Answer (C): All three. All three vehicle types are ALTERNATIVE POWERTRAIN VEHICLES — they use non-conventional propulsion systems replacing traditional internal combustion engines (ICE):

• Full Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) — powered entirely by electricity stored in batteries. No ICE. ✓
• Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCEVs) — hydrogen + oxygen → electricity → electric motor. No ICE. ✓
• Fuel Cell-Electric Hybrid Vehicles — combine fuel cell and battery; also non-ICE. ✓

All three qualify as alternative powertrains.

Answer (D): None of the statements are correct.

• S1 WRONG: NOT all UAVs can do vertical landing. Fixed-wing UAVs require a runway (like conventional aircraft); only rotary-wing drones do vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL).
• S2 WRONG: NOT all UAVs can do automated hovering. Fixed-wing UAVs cannot hover; hovering is limited to multirotor/helicopter drones.
• S3 WRONG: NOT all UAVs use only battery as power. Many UAVs use fuel (petrol, diesel, jet fuel), hydrogen cells, or hybrid systems. Military UAVs often use jet fuel.

Answer (C): Only three — Cobalt, Lithium, Nickel (not Graphite). In lithium-ion EV batteries:

• Cobalt ✓ — used in cathode materials (LCO, NMC, NCA chemistries).
• Graphite ✗ — used in the ANODE (negative electrode), NOT the cathode.
• Lithium ✓ — present in cathode compounds (LiCoO₂, LiFePO₄, LiNiMnCoO₂).
• Nickel ✓ — used in cathodes (NMC = Nickel Manganese Cobalt; NCA = Nickel Cobalt Aluminium).

The cathode = positive electrode, typically Li + Ni + Co + Mn/Al combinations. Graphite belongs to the anode.

Answer (C): All three contain plastic.

• Cigarette butts ✓ — filters are made of CELLULOSE ACETATE, a form of plastic. They are the world's most littered item and a toxic microplastic source.
• Eyeglass lenses ✓ — most modern lenses are made of CR-39, polycarbonate, or Trivex — all plastics. Traditional glass lenses have largely been replaced.
• Car tyres ✓ — tyres contain synthetic rubber (a polymer/plastic), and tyre wear particles account for 28% of microplastics entering the environment.

Answer (B): Only two — Ethanol and Urea (not Nitroglycerine). Coal gasification produces SYNGAS (CO + H₂) which can be used to manufacture:

• Ethanol ✓ — via fermentation of syngas using anaerobic microorganisms (e.g., Synata Bio technology).
• Nitroglycerine ✗ — nitroglycerine (C₃H₅N₃O₉) is a nitrate ester explosive; its synthesis requires glycerol + nitric/sulfuric acid mixture. This is NOT derived from syngas/coal gasification chemistry.
• Urea ✓ — syngas → ammonia (Haber-Bosch process) → urea (CO₂ + NH₃). Coal gasification is a major industrial route for ammonia and urea fertilizer production.

Answer (B): These are explosives in military weapons.

• CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane) — one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives; cage-structured nitramine developed by US Navy in the 1980s.
• HMX (High Melting Explosive / Octogen) — widely used high-energy nitramine explosive with very high detonation velocity.
• LLM-105 — another high-energy insensitive explosive used in military applications.

All three are HIGH-ENERGY EXPLOSIVES used in military munitions. They are NOT refrigerants, cruise missile fuels, or rocket propellants (though HMX can appear in solid rocket boosters, their primary characterisation is as explosives).

Answer (C): Statements I and III only.

• S1 CORRECT: The Majorana 1 chip uses Majorana fermions (exotic topological quantum particles) for topological quantum computing — expected to enable more stable, error-resistant quantum computation.
• S2 WRONG: Majorana 1 chip is developed by MICROSOFT (in collaboration with researchers at Station Q), NOT Amazon Web Services (AWS). AWS has its own quantum computing initiative (Amazon Braket) but is not responsible for the Majorana chip.
• S3 CORRECT: Deep learning IS a subset of machine learning that uses multi-layered artificial neural networks for tasks like image recognition and natural language processing.

Answer (D): All three statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: Monoclonal antibodies ARE man-made (laboratory-engineered) proteins — cloned from a single B-cell clone.
• S2 CORRECT: They bind to SPECIFIC ANTIGENS (on viruses, bacteria, cancer cells) — this targeted binding stimulates/modulates immunological function.
• S3 CORRECT: mAbs ARE used to treat viral infections including Nipah virus (e.g., m102.4 monoclonal antibody has been used in Nipah cases). They are widely used for cancer, autoimmune disorders, and infectious diseases.

Answer (D): None of the statements are correct.

• S1 WRONG: Viruses CAN and DO survive in ocean waters. Marine viruses (especially bacteriophages) are the MOST NUMEROUS biological entities in the ocean — over 10³¹ virus-like particles in the ocean. They regulate microbial populations and nutrient cycles.
• S2 WRONG: Viruses CAN infect bacteria — these are called BACTERIOPHAGES (phages), which are abundant in all ecosystems.
• S3 WRONG: Many viruses DO alter cellular transcriptional activity. For example, HIV, herpes viruses, and many others hijack host transcription machinery as part of their replication cycle.

