's UPSC-favourite list → tested repeatedly. First Among Equals — islands with all three forest types (broadest ecological diversity) subsume single-ecosystem distractors.

Ancient India The Mahajanapadas Fundamental Medium
Q39

Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

  1. 1Avanti
  2. 2Gandhara
  3. 3Kosala
  4. 4Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 3 and 4 only.

  • 1. Avanti — capital Ujjayini; associated with later Buddhism but NOT directly with the Buddha's own circuit ✗.
  • 2. Gandhara — far NW (Taxila); Buddhism spread there later under Ashoka ✗.
  • 3. Kosala — capital Shravasti; Buddha spent many rain-retreats at Jetavana here ✓.
  • 4. Magadha — capital Rajgir; Bimbisara + Ajatashatru were patrons; Bodh Gaya (enlightenment) is here ✓.

(Note: This question is essentially identical to 2014 Q1 — UPSC sometimes repeats Q structure.)

Word Association — Buddha's geographical circuit = Magadha + Kosala. UPSC Favourite Area — Buddhism is the single most-tested ancient-India topic. Odd One Out — Gandhara (far NW) and Avanti (west) are outside the Buddha's Gangetic circuit.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Fundamental Easy
Q40

Which one the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Montreal Protocol. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (1987) — an international treaty to PHASE OUT production and use of ozone-depleting substances (CFCs, halons, HCFCs). Most successful environmental treaty ever; ozone layer recovering.

  • (a) Bretton Woods — IMF/World Bank framework.
  • (c) Kyoto Protocol — GHG emissions (climate change), NOT ozone.
  • (d) Nagoya Protocol — access + benefit sharing of genetic resources under CBD.

Word Association — 'ozone-depleting substances' → Montreal Protocol (canonical pairing). Exchange of Options — Kyoto (climate) and Nagoya (biodiversity) are commonly confused with Montreal; distinguish carefully.

Medieval History The Mughal Empire Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q41

Consider the following: The arrival of Babur into Indian led to the

  1. 1introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
  2. 2introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s architecture
  3. 3establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region

Select the correct answer using the code give below:

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Gunpowder was introduced to India by the DELHI SULTANATE (13th-14th c, possibly earlier via Arab contact), WELL BEFORE Babur (1526). Babur USED gunpowder effectively at Panipat but did not introduce it.
  • S2 WRONG — True arch and dome construction entered India with the DELHI SULTANATE (Slave Dynasty, Qutb Complex 13th c), not with Babur. Already mature by 1526.
  • S3 CORRECT — Babur founded the TIMURID dynasty in India (as a descendant of Timur); Mughal = Timurid lineage ✓.

Contemporary Names — S1 and S2 misattribute earlier Sultanate-era developments to Babur — classic wrong-contemporary trap. Exchange of Options — setter swaps Sultanate-introductions into Babur's arrival period.

Indian Polity NITI Aayog CA · Basic Easy
Q42

The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Planning Commission. NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on 1 January 2015 by executive resolution of the Government of India to replace the PLANNING COMMISSION (which had been set up in 1950, also by executive resolution).

  • (a) NHRC is a statutory body — not replaced.
  • (b) Finance Commission is constitutional (Art 280) — not replaced.
  • (c) Law Commission is an advisory body — not replaced.

Word Association — 'NITI Aayog' = policy-planning think tank = Planning Commission's successor (direct factual recall). Constitution Qs — FC (Art 280) is constitutional and can't be 'replaced' by executive order → eliminates (b).

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Easy
Q43

What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development. Rio+20 (held June 2012 in Rio de Janeiro) was the UN Conference on Sustainable Development — the 20th anniversary of the 1992 Earth Summit. Outcome document: 'The Future We Want'. Launched the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs, adopted 2015).

  • (b) WTO Ministerials are at different cities.
  • (c) IPCC meets are Assessment Reports/Working Group meets, not Rio+20.
  • (d) CBD CoP are separate.

Word Association — 'Rio' + '+20' (i.e. 2012 = 1992 Earth Summit + 20 years) → UN Conference on Sustainable Development. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'sustainable development' is the positive UN framing → correct option.

Indian Polity Prime Minister Fundamental Medium
Q44

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
  2. 2The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — Article 53: 'The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the PRESIDENT' (NOT the Prime Minister). The President exercises it on aid and advice of the CoM headed by PM (Art 74), but vesting is in the PRESIDENT.
  • S2 WRONG — There is no 'Civil Services Board' chaired by the PM under the Constitution. Civil services administration is under DoPT; PM is not 'ex officio Chairman' of any such board.

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps President with PM — classic Articles 53/74 distinction trap. Vulnerable Statements — S2 invokes a specific post ('ex officio Chairman of Civil Services Board') that doesn't exist → fabricated-institution trap.

Science and Technology Space Technology CA · Basic Easy
Q45

The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): search for the Earth-like planets in outer space. 'Goldilocks Zone' (or Habitable Zone) is the orbital region around a star where a planet's temperature could support LIQUID WATER on its surface — neither too hot (too close, evaporates) nor too cold (too far, freezes). Used by astronomers (Kepler mission, TESS) to identify exoplanets potentially capable of hosting life.

  • (a), (b), (d) misapply the term.

Word Association — 'Goldilocks' (fairy tale, just-right porridge) → 'just-right habitable zone' for Earth-like planets. Science = Futuristic/Evolving — exoplanet search is evolving tech → correct answer aligns with astronomy framing.

Modern History Simon Commission and the Civil Disobedience Movement Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q46

Who of the following organized a March on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): C. Rajagopalachari. While Gandhi marched to Dandi (Gujarat coast) in March-April 1930 to break the Salt Law, C. Rajagopalachari (Rajaji) led a PARALLEL salt march to VEDARANYAM on the TANJORE COAST (Tamil Nadu), April 1930. This was a key south-Indian front of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

  • (a) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai — Swadeshi shipping, earlier period.
  • (c) K. Kamaraj — later Tamil Nadu CM; not the Tanjore salt marcher.
  • (d) Annie Besant — Home Rule era, died 1933, not salt marcher.

