UPSC CSE Prelims 2013 GS Paper 1 – Interactive Quiz

Legacy IAS Academy — UPSC CSE Prelims 2013 GS Paper 1 · Interactive Quiz
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UPSC CSE Prelims · 2013

General Studies Paper 1

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2013 Paper at a Glance

100 questions · 10 subjects · 74 chapters
Dominant Subject
Economy
20 / 100  •  20% of the paper
Difficulty Mode
Medium
51 questions  •  middle-ground paper
Easy Bucket
25%
Low-hanging marks available
Fundamental Bias
84%
Concepts > current affairs
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Indian Polity Parliament Fundamental Medium
Q1

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the Rajya Sabha's recommendations. On a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha can only make 'recommendations' — it cannot amend or reject. The Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject those recommendations; either way, the Bill is deemed passed. If LS accepts, the Bill becomes the amended version; if not, the Bill is deemed passed in its original form. There is no joint sitting on Money Bills.

Constitution Qs — the Constitution clearly limits RS on Money Bills (Art. 109) — core polity fact, no definition-swap possible. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — LS primacy on money matters is the single-line takeaway.

Indian Polity Governor Fundamental Easy
Q2

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (a): The same person can be appointed as Governor for two or more states (simultaneously or consecutively).

  • 7th Constitutional Amendment 1956 permitted this.
  • Example: one person has held Governorship of Goa + Punjab at different times; same person can be Governor of multiple states concurrently (with agreement of the President).

Other options (wrong): Governor's salary from state consolidated fund (actually, charged on that state's Consolidated Fund — but appointment-count is the quiz axis).

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct fact — 7th Amendment. Constitution Qs — constitutional provision is unambiguous; no room for setter to manipulate.

Geography India — Location Fundamental Medium
Q3

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Correct answer: B

Answer: identify the correctly matched geographical feature-region pair.

  • Abyssinian Plateau — Africa (Ethiopian Highlands) ✓ or not depending on pair given.
  • Atacama Desert — South America (Chile) ✓
  • Atlas Mountains — NW Africa ✓
  • Guiana Highlands — South America ✓

The single correctly-matched pair as per the options is the answer.

Odd One Out — one correctly matched pair among distractors — eliminate blatant mis-matches. Word Association — each feature has a canonical continent; name-region memory does the work.

Art and Culture Indian Architecture Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q4

With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:

  1. 1The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
  2. 2The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
  3. 3At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer (a): 1 only.

  • S1 CORRECT: Badami Chalukya cave temples are among the earliest surviving rock-cut cave temples in India (6th c CE).
  • S2 WRONG: Barabar caves (Mauryan, 3rd c BCE, Ashoka/Dasaratha) are actually the OLDEST surviving rock-cut caves — but the statement's specific wording/attribution is flawed for the expected answer.
  • S3 WRONG (as commonly framed).

Note: This is a classic 'nuance' question where UPSC's expected key is (a); close reading of the original statements is needed.

Extreme-Word Rule — 'oldest surviving' kind of absolutes → verify carefully. UPSC Favourite Area — rock-cut architecture (Ajanta/Ellora/Badami/Barabar) is tested often; date-ordering knowledge is decisive.

Science and Technology Biotechnology Fundamental Medium
Q5

Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred

  1. 1across different species of plants
  2. 2from animals to plants
  3. 3from microorganisms to higher organisms

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer: rDNA/genetic-engineering technology allows gene transfer across species boundaries — across different plants, from animals to plants, from microbes to plants (e.g., Bt cotton: Bt gene from Bacillus thuringiensis inserted into cotton). Limits of natural breeding are bypassed. All three statements matching 'cross-species transfer possible' are CORRECT.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — rDNA → unlimited potential; options describing broad cross-kingdom transfer = correct. First Among Equals — 'all of the above' matches the broad scope.

Ancient India The Guptas and the Vakatakas Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q6

The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
  2. 2As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
  3. 3The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only. Hiuen Tsang's Si-Yu-Ki records Harsha's India (~7th c).

  • S1 WRONG: 'completely immune from robbery' — in fact Hiuen Tsang himself reports being robbed by bandits and that roads were NOT fully safe.
  • S2 CORRECT: Harsha's judicial code did use ordeals by fire, water, weighing and poison to determine guilt.
  • S3 CORRECT: Traders paid toll-duties at ferries and barrier-stations, as recorded by the pilgrim.

Extreme-Word Rule — 'completely immune' in S1 is an absolute → rings alarm → S1 wrong → eliminates (a), (c), (d). Confirmed by Over-Analysis → Paralysis — read S2 and S3 at face-value (plausible, generic administrative facts) — don't over-reject them.

Environment Wildlife Conservation Fundamental Medium
Q7

Consider the following

  1. 1Star tortoise
  2. 2Monitor lizard
  3. 3Pygmy hog
  4. 4Spider monkey

Which of the above found in India?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1, 2 and 3 only — Star tortoise, Monitor lizard, Pygmy hog are all found in India. Spider monkey is found only in the NEW WORLD (Central & South America) — NOT in India.

  • Star tortoise — India (peninsular, Sri Lanka)
  • Monitor lizard — India (widespread)
  • Pygmy hog — Assam (Manas NP)
  • Spider monkey — Americas, NOT India

Odd One Out — Spider monkey is the outlier (New World primate). UPSC Favourite Area — Indian fauna is repeatedly tested — pygmy hog (Assam endemic) is a classic.

Environment Water Pollution and Marine Pollution Applied Medium-Difficult
Q8

Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?

  1. 1Arsenic
  2. 2Sorbitol
  3. 3Fluoride
  4. 4Formaldehyde
  5. 5Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer (a): 1 and 3 — Arsenic and Fluoride are well-known groundwater contaminants in India.

  • Arsenic — West Bengal, Bihar, Assam (Ganga plain groundwater).
  • Fluoride — Rajasthan, Gujarat, AP (Deccan plateau groundwater).
  • Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol, NOT a contaminant — trick option.
  • Formaldehyde — occupational/industrial chemical, not a common groundwater contaminant.

Odd One Out — Sorbitol (a sweetener) jumps out as clearly not a pollutant — eliminate. Exchange of Options — setter slips in a non-contaminant to trap.

Modern History Constitutional Developments (1919–1935) Fundamental Easy
Q9

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. The Constituent Assembly was constituted per the Cabinet Mission Plan 1946. Provincial members were elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies using a single-transferable vote, proportional-representation method — i.e., INDIRECT election, not direct.

  • (a) Wrong — no universal adult franchise in 1946.
  • (b) Wrong — neither INC nor Muslim League 'nominated' them; elections happened.
  • (d) Wrong — no expertise-based selection from Govt.

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct historical fact — don't overthink. Word Association — 'Members from Provinces' pairs naturally with 'Provincial Legislative Assemblies' (keyword echo).

Environment Wildlife Conservation Fundamental Easy
Q10

Consider the following animals:

  1. 1Sea cow
  2. 2Sea horse
  3. 3Sea lion

Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 1 and 3 only (Sea cow + Sea lion are mammals).

  • Sea cow (Dugong) — Sirenian MAMMAL ✓
  • Sea horse — bony FISH (family Syngnathidae) ✗
  • Sea lion — Pinniped MAMMAL ✓

Odd One Out — Sea horse is the outlier (fish, not mammal). Word Association — 'cow' and 'lion' are mammal names; 'horse' here is named by shape, not taxonomy.

Indian Polity Amendment of the Constitution Fundamental Medium
Q11

Consider the following statements

  1. 1An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. 2If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: D

Answer: S1 wrong, S2 correct (or as per key). Amendment of the Constitution (Art. 368):

  • S1 WRONG: An amendment Bill can be introduced in EITHER House of Parliament — not the Lok Sabha alone.
  • S2 CORRECT: State legislature cannot initiate amendments (though ratification by at least half the states is required for federal provisions).

Extreme-Word Rule — S1 has 'only in the Lok Sabha' (exclusivity) → suspect. Constitution Qs — Art 368 is a cleanly defined procedure — direct recall.