Answer (A): Both S2 and S3 correct AND both explain S1.

• S1 CORRECT: Activated carbon is an excellent tool for removing pollutants from effluent streams and remediating industrial contaminants.
• S2 CORRECT: Activated carbon has an enormous surface area (up to 3000 m²/g) AND strong adsorptive potential for heavy metals.
• S3 CORRECT: Activated carbon CAN be synthesised from agricultural/environmental wastes with high carbon content (coconut shells, coal, wood, biochar, etc.).

Both S2 and S3 independently explain S1: the large surface area explains adsorption efficacy; the ease of synthesis from waste explains why it's 'attractive' and economical.

Answer (A): Both S2 and S3 correct AND both explain S1.

• S1 CORRECT: Cement industry accounts for ~8% of global CO₂ emissions (>5%). The question states S1 as correct.
• S2 CORRECT: Silica-bearing clay IS mixed with limestone in cement manufacturing (Portland cement = limestone + clay/shale + gypsum).
• S3 CORRECT: During clinker production, limestone (CaCO₃) IS heated (calcination) to produce lime (CaO) + CO₂. This calcination releases large amounts of CO₂.

Both S2 and S3 explain S1: the high-temperature calcination (S3) releases CO₂ from limestone; the silica-clay process (S2) also requires intense heat. Together they drive the >5% global emissions share.

Answer (C): Only one of S2/S3 correct, and it explains S1.

• S1 CORRECT: India did refrain from signing the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health.
• S2 WRONG: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is NOT a binding declaration — it is a voluntary/non-binding declaration. Countries that sign are not legally mandated to do anything.
• S3 CORRECT: India's reasoning was that decarbonising its health sector prematurely could COMPROMISE the resilience of its healthcare system (especially given energy access challenges in rural health facilities).

Only S3 (correct) explains S1 — India's concern about health system resilience is the actual reason for not signing.

Answer (B): Both S2 and S3 correct, but only ONE explains S1.

• S1 CORRECT: Earth's rotation axis is indeed shifting (polar wander) and days are lengthening slightly.
• S2 CORRECT: Solar flares and coronal mass ejections do bombard Earth's outer atmosphere with energy — scientifically accurate.
• S3 CORRECT: As polar ice melts, water redistributes towards the equator (due to centrifugal effects) — scientifically accurate and is a known contributor to polar wander.

However: S3 (melting ice → equatorial water redistribution) is the direct explanation for the axial shift and day-lengthening. S2 (solar flares) is correct as a scientific fact but does NOT directly explain the polar axis shift described in S1.

Answer (A): Both S2 and S3 correct AND both explain S1.

• S1 CORRECT: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is indeed frequently discussed in global climate negotiations.
• S2 CORRECT: Article 6 establishes the principles and framework for INTERNATIONAL CARBON MARKETS — including ITMOs (Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes).
• S3 CORRECT: Article 6 also promotes NON-MARKET approaches (Article 6.8) for inter-country cooperation to reach climate targets — sustainable development, policy coordination, etc.

Both S2 and S3 explain why Article 6 is frequently discussed: it covers both market (carbon credits) and non-market (cooperative strategies) pathways, making it central to climate diplomacy.

Answer (A): The Asian Development Bank (ADB). The ADB launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific' at COP28 with a target of attracting at least $2 billion into nature-based solution investment programmes. The Hub uses de-risking instruments (guarantees, impact-linked payments, blended finance) to attract private capital into nature-based solutions projects.

• AIIB, NDB, IBRD are other multilateral development banks but were not the initiators of this specific hub.

Answer (C): All three statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: Direct Air Capture (DAC) IS a carbon sequestration technology — it extracts CO₂ directly from ambient air for permanent geological storage.
• S2 CORRECT: Captured CO₂ CAN be used as feedstock for plastics production and in food processing (carbonation, greenhouse enrichment).
• S3 CORRECT: In aviation, captured CO₂ can be combined with hydrogen (via Fischer-Tropsch or similar processes) to create SYNTHETIC LOW-CARBON AVIATION FUEL (SAF).

Answer (D): Statements II and III only.

• S1 WRONG: The Gooty/Peacock tarantula is a SPIDER (Arachnid), NOT a crustacean. It is carnivorous (feeds on insects), NOT omnivorous.
• S2 CORRECT: Its natural habitat is LIMITED to a small (<100 km²) patch of deciduous forest in Andhra Pradesh — critically endangered due to habitat loss and illegal pet trade.
• S3 CORRECT: It IS an ARBOREAL species — it lives in trees, making burrows/tubes in tree bark, preferring hollow bamboo or tree cavities.

Answer (C): Statements II and III only.