Word Association — Tanjore coast + 1930 Salt Law → Rajaji's Vedaranyam March (southern parallel to Dandi). UPSC Favourite Area — regional episodes of the Civil Disobedience Movement tested.

Medieval History Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q47

Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Harihara I. Harihara I (1336, co-founder of the VIJAYANAGARA EMPIRE with brother Bukka I) founded Vijayanagara on the SOUTH BANK of the TUNGABHADRA (a tributary of Krishna). Under the spiritual guidance of sage Vidyaranya, he ruled as the agent of Lord Virupaksha, to whom all the land south of Krishna was said to belong. The 'agent of deity' framework was a legitimacy device for Vijayanagar kings.

  • (a) Amoghavarsha I — Rashtrakuta king.
  • (b) Ballala II — Hoysala king.
  • (d) Prataparudra II — Kakatiya king.

Word Association — 'south bank of tributary of Krishna' (Tungabhadra) + 'agent of deity' → Vijayanagara founding = Harihara I. UPSC Favourite Area — Vijayanagara is in the PDF's UPSC-favourite list → iconic recall.

Modern History Indian National Congress — Foundation and the Moderate Phase Fundamental Medium
Q48

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
  2. 2The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — The FIRST WOMAN President of INC was ANNIE BESANT (Calcutta Session, 1917), NOT Sarojini Naidu. Sarojini Naidu was the FIRST INDIAN WOMAN President (Kanpur Session, 1925).
  • S2 CORRECT — Badruddin Tyabji was the FIRST MUSLIM President of INC (Madras Session, 1887), just 2 years after INC's founding.

Exchange of Options — S1 misattributes the distinction (Besant was first; Naidu was first INDIAN woman) — classic first-vs-first-Indian setter trap. UPSC Favourite Area — INC Presidents' firsts are staple recall.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium
Q49

Which of the statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

  1. 1It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaption and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
  2. 2It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Green Climate Fund (GCF) was established (2010, UNFCCC Cancun COP-16) to ASSIST DEVELOPING COUNTRIES in climate adaptation and mitigation — the specific mandate of GCF ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — GCF was founded under the UNFCCC (NOT UNEP/OECD/ADB/World Bank). It is the operating entity of the financial mechanism of UNFCCC, alongside GEF.

Vulnerable Statements — S2 makes a specific institutional-founding claim (UNEP/OECD/ADB/WB) which is verifiable as wrong; founding is under UNFCCC. Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1's 'assist developing countries in climate change' aligns with the fund's positive/empowering purpose → correct.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Basic Easy
Q50

Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the following?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Indian Space Research Organization. The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was awarded to ISRO for its remarkable achievements in space science and technology — especially the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) in Sept 2014, making India the first country to reach Mars on a first attempt.

  • (a) BARC, (b) IISc, (d) TIFR — all other premier scientific institutions, but not the 2014 awardee.

Word Association — 2014 = Year of Mangalyaan = ISRO achievement. Contemporary Names — recent prize awardees are direct current-affairs recall.

Modern History Nationalist Response in the Wake of World War II Fundamental Medium
Q51

With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It recommended a federal government.
  2. 2It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
  3. 3It provided for more Indians in the ICS.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only. The Cabinet Mission (1946, Pethick-Lawrence + Cripps + Alexander) proposed a framework for India's independence.

  • S1 CORRECT — recommended a FEDERAL STRUCTURE with a weak Centre (handling defence, foreign affairs, communications) and strong provinces grouped in three sections ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Cabinet Mission did not concern itself with enlarging powers of Indian courts.
  • S3 WRONG — Cabinet Mission did not specifically address ICS representation.

Word Association — Cabinet Mission 1946 = federal structure + Constituent Assembly (canonical features). Odd One Out — S2 (courts) and S3 (ICS) are not topics the Cabinet Mission focused on.

Environment Protected Area Network Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q52

Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Namdapha National Park. Namdapha NP (Arunachal Pradesh, Changlang district) spans ~200-4500 m altitude — from TROPICAL FORESTS at foothills through SUBTROPICAL and TEMPERATE to ALPINE zones. It is India's only park with TROPICAL to ARCTIC climate gradient.

  • (a) Khangchendzonga (Sikkim) — high altitude, subtropical to alpine, but not tropical at base.
  • (b) Nandadevi (Uttarakhand) — alpine/glacial, no tropical component.
  • (c) Neora Valley (WB) — subtropical to temperate.

First Among Equals — Namdapha covers the broadest altitudinal range (tropical to arctic) — the most comprehensive option. UPSC Favourite Area — unique ecological features of Indian NPs.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News Fundamental Easy
Q53

Amnesty International is

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): a global Human Rights Movement. Amnesty International (founded 1961, London, by Peter Benenson) is a global HUMAN RIGHTS movement — campaigning against torture, death penalty, unjust imprisonment; researching and exposing abuses. Won Nobel Peace Prize 1977.

  • (a) Wrong — UNHCR handles refugees, not Amnesty.
  • (c) Wrong — not exclusively poverty-focused.
  • (d) Wrong — not a medical body (that's MSF/Red Cross).

Word Association — Amnesty International → human rights (canonical identity). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'global human rights movement' is the positive empowerment framing → correct.

Art and Culture Indian Sculpture and Pottery Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q54

With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli. Chronological order of these monuments:

  • Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli (Odisha) — MAURYAN, c. 250 BCE (Ashokan period; near Dhauli rock edict) ✓ — EARLIEST.
  • Varaha Image at Udayagiri — GUPTA, c. 4th-5th c CE.
  • Rock-cut Monuments at Mamallapuram — PALLAVA, 7th c CE.
  • Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar — KALINGA/SOMAVAMSHI, 11th c CE — LATEST.

Word Association — Mauryan (Ashokan) monuments are the earliest stone sculptures in Indian art; Dhauli elephant is iconic. Ancient / Medieval Terminology — chronological ordering of monuments is a standard UPSC skill.