Indian Polity Attorney General of India Fundamental Medium
Q12

Cnsider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

  1. 1take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. 2be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. 3speak in the Lok Sabha
  4. 4vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer: AG rights include rights of audience in both Houses, Parliamentary committees, and joint sittings — but no voting rights.

  • S1 CORRECT: AG can take part in proceedings of LS without right to vote (Art. 88).
  • S2 CORRECT: AG can be a member of a parliamentary committee (only in that capacity).
  • S3 CORRECT: AG enjoys all privileges of an MP.

All three are correct.

Constitution Qs — Art. 76 + 88 list AG's participation rights precisely — direct recall. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — no attempt needed to make any stmt wrong.

Indian Economy Indian Industry Applied Medium
Q13

With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is / are correct?

  1. 1Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
  2. 2Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
  3. 3Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer: bagasse (fibrous sugarcane residue) and molasses have many uses.

  • Bagasse — fuel for cogeneration in sugar mills; raw material for paper, particle board, biofuel (cellulosic ethanol). ✓
  • Molasses — ethanol, potable liquor, cattle feed, yeast, citric acid. ✓
  • Press mud — bio-manure/bio-fertilizer. ✓

All by-product uses are widely documented.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'waste to wealth', 'biofuel', 'bioenergy' — positive valence → CORRECT. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — sugar industry by-products are part of biofuel policy.

Geography The Origin and Evolution of the Earth Fundamental Medium
Q14

Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to

Correct answer: D

Answer (c): Earth's axial tilt (rotation axis inclined ~23.5°) combined with its revolution around the Sun.

  • Rotation alone gives day and night but NOT the seasonal variation in day-length.
  • Revolution alone (without tilt) would give constant equinoctial days all year.
  • The two together — tilted axis + orbital revolution — produce varying day/night lengths across seasons.

First Among Equals — the BROADER/combined option (tilt + revolution) subsumes rotation-alone or revolution-alone. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — classic physics of seasons.

Geography Drainage System Fundamental Medium
Q15

The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

  1. 1It occupies a linear rift valley.
  2. 2It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
  3. 3The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer: Narmada flows west because it occupies a linear RIFT VALLEY between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges — a fault depression from Gondwana geology.

  • S1 CORRECT: linear rift valley.
  • S2 WRONG (if it says westward tilt of western region — actually Indian peninsula tilts eastward, which is WHY most rivers flow east; Narmada/Tapi are exceptions BECAUSE of rifts).

Positive Term → Positive Consequence / Negative Term → Negative Consequence — 'rift valley' → 'captures river flow' is a natural cause-effect. Hard to Verify / Disprove — geological explanations (rift, fault) are hard to disprove → tend correct.

Geography Water (Oceans) Fundamental Easy
Q16

On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

Correct answer: C

Answer (a): Groundwater. After ice caps and glaciers (~69% of freshwater), the next-largest freshwater store is GROUNDWATER (~30%). Surface water (rivers + lakes + swamps) is less than 1%. Atmospheric water vapour is tiny (~0.04%).

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — well-known hydrology fact — 69% ice, 30% groundwater. Odd One Out — groundwater stands clearly apart from lakes/rivers/atmosphere in volume.

Environment Protected Area Network Applied Medium-Difficult
Q17

Consider the following pairs:

#Biosphere Reserve / Lake / ParkLocation
1Nokrek Bio-sphere ReserveGaro Hills
2Logtak (Loktak)LakeBarail Range
3Namdapha National ParkDafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Nokrek BR — Garo Hills (Meghalaya) ✓. Other mismatches: Loktak Lake is in Manipur (not Barail Range); Namdapha is in Arunachal Pradesh etc. Only correctly-matched pairs contribute to the answer. Biosphere Reserves + their locations is core UPSC fodder.

Word Association — Nokrek → Garo Hills is the canonical pair. UPSC Favourite Area — BR-location pairings are tested regularly.

Geography Geomorphic Processes Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q18

Consider the following:

  1. 1Electromagnetic radiation
  2. 2Geothermal energy
  3. 3Gravitational force
  4. 4Plate movements
  5. 5Rotation of the earth
  6. 6Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

Correct answer: D

Answer: geomorphic processes on Earth's surface are driven primarily by (a) solar EM radiation (external), (b) geothermal energy (internal), (c) gravity (endogenous & surface), (d) plate movements (tectonics). Earth's rotation influences Coriolis but is not a direct driver of geomorphic processes. Correct combination identifies the real drivers.

First Among Equals — pick the option that subsumes solar + internal + gravity + tectonics. Word Association — 'geomorphic' = external + internal processes → match accordingly.

Indian Polity Salient Features of the Constitution Fundamental Easy
Q19

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

  1. 1National Development Council
  2. 2Planning Commission
  3. 3Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3 (none of them find mention in Constitution).

  • National Development Council — executive creation by Cabinet resolution (1952), NOT constitutional.
  • Planning Commission — executive body (Cabinet resolution 1950), NOT constitutional; replaced by NITI Aayog 2015 (also non-constitutional).
  • Zonal Councils — statutory bodies set up under States Reorganisation Act 1956.

None have constitutional sanction.

Constitution Qs — textbook — three bodies commonly confused with constitutional bodies; asking 'which does NOT find mention in Constitution' and the answer being all three is UPSC's favourite setup.

Modern History Peasant Movements Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q20

The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): reduction of the landlords' share from one-half to one-third. Tebhaga ('three-parts') movement, Bengal 1946, led by sharecroppers (bargadars) under the Kisan Sabha. The demand was that the landlord's share of crop drop from 1/2 to 1/3 — sharecroppers keep 2/3 (two-thirds / 'tebhaga').

  • (b), (c), (d) describe other peasant grievances — not the specific Tebhaga demand.

Word Association — 'Tebhaga' literally means 'three parts' → instantly maps to the 1/3–2/3 share ratio in option (a). British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — not directly relevant here (peasant-movement demand is the axis).

Indian Polity Centre–State Relations Fundamental Medium
Q21

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): without the consent of any of the States. Article 253: Parliament has EXCLUSIVE power to make laws to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions or decisions made at any international conference — irrespective of whether the subject falls in Union, State or Concurrent List. No state consent is needed. Other options impose consent conditions that Art 253 explicitly dispenses with.

Constitution Qs — Article 253 is a clean, well-known provision. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — the absolute power of Parliament for treaty-implementation is a single-line constitutional fact — no mis-direction possible.

Environment Functions of an Ecosystem Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q22

In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

Correct answer: C

Answer (b)-family: grasses are not replaced by trees in grasslands because of LIMITED RAINFALL (and fire regime). Grassland climax is maintained by moisture deficit (+ grazing, periodic fires) — conditions that grass tolerates but trees cannot. Insects/fungi are decomposers, not succession-limiters.

Word Association — 'grassland' = rainfall-limited biome → water is the binding constraint. Positive Term → Positive Consequence / Negative Term → Negative Consequence — 'limited rainfall' (negative cause) → suppresses tree replacement (consequence).

Environment Energy Flow through an Ecosystem Fundamental Medium
Q23

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

Correct answer: C

Answer: decreasing productivity order = Tropical rainforest > estuaries > coral reefs > mangroves > grasslands > lakes > oceans.

  • Oceans are HIGH in total biomass but LOW in productivity per unit area.
  • Tropical rainforests and estuaries have highest NPP.

Correct sequence from the options identifies this gradient.

Word Association — 'productivity' = NPP per unit area → rainforest/estuary top the list. Exchange of Options — ocean-total-biomass often confused with ocean-per-area productivity.

Geography Soils Fundamental Easy
Q24

Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

Correct answer: D

Answer (c): hilly and mountainous areas with strong water flow. Contour bunding = embankments constructed along contour lines to slow down runoff and reduce soil erosion on slopes. Used in hilly terrain, not in flat plains, deserts or coastal deltas.

Word Association — 'contour' → contour lines → hilly/sloping terrain. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — standard soil-conservation technique.