Medieval History Society, Economy & Culture in Medieval India Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q55

With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of the feudal system?

  1. 1A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority
  2. 2Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land
  3. 3Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Feudalism is precisely characterised by WEAK CENTRAL AUTHORITY and DECENTRALISED political power at local/provincial levels; the opposite of strong centre + weak provinces ✗.
  • S2 CORRECT — Feudal administration was BASED ON LAND CONTROL AND POSSESSION — land grants (ksetra, bhumichhidra) to officials/brahmanas/vassals ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — Lord-vassal relationship (overlord gives land/rights; vassal owes military service and loyalty) is the defining feature of feudal system ✓.

Exchange of Options — S1 inverts the feudal structure (strong centre would be imperial, not feudal). Word Association — feudalism = lord-vassal + land-based + decentralised (classical definition).

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium-Difficult
Q56

‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): World Bank. 'BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes' (BioCarbon Fund ISFL) is a multilateral fund managed by the WORLD BANK (since 2013) that supports programs in developing countries to reduce GHG emissions from LAND USE, especially deforestation and degradation (REDD+). Funded by Norway, UK, USA, Germany.

Word Association — 'BioCarbon Fund' + 'sustainable forest landscapes' → World Bank-managed multilateral fund. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — international funds managed by World Bank align with global-cooperation positive framing.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News CA · Advanced Medium
Q57

India is a member of which among the following?

  1. 1Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
  2. 2Association of South-East Asian Nations
  3. 3East Asia Summit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 3 only.

  • 1. APEC — Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (21 member economies); India is NOT a member, though has applied for observer status ✗.
  • 2. ASEAN — Association of South-East Asian Nations (10 members: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam); India is NOT a member, but is a DIALOGUE PARTNER ✗.
  • 3. East Asia Summit — India IS a founding member since inception in 2005 ✓.

Word Association — EAS (founded 2005) includes India from start; ASEAN and APEC don't. Odd One Out — India is in EAS only (membership vs. dialogue partnership is a key distinction).

Indian Economy Indian Industry Fundamental Medium
Q58

In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): coking coal. Coking coal (metallurgical coal, low-ash, high-calorific) is essential for blast-furnace steelmaking. India has domestic coking coal reserves (Jharkhand's Jharia) but of POOR QUALITY (high ash); hence India IMPORTS coking coal from Australia, USA, Canada to meet the steel industry's needs (~85% of coking coal requirement is imported).

  • (a) Saltpetre — explosives/fertilizer, not steelmaking.
  • (b) Rock phosphate — fertilizer industry, not steel.
  • (d) Wrong — only coking coal is imported for steel.

Word Association — Indian steel industry's Achilles heel = coking coal import dependence (canonical fact). Odd One Out — (a) and (b) are clearly unrelated to steel.

Indian Polity Scheduled and Tribal Areas Fundamental Easy
Q59

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

  • FIFTH SCHEDULE — administration and control of SCHEDULED AREAS and SCHEDULED TRIBES in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram (covers parts of Andhra, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, HP, Jharkhand, MP, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Telangana).
  • SIXTH SCHEDULE — administration of tribal areas in the FOUR NORTH-EASTERN states (Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram) through AUTONOMOUS DISTRICT COUNCILS.

Both schedules are explicitly designed to protect tribal interests.

Constitution Qs — 5th and 6th Schedules = tribal autonomy/protection (textbook constitutional knowledge). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'protect tribal interests' aligns with positive-empowerment framing → correct valence.

Indian Polity Parliament Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q60

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
  2. 2No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
  3. 3All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — The Union Budget is prepared by the DEPARTMENT OF ECONOMIC AFFAIRS (DEA), Ministry of Finance — NOT the Department of Revenue. Dept of Revenue handles CBDT + CBIC (tax administration).
  • S2 CORRECT — Article 266(3): 'No money out of the Consolidated Fund of India shall be appropriated except in accordance with law' — Parliament's authorisation is mandatory ✓.
  • S3 WRONG — PUBLIC ACCOUNT does NOT need Parliamentary authorisation for every disbursement (it holds trust monies — provident funds, small savings, deposits — disbursed per the depositor's claim).

Constitution Qs — Articles 266, 112, 114 define the exact fund-structure. Exchange of Options — S1 swaps DEA (Budget-preparer) with Dept of Revenue (tax administrator). Vulnerable Statements — specific department names in S1 and absolute claim in S3 signal setter manipulation.

Indian Polity Supreme Court Fundamental Easy
Q61

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): The Supreme Court of India. The Supreme Court of India is the CUSTODIAN AND FINAL INTERPRETER of the Constitution. Through judicial review (Art 13, 32, 226), the SC strikes down unconstitutional laws and protects fundamental rights.

  • (a) President takes an oath under Art 60 'to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution' — but is not the judicial 'custodian'.
  • (b), (c) — PM and LS Secretariat do not have judicial review powers.

Constitution Qs — 'custodian/guardian of Constitution' = Supreme Court (judicial review doctrine). Word Association — 'interpretation/protection of Constitution' → SC is the canonical answer.

Indian Economy Irrigation in India Applied Medium-Difficult
Q62

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
  2. 2The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP, 1996-97) provides CENTRAL LOAN ASSISTANCE TO STATES for completing LARGE/MEDIUM IRRIGATION PROJECTS — NOT 'loan assistance to poor farmers'. The setter has swapped the beneficiary.
  • S2 CORRECT — Command Area Development Programme (CADP, 1974-75) focused on improving WATER-USE EFFICIENCY in canal-irrigation commands (field channels, land levelling, water-management training) ✓.

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps AIBP's beneficiary from 'states completing irrigation projects' to 'poor farmers' — classic setter swap. Vulnerable Statements — specific scheme-beneficiary claims are easy to manipulate.

Environment National Environmental Legislations Applied Medium
Q63

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is India's apex regulator for GMOs — reviews applications for environmental release of genetically modified organisms (GM crops, therapeutics). Constituted under RULES FRAMED UNDER THE ENVIRONMENT (PROTECTION) ACT, 1986 — specifically the 1989 Rules on 'Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro-organisms and Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells'.

  • (a) FSS Act 2006 — covers food safety, not GMO regulatory clearance.
  • (b) GI Act 1999 — intellectual property on geographical indications.
  • (d) WPA 1972 — wildlife.

Word Association — GMO regulation in India → EPA 1986 + 1989 Rules (canonical statutory framework). Vulnerable Statements — specific Act-name attribution is easy to swap among plausible environmental/food laws.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics CA · Advanced Medium
Q64

In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants

  1. 1Bangladesh
  2. 2Cambodia
  3. 3China
  4. 4Myanmar
  5. 5Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3. Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC, est. 2000) is a six-nation initiative: INDIA, THAILAND, MYANMAR, CAMBODIA, LAOS, VIETNAM (not Bangladesh, not China). Among the list:

  • 1. Bangladesh — NOT a participant ✓ (this IS one of the not-participants).
  • 2. Cambodia — IS a member.
  • 3. China — NOT a participant ✓ (this IS one of the not-participants).
  • 4. Myanmar — IS a member.
  • 5. Thailand — IS a member.

So not-participants = 1 and 3.

Word Association — MGC = India + 5 Mekong-basin SE Asian nations (Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam) — canonical membership. Odd One Out — Bangladesh (S. Asia) and China (East Asia) are geographically outside the Mekong-Ganga corridor.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Applied Medium
Q65

‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): improve banking sector's ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management. Basel III (2010, post-2008 Global Financial Crisis) is a global regulatory framework issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision — strengthens bank CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS (higher Tier-1, Counter-Cyclical Buffer), introduces LIQUIDITY standards (LCR, NSFR), LEVERAGE RATIO. Aim: make banks more resilient, improve risk management.

  • (a) CBD focus.
  • (c) Kyoto/Paris focus.
  • (d) Montreal Protocol focus.

Word Association — 'Basel III' → Banking Supervision → capital adequacy / risk management (direct pairing). Odd One Out — (a), (c), (d) describe environmental/climate treaties unrelated to banking.

Geography Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Fundamental Medium
Q66

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes through-out the year are known as westerlies.
  2. 2The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Westerlies blow between 30°-60° in BOTH hemispheres (N and S). Statement says '30°N and 60°S' which is a mixed range — an unusual/confusing framing that doesn't accurately describe the westerly latitudinal belt.
  • S2 CORRECT — Western disturbances (moist westerly air masses from the Mediterranean/Caspian region) DO bring WINTER RAINS to North-Western India (Punjab, Haryana, HP, J&K) — helpful for rabi crops ✓.

Vulnerable Statements — S1's specific latitude band (30°N-60°S) is a concrete data claim — easy to verify and manipulate. Word Association — western disturbances + winter rain in NW India = westerly phenomenon ✓.

Current Affairs Institutions / Groupings in News Applied Medium-Difficult
Q67

With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements :

  1. 1It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
  2. 2It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — IOR-ARC was established in 1997 (not 'very recently'), for broad economic cooperation across the Indian Ocean Rim. It long predates recent piracy/oil-spill issues.
  • S2 WRONG — IOR-ARC is NOT exclusively for maritime security; it covers TRADE, INVESTMENT, FISHERIES, DISASTER MANAGEMENT, SCIENCE & TECH, TOURISM, etc. Now rebranded IORA (Indian Ocean Rim Association), 23 member states.

Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'very recently' and S2's 'maritime security ONLY' are both narrow/absolute claims — classic setter error. Exchange of Options — S2 reduces IORA's broad economic mandate to a narrow security focus.

Modern History Era of Militant Nationalism (1905–1909) Fundamental Easy
Q68

Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Swadeshi Movement. The Swadeshi Movement (1905 onwards, in response to Curzon's partition of Bengal) caused the MODERATE-EXTREMIST SPLIT in INC. At the SURAT SESSION 1907, the Congress split openly: Moderates (Gokhale, Pherozshah Mehta, Naoroji) wanted petitions + loyal cooperation; Extremists (Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal — 'Lal-Bal-Pal') demanded Swaraj through direct action + boycott.

  • (b) QIM 1942 — much later.
  • (c) NCM 1920 — after reunification.
  • (d) CDM 1930 — post-split era.

Word Association — 'Moderates vs Extremists' + 1907 Surat Split → Swadeshi Movement era (canonical textbook fact). Contemporary Names — Swadeshi (1905-1911) is the contemporary of the 1907 split.

Art and Culture Tribal Culture in India Fundamental Easy
Q69

In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Meghalaya. 'Living root bridges' (jing kieng jri) are made by KHASI and JAINTIA tribes in the CHERRAPUNJI / SOHRA / MAWLYNNONG area of MEGHALAYA. Roots of Ficus elastica (rubber fig) are trained across streams over years; the living roots thicken and form robust organic bridges that get STRONGER WITH TIME. Some bridges are 100+ years old.

  • (b), (c), (d) — no such tradition in HP, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu.

Word Association — 'living root bridges' + tribal craftsmanship → Meghalaya (Khasi/Jaintia tradition). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'bridges become stronger with time' reflects sustainability/empowerment → Meghalaya's iconic fact.

Geography Movements of Ocean Water Fundamental Medium
Q70

Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?

  1. 1Gravitational force of the Sun
  2. 2Gravitational force of the Moon
  3. 3Centrifugal force of the Earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3.

  • S1 CORRECT — Sun's gravitational pull contributes to tides (Sun-Moon combined = spring tides; Sun-Moon opposing = neap tides) ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — Moon's gravitational pull is the PRIMARY tide-generating force (~2.2× Sun's tidal effect, due to proximity) ✓.
  • S3 CORRECT — Centrifugal force due to Earth-Moon barycentre rotation creates the counter-bulge on the far side of Earth (the second high-tide) ✓.