Indian Polity Scheduled and Tribal Areas Applied Medium-Difficult
Q25

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

Correct answer: C

Answer: identify the objective NOT of PESA Act 1996. PESA (Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 extends Part IX of the Constitution (Panchayats) to Fifth Schedule tribal areas, with key objectives: (a) preserve tribal traditions and customs; (b) empower Gram Sabha; (c) ensure social audit by Gram Sabha; (d) reserve seats for ST. The option that describes a NON-PESA feature is the answer.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — PESA's real objectives carry positive, empowering keywords (decentralisation, tribal empowerment, gram sabha, conservation) → options with those are CORRECT; the odd option lacking such flavour is the one NOT in PESA. Odd One Out Odd-One-Out.

Indian Polity Panchayati Raj Applied Medium-Difficult
Q26

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

Correct answer: D

Answer: the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate determination of forest rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. FRA 2006 Section 6: the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights; it constitutes the Forest Rights Committee and passes resolutions on claims. The officer subsequently verifies and forwards.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'Gram Sabha' — quintessential decentralisation/bottom-up keyword → the right answer valence. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — the option that empowers the grassroots body (Gram Sabha) reflects the scheme's positive design.

Science and Technology Agriculture and Food Technology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q27

Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by

Correct answer: C

Answer: aflatoxins produced by Aspergillus flavus/parasiticus on improperly stored cereals & oilseeds (peanuts). Aflatoxins are HEAT-STABLE (don't denature on cooking), HEPATOTOXIC (cause liver damage/cancer), and hence a major food-safety concern in tropical storage. Correct statements: heat-stable, cause liver damage/cancer, Aspergillus-produced.

Hard to Verify / Disprove — aflatoxin properties (heat stability, carcinogenicity) are well-established → hard to disprove. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — standard food-safety fact.

Indian Polity Preamble of the Constitution Fundamental Easy
Q28

‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in

Correct answer: B

Answer (d): Preamble and Directive Principles. 'Economic Justice' is expressly one of the objectives in the Preamble ('JUSTICE: social, economic and political'). It is then operationalised through the DPSPs (Articles 38, 39, 39-A etc.) — e.g., equal pay for equal work, adequate means of livelihood. Fundamental Rights secure civil/political justice, not economic justice directly.

Constitution Qs — Preamble and DPSP together = socio-economic democracy — textbook linkage. Word Association — 'economic justice' pairs directly with DPSP (socio-economic objectives).

Environment E-Waste or Electronic Waste Applied Medium
Q29

Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?

  1. 1Beryllium
  2. 2Cadmium
  3. 3Chromium
  4. 4Heptachlor
  5. 5Mercury
  6. 6Lead
  7. 7Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer: e-waste releases toxic heavy metals — LEAD (CRTs, solder), CADMIUM (batteries, semiconductors), MERCURY (switches, LCD backlights), CHROMIUM (circuit boards), BRominated flame retardants, beryllium. All toxic metals listed in the options are released.

Hard to Verify / Disprove — once combustion/leaching occurs, 'n' toxic metals release — it is very hard to rule OUT any particular heavy metal → statements claiming 'X is released' tend correct. First Among Equals — 'all of the above' covers the full basket.

Environment Air Pollution Fundamental Easy
Q30

Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

Correct answer: D

Answer (c)-family: SO2 and NO2 — burnt fossil fuels release sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, which in the atmosphere form H2SO4 and HNO3 → acid rain (pH < 5.6). NOT CO2/CO (those contribute to global warming but are not principal acid-rain agents at rain-pH level).

Word Association — 'acid rain' = sulphuric + nitric acids → SO2, NO2. Odd One Out — among options, SO2/NO2 stand out as acidifying oxides vs carbon oxides.

Environment Functions of an Ecosystem Fundamental Medium
Q31

With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements :

  1. 1A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
  2. 2Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
  3. 3A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer: food-chain statements —

  • A food chain shows the unidirectional flow of energy from producers to consumers ✓
  • Typical chain has 4-5 trophic levels; energy decreases along chain (10% law) ✓
  • Autotrophs (producers) always at the base ✓

Statements matching trophic-level concepts are correct.

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — fundamental ecology — direct definition-based. Extreme-Word Rule — watch for 'always', 'never' in trophic-level stmts.

Environment Protected Area Network Applied Medium-Difficult
Q32

Consider the following pairs:

#National ParkRiver flowing through the Park
1Corbett National ParkGanga
2Kaziranga National ParkManas
3Silent Valley National ParkKaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Correct answer: D

Answer: NP–river pairs. Correct anchors: Corbett — Ramganga (NOT Ganga); Kaziranga — Brahmaputra ✓; Silent Valley — Kunthipuzha ✓; Bandipur — Kabini/Moyar. Options that correctly list these pairs are right; the Corbett-Ganga swap is the classic trap.

Exchange of Options — 'Corbett on Ganga' instead of Ramganga — classic river-swap. Word Association — each NP has a canonical river partner; memorise the pair.

Environment Green Revolution, Sustainable and Modern Agricultural Practices Fundamental Medium
Q33

Consider the following organisms

  1. 1Agaricus
  2. 2Nostoc
  3. 3Spirogyra

Which of the above is / are used as biofertilizer / biofertilizers

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only — Nostoc (cyanobacterium) is used as biofertilizer (fixes atmospheric nitrogen in paddy fields).

  • Agaricus is an edible MUSHROOM (decomposer), NOT biofertilizer.
  • Spirogyra is a green alga — not used as biofertilizer.
  • Examples of real biofertilizers: Rhizobium, Azolla-Anabaena, Nostoc, Azotobacter, Mycorrhiza.

Odd One Out — Nostoc (N-fixing cyanobacterium) stands out as the only biofertilizer-class organism. Exchange of Options — Agaricus (mushroom) masquerading as a biofertilizer is the trap.

Environment Biogeochemical (Nutrient) Cycles Fundamental Medium
Q34

Which of the following adds / add nitrogen to the soil?

  1. 1Excretion of urea by animals
  2. 2Burning of coal by man
  3. 3Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer: adding nitrogen to soil —

  • Excretion of urea by animals ✓ (organic N input)
  • Burning of coal ✗ (releases SO2, NOx as air pollutants, but NOx deposition is small vs soil inputs and the answer expected by UPSC is NO)
  • Death of vegetation ✓ (decomposition returns organic N)

S1 and S3 add N; S2 does not meaningfully.

Odd One Out — coal-burning is the outlier (air pollution, not soil-N addition). Hard to Verify / Disprove — hair-splitting on whether atmospheric NOx deposition counts — bias toward the straightforward choice.

Environment Wildlife Conservation Fundamental Medium
Q35

In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?

  1. 1Tamil Nadu
  2. 2Kerala
  3. 3Karnataka
  4. 4Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer (b): 2 and 3 only — Lion-tailed macaque is endemic to Western Ghats → Kerala + Karnataka + Tamil Nadu. NOT in Andhra Pradesh. Habitat: evergreen and semi-evergreen rainforests of the Western Ghats (e.g., Silent Valley NP, Anamalai, Kalakkad-Mundanthurai). Endangered species.

Word Association — LTM → Western Ghats (shola + evergreen forest) → only the 3 WG states qualify. UPSC Favourite Area — Western Ghats endemism is tested repeatedly.

Art and Culture Indian Architecture Fundamental Easy
Q36

Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

Correct answer: B

Answer (a): Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks. WAIT — this is the TRAP. The correct pairing is the OPPOSITE:

  • CHAITYA = prayer/worship hall (has a stupa at one end).
  • VIHARA = monks' dwelling/residence (cells around a courtyard).

The officially keyed answer is (a) as presented in the original source because UPSC wrote (a) as 'Chaitya is prayer hall, Vihara is dwelling'. Reading options carefully matters.

Exchange of Options — the setter's favourite trick — swap 'Chaitya' and 'Vihara' properties. Twinning Statements — two options describe the pair in opposite directions → one of them is right, read carefully.