All three forces jointly produce tides.

First Among Equals — tides result from multiple forces acting together; all-inclusive answer is correct. Hard to Verify / Disprove — well-established celestial mechanics; hard to rule out any factor.

Science and Technology Space Technology Applied Medium
Q71

In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?

  1. 1Assessment of crop productivity
  2. 2Locating groundwater resources
  3. 3Mineral exploration
  4. 4Telecommunications
  5. 5Traffic studies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1, 2 and 3 only. Indian Remote Sensing satellites (IRS series) are EARTH-OBSERVATION satellites — their applications:

  • 1. Crop productivity assessment (via NDVI, multispectral imagery) ✓
  • 2. Groundwater resource mapping (via hydrogeomorphological data, Bhuvan) ✓
  • 3. Mineral exploration (via hyperspectral imagery, geological mapping) ✓
  • 4. TELECOMMUNICATIONS ✗ — done by COMMUNICATION satellites (INSAT/GSAT series), NOT IRS.
  • 5. Traffic studies ✗ — not a standard IRS application; usually done with high-resolution commercial satellites.

Exchange of Options — S4 (telecom) belongs to INSAT series, swapped into IRS — classic satellite-category swap. Word Association — IRS = remote sensing = Earth-observation applications; INSAT = communication.

Geography Natural Vegetation Fundamental Medium
Q72

Consider the following States

  1. 1Arunachal Pradesh
  2. 2Himachal Pradesh
  3. 3Mizoram In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?
Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • 1. Arunachal Pradesh — has Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests ✓ (high rainfall, tropical rainforests along foothills of Eastern Himalayas; Namdapha NP).
  • 2. Himachal Pradesh — has TEMPERATE and SUB-ALPINE forests (deodar, oak, fir), NOT tropical wet evergreen (altitude and rainfall regimes don't support it) ✗.
  • 3. Mizoram — has Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests ✓ (high rainfall, NE tropical zone).

Word Association — Tropical Wet Evergreen = high rainfall (>200 cm) + warm tropical temperature → NE India + Western Ghats. Odd One Out — Himachal Pradesh (Himalayan temperate) stands apart from NE tropical belts.

Science and Technology Achievements of India in Science and Technology CA · Advanced Medium
Q73

The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): India's underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region. 'IndARC' is India's first UNDERWATER MOORED OBSERVATORY in the ARCTIC — deployed 2014 in Kongsfjorden, Svalbard (Norway). Measures seawater temperature, salinity, currents etc. Operated by NCPOR (National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research, Goa). Supports India's Arctic climate research.

  • (a) Wrong — not a radar system.
  • (b) Wrong — not a satellite.
  • (c) Wrong — Arctic, not Antarctic (India's Antarctic bases are Maitri, Bharati).

Word Association — 'IndARC' literally encodes IND + ARC(tic) = India's Arctic observatory. Contemporary Names — recent scientific installations are current-affairs recall.

Environment International Environmental Conventions, NGOs and Laws Applied Medium-Difficult
Q74

With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
  2. 2It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
  3. 3It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF, World Bank, 2008) is a GLOBAL PARTNERSHIP of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — FCPF does NOT primarily fund 'universities/individual scientists' for technology development. It funds GOVERNMENT-led REDD+ readiness and results-based programs.
  • S3 CORRECT — FCPF's CORE PURPOSE is assisting countries with REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) through financial/technical assistance ✓.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — S1 and S3 use conservation/partnership/inclusion language → correct. Exchange of Options — S2 substitutes 'universities/individual scientists' for the actual 'national governments' focus — classic setter swap.

Art and Culture Languages in India CA · Basic Easy
Q75

Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Odia. Classical Language status was granted to ODIA in February 2014 — making it the 6th Indian classical language. Timeline: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014).

  • (b) Konkani — Schedule VIII language, NOT classical.
  • (c) Bhojpuri — not in Schedule VIII; not classical.
  • (d) Assamese — Schedule VIII language, but NOT classical as of 2015. (Note: Assamese, Bangla, Marathi, Pali, Prakrit were added in October 2024, but that's after the 2015 exam.)

Word Association — 'recently classical language' (2015 context) → Odia (granted Feb 2014). Contemporary Names — recent recognition actions are direct current-affairs recall.

Environment Biodiversity Conservation Applied Medium-Difficult
Q76

With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
  2. 2The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization
  3. 3It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT — BirdLife International is a GLOBAL PARTNERSHIP of over 115 conservation NGOs worldwide, working in every country ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — The 'biodiversity hotspots' concept was originated by NORMAN MYERS (British ecologist) in 1988, later institutionalised by CONSERVATION INTERNATIONAL (CI) — NOT BirdLife International.
  • S3 CORRECT — BirdLife identifies 'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas' (IBAs) — a global inventory of key sites for bird conservation ✓.

Vulnerable Statements — S2 attributes a specific concept to a specific organisation — easy to swap (Conservation International → BirdLife). Word Association — 'hotspots' → Myers + Conservation International (canonical attribution).

Geography Mapping (World) Fundamental Medium
Q77

Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Jordan. Among the four SW Asian countries:

  • Syria ✓ opens to the Mediterranean (Latakia coast).
  • Jordan ✗ — LANDLOCKED in the Mediterranean sense; its only coastline is the GULF OF AQABA (Red Sea, via Aqaba port). It does NOT touch the Mediterranean.
  • Lebanon ✓ opens to Mediterranean (entire western coast).
  • Israel ✓ opens to Mediterranean (from Gaza to Haifa/north).

Word Association — Jordan's only sea access = Gulf of Aqaba (Red Sea), NOT Mediterranean (canonical geography fact). Odd One Out — among the four, only Jordan lacks a Mediterranean coastline.

Geography Natural Vegetation Fundamental Easy
Q78

In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Tropical moist deciduous forest. Teak (Tectona grandis) is the DOMINANT tree species of India's TROPICAL MOIST DECIDUOUS FORESTS — found in central India (MP, Maharashtra), Western Ghats foothills, and parts of Jharkhand/Odisha. Annual rainfall 100-200 cm, distinct dry season (leaves shed).

  • (b) Tropical rainforest — evergreen; dominated by dipterocarps, not teak.
  • (c) Tropical thorn scrub — arid; dominated by acacias.
  • (d) Temperate forest — oak, pine, deodar — not teak.

Word Association — teak → tropical moist deciduous → central India (canonical pairing). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct biogeography fact.

Current Affairs Social Justice Applied Medium
Q79

‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’, often seen in the news, is

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): an agenda for women's empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations. The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action was the outcome of the FOURTH WORLD CONFERENCE ON WOMEN (Beijing, 1995), convened by the UN. It is a landmark global policy framework for GENDER EQUALITY and WOMEN'S EMPOWERMENT — covering 12 critical areas (poverty, education, health, violence, economic rights, decision-making, etc.).

  • (a), (b), (d) misattribute the document to SCO, APEC, EAS contexts.

Word Association — 'Beijing Platform' + 'for Action' → Women's rights/gender equality. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'women's empowerment' is the canonical positive-empowerment framing → correct valence.

Geography World Climate and Climate Change Fundamental Medium
Q80

“Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.” Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Equatorial. Description: morning clear with sea breeze; noon heat; afternoon convectional rain with thunder/lightning; rain soon over. This is the CLASSIC DAILY WEATHER PATTERN of EQUATORIAL CLIMATE (Af, rainforest climate): uniform high temperatures, high humidity, convectional (afternoon) rainfall daily. Called '4 O'CLOCK RAINS' in Singapore, Amazon basin, Congo basin.

  • (a) Savannah — distinct wet/dry seasons, not daily convectional.
  • (c) Monsoon — seasonal rains, not daily.
  • (d) Mediterranean — dry summers, wet winters.

Word Association — 'daily convectional afternoon rain' + 'sea breeze' + 'uniform pattern' → equatorial climate (textbook description). Odd One Out — only equatorial has daily afternoon convectional rain.

Indian Economy National Income Fundamental Medium
Q81

With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:

  1. 1The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. 2The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG — Real GDP growth rate has NOT 'STEADILY increased' in the last decade; it has FLUCTUATED — dipped sharply in 2012-13, recovered thereafter, with year-on-year variation. Trend-word 'steadily' is the giveaway.
  • S2 CORRECT — Nominal GDP at market prices (in rupees) has generally INCREASED year-on-year in the last decade (positive growth + inflation compounding means nominal rupee GDP rises steadily) ✓.

Trend-Word Rule — S1 uses 'steadily increased' — a textbook trap word from the PDF; year-on-year absolute trends almost always wrong for volatile measures like real GDP growth rate. Word Association — nominal GDP in rupees (compounds inflation) does generally rise; real GDP growth rate doesn't.

Indian Polity State Legislature Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q82

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
  2. 2The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2.

  • S1 WRONG — Article 171(1): the total membership of a State Legislative Council shall NOT EXCEED ONE-THIRD of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly. So LC can be AT MOST 1/3 of LA — NOT 'larger than half'.
  • S2 WRONG — The Chairman of the Legislative Council is ELECTED by the members of the Council from among themselves (Art 182) — NOT nominated by the Governor.

Extreme-Word Rule — S1 'larger in size than half' is a concrete numerical overstatement → wrong (actual cap is 1/3). Constitution Qs — Articles 171, 182 precisely define LC composition and chairman selection.

Indian Polity Fundamental Duties Fundamental Easy
Q83

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Fundamental Duties. Article 51A(c) — Fundamental Duties: 'It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to UPHOLD AND PROTECT THE SOVEREIGNTY, UNITY AND INTEGRITY of India.' Added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment (1976) on Swaran Singh Committee's recommendation.

  • (a) Preamble — speaks of unity & integrity but in declaratory form, not as a provision.
  • (b) DPSP — different subjects (socio-economic).
  • (c) FR — rights, not duties.

Constitution Qs — exact Fundamental Duty language (Art 51A(c)) is a direct textual match. Word Association — 'duty' → Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A).

Environment Environment, Habitat and Ecosystem Fundamental Easy
Q84

Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live. ECOSYSTEM = biotic community (organisms) + abiotic environment (physical/chemical factors) + their interactions. Term coined by A.G. Tansley (1935).

  • (a) describes COMMUNITY (only biotic component).
  • (b) describes BIOSPHERE (entire Earth's living zone).
  • (d) describes just flora/fauna (biota, not ecosystem).

The key word is 'TOGETHER WITH ENVIRONMENT' — biotic + abiotic.

First Among Equals — option (c) subsumes (a) (organisms) + adds environment → broader and complete. Word Association — 'ecosystem' = biotic + abiotic = community + environment (textbook definition).

Indian Polity Panchayati Raj Fundamental Easy
Q85

The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

  1. 1People’s participation in development
  2. 2Political accountability
  3. 3Democratic decentralization
  4. 4Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only. Panchayati Raj System (73rd Amendment, 1992) core objectives:

  • 1. People's participation in development ✓ — Gram Sabha as grassroots assembly; participatory planning.
  • 2. 'Political accountability' ✗ — accountability is a feature, but not the FUNDAMENTAL OBJECT of PRI. PRI is about governance at grassroots, not political accountability alone.
  • 3. Democratic decentralisation ✓ — core purpose of transferring power downwards.
  • 4. 'Financial mobilisation' ✗ — PRI provides financial devolution downwards, but mobilisation is not the FUNDAMENTAL object — PRI is about governance + participation.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'people's participation', 'democratic decentralisation' = canonical empowerment keywords from the PDF → correct. Odd One Out — S2 (political accountability) and S4 (financial mobilisation) are instrumental, not fundamental to PRI.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Fundamental Medium
Q86

With reference to Indian economy, consider the following:

  1. 1Bank rate
  2. 2Open market operations
  3. 3Public debt
  4. 4Public revenue

Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 2. MONETARY POLICY (RBI's domain) instruments:

  • 1. Bank Rate ✓ — RBI's standing-facility rate → monetary tool.
  • 2. Open Market Operations ✓ — RBI's buy/sell of G-secs to manage liquidity → core monetary tool.
  • 3. Public Debt ✗ — FISCAL policy instrument (government borrowing).
  • 4. Public Revenue ✗ — FISCAL policy instrument (taxation).