Art and Culture Buddhism and Jainism Fundamental Medium
Q37

Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): the extinction of the flame of desire. Buddhist Nirvana = liberation from samsara achieved by extinguishing tanha (craving/desire) — literally 'blowing out' (like a flame). It is NOT 'complete annihilation of self' (that would be ucchedavada, a view the Buddha rejected).

  • (b) misrepresents — self-annihilation is not Buddhist.
  • (c), (d) — Theravada rejects an eternal 'soul-self'.

Word Association — Nirvana literally = 'blowing out (a flame)' → picks option (a) directly. Extreme-Word Rule — 'complete annihilation' in (b) is an extreme claim → eliminate.

Indian Polity Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Easy
Q38

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

Correct answer: C

Answer (b): Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 37 expressly states: 'The provisions contained in this Part (DPSP) ... are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.'

  • FRs are justiciable rights, not stated as 'fundamental to governance'.
  • Fundamental Duties (Art 51A) are on citizens.
  • Preamble is declaratory.

Constitution Qs — Article 37 is the exact textual anchor. Word Association — 'fundamental for the governance' → exact phrase used in Art 37 for DPSPs.

Modern History Simon Commission and the Civil Disobedience Movement Fundamental Easy
Q39

The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because

Correct answer: C

Answer (b): there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission. Appointed 1927 under Stanley Baldwin to review the 1919 Act, the Commission was all-white — zero Indian members — perceived as a racial insult. Hence 'Simon Go Back' protests by both Congress and Muslim League.

  • (a) Wrong — Indians DID want the review; they objected to being excluded from it.
  • (c), (d) Wrong — not the trigger.

British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — the reason aligned with 'Indians humiliated/excluded by British' framing is correct. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — textbook fact — no need to twist options.

Modern History Quit India Movement and Other Events (1940–1947) Fundamental Easy
Q40

Quit India Movement was launched in response to

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): Cripps Proposals. The Cripps Mission (March–April 1942) offered dominion status after WWII but with partition-friendly provisions. Gandhi called it 'a post-dated cheque on a crashing bank'. The failure of Cripps Proposals led the AICC in August 1942 (Bombay) to launch Quit India with 'Do or Die'.

  • (a) Cabinet Mission was 1946 — after QIM.
  • (c) Simon Commission 1927 — too early.
  • (d) Wavell Plan 1945 — after QIM.

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — straight chronological fact — Cripps (1942) is the only option that precedes and triggers QIM (Aug 1942). Contemporary Names — UPSC traps people on date-sequencing; arrange by year and Cripps→QIM falls out.

Indian Economy Balance of Payments Fundamental Easy
Q41

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

Correct answer: A

Answer (d): all import-export transactions of goods, services, capital, and transfers during a given period (usually one year). BoP = systematic record of ALL economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world. Not just merchandise (which is 'balance of trade'), not just services. BoP = Current Account + Capital Account + Errors & Omissions.

First Among Equals — option covering 'all economic transactions' is broader and subsumes 'goods only' or 'services only'. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — textbook definition.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Fundamental Medium
Q42

The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of

  1. 1liquidity of assets
  2. 2branch expansion
  3. 3merger of banks
  4. 4winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer: RBI regulates commercial banks on ALL the listed matters — liquidity, branch expansion, mergers, and winding-up. Under the Banking Regulation Act 1949, RBI has regulatory authority over licensing, CRR/SLR (liquidity), branch approval, M&A approval, and resolution/winding up of banks.

First Among Equals — 'all of them' captures the full regulatory scope. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — RBI's comprehensive regulatory powers align with positive institutional framing.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Fundamental Medium
Q43

An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the

Correct answer: D

Answer (c): Central Bank is following a tight money policy. Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks. An INCREASE in Bank Rate = borrowing becomes costlier for banks = banks pass on higher rates = tight money policy (contractionary). Bank Rate hike usually signals anti-inflation stance.

Positive Term → Positive Consequence / Negative Term → Negative Consequence — 'increase' in Bank Rate → contractionary/tight stance (negative valence on borrowing). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — classic monetary-policy signal.

Indian Economy Public Finance Fundamental Medium
Q44

In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): economic development. Deficit financing = government meeting expenditure gap by borrowing (from RBI/market) or printing money. Primary aim is to raise resources for DEVELOPMENT expenditure — infrastructure, capital formation, welfare — when normal revenue falls short. NOT used for debt redemption or BoP adjustment (those need different tools).

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'economic development' → positive, empowering purpose → correct. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — government fiscal tools framed positively.

Ancient India Harappan Civilization / Bronze Age Fundamental Medium
Q45

Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?

  1. 1They possessed great palaces and temples.
  2. 2They worshipped both male and female deities.
  3. 3They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only.

  • S1 WRONG: Harappans did NOT have great palaces or temples — the distinctive feature is the ABSENCE of monumental religious/royal architecture.
  • S2 CORRECT: Seals and figurines show worship of a male proto-Shiva/Pashupati figure and a Mother Goddess — both male and female deities.
  • S3 WRONG: Horse is largely absent from Harappan sites; warfare with horse-drawn chariots is not a feature of IVC (it comes with the Vedic/Aryan phase).

Extreme-Word Rule — S1's 'great palaces and temples' is an absolute claim easily disproved. UPSC Favourite Area — Harappan/Indus is a UPSC staple — standard 'what IVC LACKED' trap (no horse, no palaces, no monumental temples).

Science and Technology Health and Medical Technology Applied Medium
Q46

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?

  1. 1Chikungunya
  2. 2Hepatitis B
  3. 3HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (c): 2 and 3 (Hepatitis B + HIV can be transmitted by tattooing with unsterilised needles).

  • Chikungunya — mosquito-borne (Aedes), NOT transmitted by tattooing.
  • Hepatitis B — blood-borne ✓
  • HIV-AIDS — blood-borne ✓

Only blood-borne viruses are tattooing risks.

Word Association — 'tattooing' = needle piercing = blood-borne pathogens only. Odd One Out — Chikungunya (vector-borne) is the outlier.

Art and Culture Buddhism and Jainism Fundamental Medium
Q47

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

  1. 1The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
  2. 2Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
  3. 3Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer (c): both are correct (as officially keyed).

  • S1 CORRECT: In Jain doctrine, annihilating karma is achieved chiefly through tapas/penance — 'nirjara'.
  • S2 CORRECT: Jainism holds that every soul is potentially divine (a siddha) — once freed of karma, every jiva attains Godhood.

Jain metaphysics: all souls are equal in pure nature; liberation (moksha) is self-achieved through the Three Jewels.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'every soul can achieve God-hood' — spiritual inclusivity — fits UPSC's positive framing → likely correct. UPSC Favourite Area — Jainism is in the UPSC hotlist.

Environment Ecology — Principles and Organizations Fundamental Easy
Q48

Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

Correct answer: B

Answer (c): Niche. Ecological niche = physical space + functional role of an organism in its community (what it eats, what eats it, its activity pattern, its abiotic preferences).

  • Habitat = just the physical space.
  • Community = set of species.
  • Population = same species.

Niche is the broader concept.

First Among Equals — niche subsumes habitat + role → broader option. Word Association — 'functional role' = textbook niche definition.

Environment Air Pollution Fundamental Medium
Q49

Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): NO2, O3, and PAN (peroxyacetyl nitrate) in the presence of sunlight. Photochemical smog forms when NOx + VOCs react in sunlight → O3 + PAN + aldehydes. Classic urban smog (Delhi winters, Los Angeles). Does NOT involve CO + methane directly in formation.

Word Association — 'photochemical' = sunlight-driven → NOx + O3 + PAN. Exchange of Options — setter swaps 'SO2/CO2' into the list to trap — know the correct triad.

Science and Technology General Science — Biology Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q50

Consider the following minerals

  1. 1Calcium
  2. 2Iron
  3. 3Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d)-family: 1, 2 and 3 — Calcium (essential for muscle contraction via sliding filament), Iron (oxygen delivery to muscles via haemoglobin, indirect but essential), Sodium (action-potential generation in muscle cells). All three contribute to muscle function.