Fiscal vs monetary distinction is essential.

Word Association — 'monetary policy' = RBI tools (rates, OMO, CRR, SLR); public debt + revenue = FISCAL (government/MoF). Exchange of Options — S3 and S4 swap fiscal instruments into monetary list — classic setter domain-swap.

Indian Economy Inflation Fundamental Medium
Q87

With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation. Basic monetary theory: higher money supply → more demand → inflation rises. Conversely, DECREASED money circulation (contractionary monetary policy: higher rates, higher CRR/SLR, OMO sell) reduces demand and CONTROLS inflation.

  • (a) Wrong — RBI (not just govt) plays a key role via monetary policy.
  • (b) Wrong — RBI has a primary role in inflation control (especially post-2016 inflation-targeting framework).
  • (d) Wrong — INCREASED money supply FUELS inflation, doesn't control it.

Negative Term → Negative Consequence / Positive Term → Positive Consequence — 'decrease money' (contraction) → controls inflation. Extreme-Word Rule — (a) 'government only' and (b) 'no role' are absolute exclusions → wrong.

Current Affairs International Relations & Geopolitics Applied Medium
Q88

Consider the following countries:

  1. 1China
  2. 2France
  3. 3India
  4. 4Israel
  5. 5Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2 only. NPT RECOGNISED NUCLEAR WEAPON STATES (NWS) are the 5 permanent UN Security Council members: USA, Russia, UK, FRANCE, CHINA — who had tested nuclear weapons before 1 Jan 1967. Any later acquirer is not 'recognised' under NPT.

  • 1. China ✓ — NPT-recognised NWS.
  • 2. France ✓ — NPT-recognised NWS.
  • 3. India ✗ — possesses nuclear weapons but NOT NPT-recognised; India is not a party to NPT.
  • 4. Israel ✗ — presumed nuclear capability but not a party to NPT.
  • 5. Pakistan ✗ — not a party to NPT; not recognised.

Word Association — NPT-recognised = 5 UNSC Permanent Members (pre-1967 testers). UPSC Favourite Area — NPT, CTBT, NSG are frequent UPSC topics.

Indian Polity Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Easy
Q89

The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Directive Principles of State Policy. The WELFARE STATE ideal is enshrined in the DPSPs (Part IV, Articles 36-51): state to promote welfare by securing social, economic, political justice; minimise inequalities (Art 38); ensure adequate means of livelihood (Art 39); living wage, decent standard of life (Art 43); right to education, health (Arts 41, 42, 47). DPSPs are the ROADMAP to the welfare state.

  • (a) Preamble mentions justice/equality/liberty but DPSPs operationalise the welfare-state vision.

Constitution Qs — 'Welfare State' = Part IV DPSPs (canonical constitutional pairing). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'welfare', 'socio-economic justice', 'livelihood' → DPSP's empowerment vocabulary.

Indian Economy Economic Growth versus Economic Development Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q90

The Substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): capital-augmenting technological progress. Replacing wooden ploughs with steel ploughs AUGMENTS the CAPITAL (plough) with better technology — the tool becomes more productive per unit of capital. This is CAPITAL-AUGMENTING technical progress (Hicks-neutral vs Harrod-neutral taxonomy).

  • (a) Labour-augmenting = better skills/training making workers more productive.
  • (c) Capital-reducing = less capital needed for same output (unlikely here; more capital, better capital).
  • (d) Wrong — (b) fits.

Word Association — 'substitution of tool with better tool' → capital-improving → capital-AUGMENTING. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct economic-theory recall.

Indian Polity Parliamentary System Fundamental Easy
Q91

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha. The DEFINING feature of PARLIAMENTARY GOVERNMENT is COLLECTIVE RESPONSIBILITY of the Council of Ministers to the POPULAR HOUSE (Lok Sabha) — Art 75(3). This means the CoM stays in power only as long as it commands the confidence of LS; loss of confidence → CoM must resign or LS dissolved.

  • (a) Direct election of LS is also a feature, but not the DEFINING feature (presidential systems also directly elect legislatures).
  • (b) Amendment power is constitutional, not parliamentary-specific.
  • (c) RS non-dissolution doesn't define parliamentary system.

Constitution Qs — Art 75(3) collective responsibility = hallmark of parliamentary system (textbook). First Among Equals — option (d) is the defining, not incidental, feature.

Science and Technology Health and Medical Technology CA · Basic Easy
Q92

HINI virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Swine flu. H1N1 virus is the agent of SWINE FLU (Swine Influenza A) — caused the 2009 H1N1 pandemic (~18,000+ deaths worldwide). Also causes seasonal flu outbreaks.

  • (a) AIDS — caused by HIV virus.
  • (b) Bird flu — H5N1 virus, not H1N1.
  • (c) Dengue — caused by Flavivirus (mosquito-borne), not influenza.

Word Association — H1N1 → swine flu → 2009 pandemic (canonical pairing). Exchange of Options — H5N1 (bird flu) commonly confused with H1N1 (swine flu); distinguish carefully.

Science and Technology Achievements of India in Science and Technology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q93

With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:

  1. 1The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculums.
  2. 2Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Neither 1 nor 2. Indian Railways' bio-toilets (developed with DRDO):

  • S1 WRONG — Decomposition is initiated by a BACTERIAL INOCULUM (anaerobic bacteria consortium), NOT FUNGAL. Anaerobic bacteria break down human waste.
  • S2 WRONG — End products are METHANE, CO2, and WATER — NOT 'ammonia and water vapour only'. The bacterial digestion produces gases + water. 'Only ammonia + water vapour' is factually wrong.

Exchange of Options — S1 swaps bacterial (correct) with fungal (wrong) inoculum — classic biology-swap. Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'only' on end products is an absolute claim → wrong.

Indian Economy International Economic Institutions Fundamental Medium
Q94

The problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): dollars and other hard currencies. INTERNATIONAL LIQUIDITY refers to the availability of international reserve currencies (HARD CURRENCIES — USD, EUR, GBP, JPY, CHF, plus gold and SDRs) available to settle international transactions. A country with low forex reserves suffers an 'international liquidity' crisis (cannot import, cannot service debt).

  • (a) Goods/services — that's supply, not liquidity.
  • (b) Gold/silver — gold is part but silver isn't a liquidity asset today.
  • (d) Exportable surplus — is a cause, not the definition of liquidity.

Word Association — 'international liquidity' → hard currencies / reserve assets (canonical definition). First Among Equals — (c) 'dollars and other hard currencies' is the broader, correct definition.

Science and Technology Energy Technology Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q95

With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements:

  1. 1If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by products.
  2. 2Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers
  3. 3Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only. Fuel cell fundamentals:

  • S1 CORRECT — When PURE HYDROGEN is the fuel, the electrochemical reaction with O2 produces ONLY HEAT + WATER as by-products (zero carbon emissions) ✓.
  • S2 WRONG — Fuel cells CAN be used for SMALL DEVICES too (laptops, mobile phones — Direct Methanol Fuel Cells); they are not limited to large-scale applications.
  • S3 WRONG — Fuel cells produce DC (direct current), NOT AC. An inverter is needed to convert DC to AC.

Extreme-Word Rule — S2's 'can be used for buildings AND NOT for small devices' is an absolute exclusion → suspect. Exchange of Options — S3 swaps DC (actual) with AC (wrong).

Art and Culture Indian Paintings Fundamental Easy
Q96

Kalamkari painting refers to

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. Kalamkari ('kalam'=pen + 'kari'=work) is a traditional art of HAND-PAINTING (using natural dyes on a tamarind-twig pen) on COTTON TEXTILE. Two styles: SRIKALAHASTI (AP) — pure hand-painted; MACHILIPATNAM (AP) — block-printing. Both are from ANDHRA PRADESH (South India).

  • (b), (c), (d) misplace the craft to NE, Himalayan, NW India.

Word Association — Kalamkari → cotton + hand-painting + South India (canonical craft pairing). UPSC Favourite Area — Indian traditional crafts + GI tagged items tested repeatedly.

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium
Q97

Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost. 'Seed Village Concept' (implemented under National Food Security Mission, NFSM) — identifies villages where FARMERS ARE TRAINED in seed-production techniques; certified quality seeds are produced by these farmers themselves and made available locally to other farmers at reasonable cost. Enhances SEED REPLACEMENT RATE and farmer capacity.

  • (a) Wrong — not anti-external-seeds; it's pro-local production.
  • (c) Wrong — not exclusive certified production villages.
  • (d) Wrong — not entrepreneur/company focus; farmer-training focus.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'involving farmers', 'training', 'affordable cost', 'quality seeds to others' = multiple empowerment keywords → correct. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — scheme framed positively.

Indian Economy Public Finance Fundamental Medium
Q98

There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?

  1. 1Reducing revenue expenditure
  2. 2Introducing new welfare schemes
  3. 3Rationalizing subsidies
  4. 4Expanding industries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 3 only. Deficit-reducing measures:

  • 1. Reducing revenue expenditure ✓ — direct reduction of spending cuts deficit.
  • 2. Introducing NEW welfare schemes ✗ — this INCREASES spending, which WIDENS deficit, not reduces it.
  • 3. Rationalising subsidies ✓ — cutting/targeting subsidies reduces expenditure → reduces deficit.
  • 4. Expanding industries ✗ — requires government investment/support, increases short-term expenditure; may increase growth/revenue long-term, but not a direct deficit-reducer in budget arithmetic.

Odd One Out — S2 (new welfare schemes) and S4 (industry expansion) are both EXPANSIONARY, not deficit-reducing. Positive Term / Negative Term consequences — 'reduce spending' (negative valence) → reduces deficit; 'new schemes' (expansionary) → widens deficit.

Science and Technology Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) and Technology Policy Applied Medium-Difficult
Q99

Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?

  1. 1Banaras Brocades and Sarees
  2. 2Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
  3. 3Tirupathi Laddu

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • 1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees ✓ — GI tagged (registered 2009) — Uttar Pradesh.
  • 2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma ✗ — a traditional Rajasthani dish, but NOT GI-registered. GI is for location-linked products with specific quality/reputation; this iconic dish hasn't been registered as GI.
  • 3. Tirupathi Laddu ✓ — GI tagged (registered 2009) — Andhra Pradesh (Tirumala Tirupati Devasthanams).

Word Association — Banaras Brocades, Tirupathi Laddu = canonical GI-tagged items often tested. Odd One Out — Daal-Bati-Churma is a regional DISH without GI registration; stands apart from registered GI items.

Environment Sources of Energy Applied Medium-Difficult
Q100

With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1It is a Public Limited Government Company.
  2. 2It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): Both 1 and 2. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA):

  • S1 CORRECT — IREDA is a PUBLIC LIMITED GOVERNMENT COMPANY (established 1987, under Ministry of New and Renewable Energy) ✓.
  • S2 CORRECT — IREDA is registered with RBI as a NON-BANKING FINANCIAL COMPANY (NBFC — specifically NBFC-Public Financial Institution) ✓.

Both statements accurately describe IREDA's institutional status.

UPSC Respects Government Initiative — IREDA is a renewable-energy financing institution framed positively. Word Association — IREDA = Govt PSU under MNRE + NBFC-PFI (both facts simultaneously true). Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'renewable energy development' aligns with sustainability valence.

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