First Among Equals — biological systems rarely work on ONE mineral — 'all of the above' reflects multi-factor physiology. Science = Futuristic/Evolving — inclusive answers favoured.

Indian Polity Parliamentary Committees Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q51

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

  1. 1consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
  2. 2scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
  3. 3of the Auditor examines the report Comptroller and General of India

Which of the statements given a bove is / are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer: as keyed. PAC (Public Accounts Committee):

  • Total strength: 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS). So 'not more than 25' is technically a true upper-bound.
  • Chairman: appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha; since 1967 tradition — from the Opposition.
  • Scrutinises CAG report on appropriation accounts and audit — NOT Demands for Grants (that's Estimates Committee).

Vulnerable Statements — concrete numbers (15, 7, 22, 25) are setter's bait — triangulate against standard figures. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct Rules of Procedure fact.

Medieval History Delhi Sultanate Fundamental Difficult
Q52

Consider the following Bhakti Saints:

  1. 1Dadu Dayal
  2. 2Guru Nanak
  3. 3Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
Correct answer: B

Answer (b): 2 only. The Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over in 1526 (First Battle of Panipat).

  • Dadu Dayal: 1544–1603, born AFTER 1526 → not preaching yet.
  • Guru Nanak: 1469–1539 → actively preaching in 1526 ✓
  • Tyagaraja: 1767–1847 (Carnatic music saint) — centuries later, and from a different tradition altogether.

Odd One Out — Tyagaraja is a Carnatic-music composer, not a Bhakti saint of the Nanak/Dadu era — he stands out from the other two → likely a plant. Contemporary Names — UPSC loves wrong contemporary pairings — 1526 fixes a tight date-window, and only Nanak survives.

Environment Functions of an Ecosystem Fundamental Easy
Q53

With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is / are known as decomposer organism/organisms?

  1. 1Virus
  2. 2Fungi
  3. 3Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer (a): Fungi and bacteria (saprotrophs) — the primary decomposers in food chains.

  • Fungi break down lignin + cellulose.
  • Bacteria break down proteins/lipids.
  • Some arthropods (detritivores like earthworms, millipedes) assist but are not the core 'decomposer organisms' in the textbook sense.

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — fundamental ecology — decomposers = fungi + bacteria. Word Association — 'decomposer' instantly cues microbial agents.

Geography Water (Oceans) Fundamental Easy
Q54

The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where

Correct answer: C

Answer (a): warm and cold OCEAN currents meet (not atmospheric). Major fishing grounds — Grand Banks (Gulf Stream meets Labrador Current), North Sea, Sea of Japan (Kuroshio meets Oyashio), Peruvian waters (Humboldt) — all occur where warm and cold ocean currents CONVERGE. Convergence brings nutrient upwelling + plankton bloom + fish abundance.

Exchange of Options — 'atmospheric currents' vs 'ocean currents' — classic property-swap trap. Read carefully. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — classic oceanography.

Geography Natural Vegetation Fundamental Medium
Q55

Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?

  1. 1Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
  2. 2Coexistence of a large number of species
  3. 3Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct answer: D

Answer: characteristics of equatorial rainforests include tall, closely-set trees with crown-forming canopy; high species diversity; multi-tier structure (emergent, canopy, understory, forest floor); lianas and epiphytes; evergreen (no seasonal leaf-fall). Statements that capture these are CORRECT.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'biodiversity', 'rich', 'conservation' → correct framing. Hard to Verify / Disprove — descriptive ecology is hard to strictly disprove → tend correct.

Indian Economy Balance of Payments Fundamental Medium
Q56

Which of the following constitute Capital Account?

  1. 1Foreign Loans
  2. 2Foreign Direct Investment
  3. 3Private Remittances
  4. 4Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: B

Answer: S1, S2, S4 correct; S3 (private remittances) WRONG — belongs to Current Account (transfers), not Capital Account.

  • Foreign Loans ✓ capital account
  • FDI ✓ capital account
  • Private Remittances ✗ — CURRENT account transfer
  • Portfolio Investment ✓ capital account

Exchange of Options — Current-Account vs Capital-Account swap is THE classic BoP trap (remittances are transfers = current). Odd One Out — remittance stands out from loans/FDI/portfolio.

Art and Culture Indian Paintings Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q57

Consider the following historical places:

  1. 1Ajanta Caves
  2. 2Lepakshi Temple
  3. 3Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is / are also known for mural paintings?

Correct answer: B

Answer (a): 1 and 2.

  • Ajanta (Maharashtra, 2nd c BCE–6th c CE): world-famous Buddhist murals — YES, paintings.
  • Lepakshi (Andhra Pradesh, 16th c Vijayanagara): temple famous for Veerabhadra temple murals — YES, paintings.
  • Sanchi (Madhya Pradesh): Mauryan–Sunga stupa complex — famous for SCULPTURE (toranas, yakshis), NOT paintings.

UPSC Favourite Area — Ajanta is guaranteed territory; Sanchi is tested for sculpture (toranas) not paintings → classic category-swap. Exchange of Options — Sanchi's attribute (sculpture) has been exchanged with 'paintings'.

Art and Culture Indian Schools of Philosophy Fundamental Difficult
Q58

With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:

  1. 1Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transrmigration of soul.
  2. 2Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer: (a)/key-as-published. Sankhya school (founded traditionally by Kapila) is one of the 6 orthodox darshanas but unusual in that it is formally ATHEISTIC/non-theistic — it admits no creator God (Ishvara), only two eternal realities: Purusha (consciousness) and Prakriti (matter). Dualistic. Accepts Vedic authority (hence āstika) but not theism. Among the statements, the one aligning with this dualist-atheist framing is correct; claims of theism or pure monism are wrong.

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — Indian philosophy questions tempt over-reading; stick to Sankhya's core duality (Purusha-Prakriti). Word Association — 'Sankhya' = enumeration of 25 tattvas; stay with the two-reality framework.

Indian Polity Parliamentary System Fundamental Medium
Q59

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. 1Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
  2. 2Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. 3Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer: principles of parliamentary government (as implied institutionally) include: (i) CoM collectively responsible to Lok Sabha, (ii) ministers must be MPs, (iii) PM as 'first among equals' among ministers, (iv) head of state (President) as constitutional, not real, executive. Judicial independence is a RULE-OF-LAW principle, not specifically 'parliamentary' — distinguish.

Constitution Qs — parliamentary vs presidential distinction is core polity. Exchange of Options — setter often mixes rule-of-law features (judicial independence) with parliamentary features (ministerial responsibility) — check which belongs where.

Geography Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature Fundamental Medium
Q60

The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is / are the reason / reasons?

  1. 1Thermal difference between land and water
  2. 2Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
  3. 3Presence of strong winds in the interior
  4. 4Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer: continentality effect — interior continental regions show LARGE annual range of temperature because (a) land heats/cools faster than water (lower specific heat), (b) no moderating influence of sea. Coastal areas show small range due to oceanic thermal buffering. Statements referencing these physical principles are correct.

Positive Term → Positive Consequence / Negative Term → Negative Consequence — 'land low specific heat → large T range' is a direct cause-effect. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — standard climatology — don't overthink.

Geography Mineral and Energy Resources Fundamental Medium
Q61

Which of the following is / are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?

  1. 1High ash content
  2. 2Low sulphur content
  3. 3Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 and 2 (high ash + low sulphur).

  • Indian coal typically has HIGH ASH content (30-50%) — a major quality problem for combustion and emissions.
  • Indian coal has LOW SULPHUR — relatively clean-burning in that one respect.
  • 'Low ash + high sulphur' would be the reverse (not true).

Hence S1 & S2 correct, S3 wrong.

Exchange of Options — S3 literally reverses S1 and S2 — classic setter swap. Contradictory Statement — two statements contradict → one pair is correct, the other is the trap.

Geography Soils Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q62

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

  1. 1They are generally red in colour.
  2. 2They are rich In nitrogen and potash.
  3. 3Tiley are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
  4. 4Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: C

Answer: laterite soils properties —

  • Red in colour due to high iron oxide content ✓
  • Rich in aluminium and iron, POOR in nitrogen, phosphorus and organic matter ✓
  • Formed by intense leaching in high-rainfall tropical regions ✓
  • Found in Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats, parts of MP, Odisha, Assam, Meghalaya, hilly regions of southern Maharashtra ✓

Statements claiming 'rich in humus and nitrogen' are WRONG.

Exchange of Options — property-swap on 'rich vs poor' nutrients is the classic trap. Extreme-Word Rule — 'rich in everything' types of stmts on laterite are absolutes → usually wrong.

Geography Minerals and Rocks Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q63

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
  2. 2Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
  3. 3Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer: Indian mineral geology —

  • Natural gas (esp. in Gondwana beds — YES, coal-bed methane; major reserves exist in Damodar Valley/Jharia etc.)
  • Mica — abundant in Kodarma (Jharkhand) ✓
  • Dharwar rocks — famous for gold (Kolar, Hutti), iron, manganese ✓

All three are standard mineral-location facts.

Word Association — Kodarma → mica; Kolar → gold; Gondwana → coal/gas — canonical pairings. UPSC Favourite Area — mineral geography is a repeated UPSC topic.

Geography Land Resources and Agriculture Fundamental Easy
Q64

Consider the following crops

  1. 1Cotton
  2. 2Groundnut
  3. 3Rice
  4. 4Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1, 2 and 3 (Cotton, Groundnut, Rice are all kharif). Kharif crops: sown with SW monsoon (June-July), harvested Sep-Oct — rice, maize, cotton, groundnut, soyabean, bajra, jowar, arhar. Rabi: sown Oct-Dec, harvested Mar-Apr — wheat, barley, mustard, gram. So wheat (4) is rabi, not kharif.

Odd One Out — among rice/cotton/groundnut/wheat, wheat is the outlier (rabi) — it stands out. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — basic agri classification, no trickery.

Geography World Climate and Climate Change Fundamental Medium
Q65

“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

Correct answer: B

Answer (c): Temperate grassland (steppe/prairie). Extreme temperatures, scanty rainfall (25-75 cm), and traditionally nomadic herding (Steppes, Pampas, Veld, Downs) — matches the description. Savannas have tall grass + seasonal rains (not scanty); tundra is too cold. Mediterranean has moderate rain.

Word Association — 'nomadic herders' + 'scanty rainfall' → steppe/temperate grassland (pastoral nomadism). Odd One Out Odd-One-Out among climate regions.

Indian Economy Inflation Fundamental Easy
Q66

Consider the following statements :

  1. 1Inflation benefits the debtors.
  2. 2Inflation benefits the bond-holders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only — inflation benefits debtors (they repay in cheaper money), HURTS bond-holders (whose fixed-nominal returns lose real value).

  • S1 CORRECT: debtors gain — they return less real value.
  • S2 WRONG: bond-holders (creditors with fixed nominal returns) LOSE to inflation.

Contradictory Statement — S1 says inflation helps debtors; S2 says it helps bond-holders (creditors) — debtors and creditors are OPPOSITES → both cannot be right. Positive Term → Positive Consequence / Negative Term → Negative Consequence Positive/Negative-valence.

Indian Economy Poverty, Inequality and Unemployment Fundamental Easy
Q67

Disguised unemployment generally means

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): marginal productivity of labour is zero or negative. Disguised unemployment = apparent employment but adding/removing a worker doesn't change total output — marginal productivity = 0. Classic in Indian agriculture where 5 workers do the work of 3. Not visible unemployment, not seasonal.

Word Association — 'disguised' = hidden → marginal productivity zero is the textbook definition. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — development-economics classic.

Indian Polity Central Council of Ministers Fundamental Medium
Q68

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. 2The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
  3. 3The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Iegislation.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer: statements on Council of Ministers.

  • 'CoM collectively responsible to Parliament' → WRONG wording: they are collectively responsible to the LOK SABHA (not to Parliament/RS). Art 75(3).
  • 'Union Minister can remain in office only as long as he enjoys majority support in Parliament' → misleading; ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President (Art 75(2)).

The precise constitutional language matters.

Extreme-Word Rule — 'responsible to Parliament' is an extremist/slightly-swapped wording — real provision says 'to the Lok Sabha'. Constitution Qs — exact wording of Art 75 is the key.

Indian Polity Panchayati Raj Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q69

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. 2The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. 3The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer: NDC was an organ of the Planning Commission (both were executive/non-constitutional bodies); Economic & Social Planning is in the CONCURRENT List (Entry 20), not the State List.

  • S1 PARTIALLY TRUE: NDC was associated with Planning Commission, set up by Cabinet Resolution 1952 (both now superseded).
  • S2 WRONG: E&S Planning is Concurrent List, not State — hence both Centre and State can legislate.

Constitution Qs — list-placement is clean constitutional recall. Exchange of Options — 'State List vs Concurrent List' is a typical setter-swap.

Indian Polity Vice-President Fundamental Medium
Q70

Consider the following statements:

  1. 1The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. 2While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct answer: B

Answer: Chairman of RS = Vice-President of India (NOT a member of RS); Deputy Chairman IS a member elected from among RS members.

  • S1 WRONG: Deputy Chairman IS a member of RS; only the Chairman (VP) is not.
  • S2: if office of VP is vacant, Deputy Chairman (not an ex-officio senior member) presides over RS — subject to further provisions.

Exchange of Options — Chairman/Deputy Chairman membership status is a classic swap target. Constitution Qs — Articles 64, 65, 89, 91 handle this precisely.

Indian Polity Supreme Court Applied Medium
Q71

With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :

  1. 1Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. 2It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Correct answer: C

Answer: NALSA — set up under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 (statutory, not constitutional).

  • Objective: free legal aid to weaker sections (Art 39-A DPSP; Art 14, 22 provide equal access to justice).
  • Headed by Chief Justice of India as Patron-in-Chief; Executive Chairman is a sitting/retired SC judge nominated by CJI.

Statements that correctly describe these features are correct.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'free legal aid to weaker sections' ties to Art 39-A — positive, empowering → correct framing. Statutory-Body Suffix — 'Legal Services AUTHORITY' → strong signal it's statutory.

Geography Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems Fundamental Medium
Q72

During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the

  1. 1meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
  2. 2lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
  3. 3violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer: Thunder is produced because LIGHTNING superheats the air along its path, causing rapid expansion → acoustic shockwave = thunder.

  • 'Lightning that separates positive and negative charges' — describes the mechanism of air heating/expansion that causes thunder. Statements matching this are correct.
  • 'Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds' is not the cause of the sound.

Over-Analysis → Paralysis — physics textbook fact — lightning causes thunder via air-expansion. Extreme-Word Rule — claims of 'cloud collision' are physically wrong.

Art and Culture Tribal Culture in India Fundamental Medium
Q73

Consider the following pairs:

#TribeState
1Limboo (Limbu)Sikkim
2KarbiHimachal Pradesh
3DongariaOdisha
4BondaTamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1, 2 and 3 (all pairs correct).

  • Limboo — Sikkim ✓ (an indigenous Sikkimese community)
  • Karbi — Assam ✓ (Karbi Anglong district)
  • Dongaria Kondh — Odisha ✓ (Niyamgiri hills)

All three are correctly matched with their states.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — tribal-state association questions frame tribes positively in their home states — triangulate via well-known tribes (Karbi→Assam is the anchor). Multi-Statement Pattern — with 3 statements, 'all correct' IS less common, but the pairs are standard tribal-studies facts.

Indian Economy Money Demand and Money Supply Fundamental Medium
Q74

Consider the following liquid assets:

  1. 1Demand deposits with the banks
  2. 2Time deposits with the banks
  3. 3Savings deposits with the banks
  4. 4Currency The correct sequence of these decreasing order of Liquidity is
Correct answer: D

Answer: liquidity ranking — cash > demand deposits > savings deposits > time deposits.

  • Demand deposits are part of M1 (highly liquid).
  • Savings deposits are in M2/M3 (moderate liquidity).
  • Time deposits (FDs) are least liquid.
  • Currency held by public is most liquid.

Statements aligning with this ranking are correct.

First Among Equals — broader money-supply categories (M1 < M2 < M3) follow a liquidity ladder. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — monetary-aggregate basics.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Fundamental Easy
Q75

In the context of Indian economy,Open Market Operations’ refers to

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): buying and selling of government securities by the RBI in the open market. OMO = RBI's purchase/sale of Government Securities (G-Secs) in the open market to regulate money supply. BUY → inject liquidity; SELL → absorb liquidity. It is NOT borrowing-by-banks (that's LAF/Repo) or lending-by-banks (retail credit).

Word Association — 'Open Market' = literal open-market buying/selling of securities. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — RBI's standard monetary tool.

Indian Economy Banking Sector in India Applied Medium
Q76

Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): all of the above — agriculture, micro & small enterprises, weaker sections (and also education, housing, export credit, renewable energy). PSL categories per RBI Master Directions cover all sectors listed. Currently 40% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit for scheduled commercial banks.

First Among Equals — 'all of the above' = broader option that subsumes individual categories. UPSC Respects Government Initiative — PSL is a flagship inclusion instrument — all-encompassing framing is correct.

Indian Economy Power and Energy Sector of India Fundamental Medium
Q77

Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): Thermal power plants. Thermal power generation is India's largest industrial water consumer — for cooling systems and steam generation. Estimates put it at ~85% of total industrial water withdrawal (pre-air-cooling retrofits). Paper/pulp and textiles are water-intensive but far smaller in absolute volume than thermal power.

Extreme-Word Rule — verify with scale — thermal power dominates industrial water use. Odd One Out — thermal power stands apart from manufacturing industries in water scale.

Indian Economy Population and Demographic Dividend Fundamental Medium
Q78

To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

Correct answer: A

Answer (d): all of the above — skill development, social security, improving quality of education, and health infrastructure. Demographic dividend = window when working-age population dominates. To REAP it, India needs simultaneously: (i) skills to make youth employable, (ii) health/education investment, (iii) social security to manage risks, (iv) creation of productive jobs. No single-lever answer; requires multi-dimensional policy.

First Among Equals — broader ('all of the above') option subsumes individual levers. Positive & Empowering Keywords — skill development, inclusive growth, social justice → all correct valence.

Art and Culture Indian Dance Forms Fundamental Medium
Q79

In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): early period — 'Tribhanga' ('three-bend') pose — where the body weight shifts in three opposing curves (head, torso, hips) — is a favourite since the earliest Indian sculptural and dance tradition. Seen in Mauryan yakshi figures, the Pataliputra Chauri-bearer, Khajuraho sculptures, and classical Indian dance forms (Odissi especially). Not linked to any one dance form — pan-Indian across sculpture and dance.

Word Association — 'Tribhanga' literally = 'three bends' → directly describes the triple-flex pose. UPSC Favourite Area — sculpture/dance intersection is tested repeatedly.

Modern History Emergence of Gandhi Fundamental Medium
Q80

Annie Besant was

  1. 1responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
  2. 2the founder of the Theo-sophical Society
  3. 3once the President of the Indian National Congress Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.
Correct answer: C

Answer (c): 1 and 3 only.

  • S1 CORRECT: Annie Besant did launch the Home Rule League (Sept 1916, Madras) parallel to Tilak's.
  • S2 WRONG: The Theosophical Society was founded by Madame Blavatsky and H.S. Olcott in 1875 (New York). Besant joined and later became its President (1907), but did NOT 'found' it.
  • S3 CORRECT: Besant was INC President at the Calcutta Session 1917 — first woman President of the INC.

Exchange of Options — S2 swaps 'founder' for 'later President' — classic UPSC property-swap. Odd One Out — among 3 statements one has the most specific, easily-falsified claim ('founder') → target it.

Modern History Expansion and Consolidation of British Power in India Fundamental Easy
Q81

The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): the jurisdiction of Indian judges over European subjects. Ilbert Bill (1883), introduced under Viceroy Ripon, sought to let Indian judges try European defendants — removing racial discrimination in the judicial system. The European community in India erupted in protest, forcing dilution. This was a turning-point radicalising Indian nationalism.

  • (a), (b), (d) describe other colonial measures — not the Ilbert Bill issue.

British in Negative Light / Freedom Fighters in Positive Light — the correct option exposes European-community racism — fits UPSC's framing. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — direct, single-sentence fact.

Indian Economy Inflation Fundamental Medium
Q82

A rise in general level of prices may be caused by

  1. 1an increase in the money supply
  2. 2a decrease in the aggregate level of output
  3. 3an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer: all three causes — (i) increase in money supply (monetary cause), (ii) decrease in aggregate output (supply shock), (iii) increase in effective demand (demand-pull). Classical macro identifies three inflation channels: demand-pull, cost-push, monetary. All statements matching these are correct.

First Among Equals — 'all of the above' covers demand-pull + cost-push + monetary mechanisms. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — textbook macroeconomics.

Indian Economy India's Foreign Exchange and Foreign Trade Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q83

Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

Correct answer: B

Answer (a): Foreign-currency assets + Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) + Reserve Tranche Position + Gold. India's Forex Reserves = FCA (bulk) + Gold + SDRs + RTP with IMF. Do NOT include: loans to foreign governments (different category), domestic bank deposits (not 'foreign'), or private residents' holdings.

Vulnerable Statements — specific institutional composition — verify. Word Association — FCA + Gold + SDRs + RTP is the standard RBI-reported composition.

Indian Economy Inflation Fundamental Medium
Q84

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): creating new money to finance government expenditure (deficit financing via monetisation). Most inflationary tool = printing money / monetising deficit (expands money supply without matching output). Repaying public debt REDUCES money with public (contractionary). Borrowing from public is neutral. Borrowing from foreign sources has currency effects but less direct inflation impact.

Positive Term → Positive Consequence / Negative Term → Negative Consequence — 'printing money' has the strongest NEGATIVE (inflationary) consequence. Odd One Out — money-creation stands out from debt-management options.

Indian Economy Money Demand and Money Supply Fundamental Medium
Q85

Supply of money remammg the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be

Correct answer: B

Answer (c): a decrease in the rate of interest. When demand for money rises but supply is fixed, the 'price' of money — the interest rate — must FALL? No: classical money-demand analysis says when money demand rises and supply is fixed, interest rate RISES to clear the market (people sell bonds → bond prices fall → yields/interest rates rise). The correct option depends on exact wording of the question key.

Assertion–Reason Method — apply supply-demand logic step-by-step — don't guess. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — apply textbook macro.

Science and Technology General Science — Biology Fundamental Easy
Q86

Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): rate of respiration is decreased. Cold storage slows cellular respiration in fruits → less CO2, less ethylene, less water loss, delayed senescence → longer storage life. Temperature is the dominant factor (Q10 rule). Sunlight exposure is not the mechanism; humidity is separately controlled.

Word Association — 'cold storage' = reduced metabolic rate = reduced respiration. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — basic plant physiology.

Environment Wildlife Conservation Applied Medium-Difficult
Q87

Consider the following fauna of India:

  1. 1Gharial
  2. 2Leatherback turtle
  3. 3Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?

Correct answer: C

Answer (a): 1 and 2 — Gharial + Leatherback turtle are both listed in higher IUCN threat categories (Critically Endangered for Gharial, Vulnerable/Endangered for Leatherback).

  • Swamp deer (Barasingha): Vulnerable but not 'Endangered' in the narrower question context.

Answer depends on exact year and IUCN categorisation; UPSC used the then-current list.

Vulnerable Statements — IUCN status is fact-dense and year-sensitive → verify. UPSC Favourite Area — Indian endangered species (gharial + leatherback turtle) are staple UPSC.

Science and Technology General Science — Physics Fundamental Easy
Q88

Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): effective area of contact is reduced (rolling friction ≪ sliding friction). Ball bearings convert sliding contact (large area) to rolling contact (point/line area) → effective contact area is drastically reduced → friction drops → efficiency rises. NOT an increase in actual/effective area.

Word Association — 'ball bearing' → rolling contact → reduced friction/area. Exchange of Options — 'increased vs reduced area' is a classic setter-swap.

Geography Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature Fundamental Medium
Q89

Consider the following phenomena:

  1. 1Size of the sun at dusk
  2. 2Colour of the sun at dawn
  3. 3Moon being visible at dawn
  4. 4Twinkle of stars in the sky
  5. 5Polestar beingvisible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

Correct answer: C

Answer: atmospheric refraction causes —

  • Larger-appearing sun at dusk ✓ (refraction near horizon magnifies)
  • Reddish sun at dawn/dusk ✓ (Rayleigh scattering + refraction)
  • Twinkling of stars ✓ (refraction by turbulent air layers)
  • Moon visible at dawn depends on lunar phase, not refraction per se.

Atmospheric refraction is the common mechanism for most optical phenomena listed.

Word Association — 'atmospheric refraction' links all the listed phenomena. First Among Equals — the option covering ALL refraction-caused phenomena is broader and correct.

Science and Technology General Science — Physics Fundamental Medium
Q90

Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?

  1. 1Dispersion
  2. 2Refraction
  3. 3Internal reflection

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3 — all three phenomena are involved. Rainbow formation: sunlight enters a raindrop, REFRACTS on entering, undergoes TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION off the back of the droplet, then DISPERSES into component colours as it exits (refraction splits wavelengths). All three — dispersion, refraction, internal reflection — work together.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — pick the BROADER option covering all three principles. First Among Equals — option (d) subsumes the others.

Science and Technology General Science — Biology Fundamental Easy
Q91

Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because

Correct answer: C

Answer (c): most root hairs are lost during transplantation. Root hairs (fine, single-cell projections of root epidermis) are the primary site of water/mineral absorption. They are extremely fragile and tear off when seedlings are uprooted → transplantation shock. Shoots don't absorb water; without root hairs, water uptake collapses → wilting/death.

Word Association — 'transplant' → physical disturbance → 'root hairs' (fragile structures). Over-Analysis → Paralysis — standard plant biology.

Indian Economy Economic Growth versus Economic Development Fundamental Difficult
Q92

Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if

Correct answer: C

Answer: economic growth NECESSARILY occurs only if there is CAPITAL ACCUMULATION (or productivity rise) in country X itself — world-level progress, population growth, or external investment do not GUARANTEE growth in X. The option that identifies the NECESSARY internal driver is correct.

Extreme-Word Rule — strict logical necessity narrows the valid options. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — don't confuse 'sufficient' with 'necessary'.

Science and Technology Health and Medical Technology Fundamental Medium-Difficult
Q93

Which of the following statements is / are correct?

  1. 1Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
  2. 2Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
  3. 3Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: A

Answer: viruses — (i) lack enzymes necessary for ATP/energy generation (obligate intracellular parasites), (ii) can be cultured only in LIVING cells (not on artificial media like bacteria), (iii) some can be crystallised (e.g., TMV — first crystallised by W.M. Stanley 1935). Statements matching these virology facts are correct.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — broad, correct claims about viral biology. Over-Analysis → Paralysis — standard textbook virology.

Environment Natural Ecosystems Fundamental Medium
Q94

Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?

  1. 1Hard and waxy leaves
  2. 2Tiny leaves or no leaves
  3. 3Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct answer: D

Answer: desert leaf modifications — hard and waxy cuticle (reduces transpiration), tiny leaves or spines (reduce surface area), thick cuticle, sunken stomata — all CORRECT.

  • Cactus: leaves reduced to spines; photosynthesis shifted to stem.
  • Acacia, Euphorbia: tiny waxy leaves.

Statements describing these xerophytic adaptations are right.

Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'adaptation', 'conservation of water' — positive valence → correct. Hard to Verify / Disprove — general biology descriptions are hard to disprove.

Science and Technology General Science — Physics Fundamental Easy
Q95

The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. with reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): Gravity is the strongest of the four — this is WRONG (the question asks for the NOT-correct statement). Gravity is the WEAKEST of the four fundamental forces — ~10^-39 of the strong nuclear force. But it acts over infinite range and dominates at astronomical scales. Correct picture: Strong > Electromagnetic > Weak > Gravity (by strength).

Extreme-Word Rule — exclusive claim → scrutinise. Positive Term → Positive Consequence / Negative Term → Negative Consequence — 'gravity = strongest' contradicts standard physics framing.

Current Affairs Science & Tech CA · Advanced Medium
Q96

The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is /are the importance/importances of discovering this particle?

  1. 1It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass. technology to transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
  2. 3It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Correct answer: A

Answer (a): 1 only — Higgs boson discovery helps us understand why elementary particles have mass (via interaction with the Higgs field).

  • Statement 2 (transporting matter without traversing space / 'teleportation') is SCIENCE FICTION, not physics.
  • Statement 3 (better nuclear fission fuels) is unrelated to Higgs physics.

Only the mass-generation insight is the genuine significance.

Extreme-Word Rule — stmts with sci-fi leaps ('teleportation', 'unlimited potential') signal incorrectness when paired with real physics. Odd One Out — S1 (grounded physics) stands apart from S2S3 (fantasy).

Science and Technology Biotechnology Applied Medium-Difficult
Q97

Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to

  1. 1resist drought and increase absorptive area
  2. 2tolerate extremes of PH
  3. 3Resist disease infestation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Correct answer: D

Answer (d): 1, 2 and 3 — mycorrhizal symbiosis enables plants to (i) resist drought (fungal hyphae absorb water from wider soil volume), (ii) improve phosphorus and micronutrient uptake, (iii) tolerate heavy metals in polluted/degraded soils. All three mechanisms are well-documented in bioremediation literature.

Science = Futuristic/Evolving — biotech applications → broad, inclusive answers favoured. First Among Equals — 'all three' captures the full spectrum of mycorrhizal benefits. Positive & Empowering Keywords — 'rehabilitation', 'conservation', 'sustainability' → correct valence.

Indian Polity NITI Aayog Applied Medium
Q98

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. 1The Prime Minister
  2. 2The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. 3Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. 4Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Correct answer: B

Answer: NDC members = PM (Chairman) + all Union Cabinet Ministers + all CMs of States + Administrators of UTs + Members of the Planning Commission. Finance Commission Chairman is NOT a member of NDC.

  • S1 CORRECT: PM is the Chairman.
  • S2 WRONG: FC Chairman not in NDC.
  • S3 CORRECT: Cabinet Ministers are members.

Exchange of Options — Finance Commission vs Planning Commission conflation is the classic trap — NDC is wired to Planning Commission, not FC. Contemporary Names — similar-sounding bodies used to confuse.

Indian Economy National Income Fundamental Medium
Q99

The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the

Correct answer: D

Answer (a): the total value of goods and services produced by the nationals of the country — this is GNP/National Income concept (by nationals, regardless of location). Distinguish: GDP (domestic territory, all producers) vs GNP (nationals, wherever). National Income = NNP at factor cost (by residents).

Exchange of Options — GDP-vs-GNP property swap is the classic trap — check 'domestic territory' vs 'nationals'. Word Association — 'National' income → 'nationals' (people), not 'domestic' (territory).

Indian Economy Agriculture and Allied Sectors in India Applied Medium
Q100

Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households ?

  1. 1Regional Rural Banks
  2. 2National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. 3Land Development Banks

Select the correct anser using the codes given below:

Correct answer: C

Answer: Direct credit to rural households is provided by —

  • RRBs ✓ directly retail agriculture and rural credit
  • NABARD ✗ — apex refinance institution; does NOT lend directly to households, lends to RRBs/co-ops/banks
  • Land Development Banks ✓ directly lend for long-term agri development

Statements identifying NABARD as a direct-lender are wrong.

Exchange of Options — NABARD's role (refinance, NOT direct retail) is a classic setter swap. Odd One Out — NABARD stands apart as an apex/refinance institution, not a retail lender.

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