• S1 WRONG: India's per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 2 TONNES CO₂/capita (2022) — NOT less than 0.5 t. The global average is 4.7 t, and India is below it but well above 0.5 t.
• S2 CORRECT: In terms of total CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks SECOND in the Asia-Pacific region (after China).
• S3 CORRECT: Electricity and heat production IS the largest sectoral source of CO₂ emissions in India (coal-fired power plants dominate).

Answer (B): Only three pairs correctly matched.

• Pair I — Cassava/Woody shrub: CORRECT. Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is indeed a woody shrub.
• Pair II — Ginger/Herb with pseudostem: CORRECT. Ginger is a perennial herb with a pseudostem (formed by tightly packed leaf bases).
• Pair III — Malabar spinach/Herbaceous climber: CORRECT. Basella alba is a fast-growing herbaceous climber.
• Pair IV — Mint/Annual shrub: WRONG. Mint (Mentha) is a PERENNIAL HERB, not an annual shrub.
• Pair V — Papaya/Woody shrub: WRONG. Papaya is a LARGE HERBACEOUS PLANT (often called a tree, but technically a large herb with a soft, non-woody stem).

Three correct: I, II, III.

Answer (B): Statement II only.

• S1 WRONG: Rainforests do NOT produce more oxygen than oceans. OCEANS produce approximately 50–80% of Earth's oxygen (mainly via marine phytoplankton, algae, and Prochlorococcus bacteria). Tropical rainforests are often net carbon stores but do NOT dominate global oxygen production.
• S2 CORRECT: Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen — this is the standard scientific estimate.
• S3 WRONG: Well-oxygenated surface ocean water contains dissolved oxygen of ~8–12 mg/L, which is far LOWER than atmospheric oxygen concentration (≈270 mg/L equivalent). Surface water is not 'several folds higher' in oxygen than air.

Answer (C): Both statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: Raja Ram Mohan Roy had deep reverence for the traditional philosophical systems of the East — he studied Sanskrit, Persian, and Vedanta, and wrote the 'Vedanta-Sar' defending Upanishadic monotheism.
• S2 CORRECT: He also embraced Western rationalism, science, and the principles of human dignity and social equality — advocating for women's rights, abolition of sati, education reform.

His genius lay in synthesising Eastern tradition with Western rationalism — both statements are accurate aspects of his complex legacy.

Answer (C): Only three — I, II, and IV (not III). Non-Cooperation Programme items:

• I CORRECT: Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth — official programme.
• II CORRECT: Observance of strict non-violence — a Gandhian core principle of the NCM.
• III WRONG: The programme called for SURRENDER/RETURN of titles and honours — NOT 'retention without using them in public.' Participants were required to give up their titles entirely.
• IV CORRECT: Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes — alternative institutions to British courts were to be set up.

Three correct: I, II, IV.

Answer (B): A large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes. The 'Araghatta' (also Araghatta or Persian wheel) was a traditional Indian irrigation device — a large wheel with earthen pots attached to its outer rim/spokes. As the wheel revolved (driven by bullocks), the pots scooped up water from a well and discharged it into a trough at the top. The name combines 'ara' (spoke) + 'ghatta' (pot).

• Option (a) describes a leather bag/pulley system (shaduf variant).
• Option (c) describes a different type of large pot device.
• Option (d) describes a simple bucket-and-rope system (mot).

Answer (A): Mahendravarman I. Mahendravarman I (600–630 CE), a Pallava king, assumed numerous titles including:

• Mattavilasa — his satirical drama 'Mattavilasa Prahasanam' bears this title.
• Vichitrachitta — 'one with a wonderful/variegated mind'; his Mandagappattu inscription uses this epithet.
• Gunabhara — 'treasury of virtues.'

He was also known as Chitrakarapuli (tiger among painters) — a builder of rock-cut temples and Sanskrit scholar.

Answer (B): Chandragupta II. Fa-Hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, visited India during the reign of CHANDRAGUPTA II (Vikramaditya, r. 375–415 CE) during the Gupta Empire's golden age. He arrived c. 399–414 CE in search of Buddhist manuscripts and described a prosperous, peaceful India.

• Samudragupta — military conqueror (c. 335–375 CE); Fa-Hien's visit was after his reign.
• Kumaragupta I — Chandragupta II's successor; Fa-Hien had already left.
• Skandagupta — later Gupta ruler; post-Fa-Hien.

Answer (C): Rajendra I (Chola). Rajendra Chola I (also known as Gangaikonda Chola and Kadaram Kondan) led a successful naval expedition c. 1025 CE against SRIVIJAYA — a powerful Malay-Sumatran maritime empire controlling trade routes between India and China. Rajendra's campaign against Srivijaya is one of the most famous medieval Indian naval operations.

• Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta) — great ruler but no Srivijaya campaign.
• Prataparudra (Kakatiya) — Telugu ruler; no maritime Southeast Asian campaigns.
• Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) — known for Belur/Halebid temples, not naval campaigns.

Answer (B): Only two pairs correctly matched — I (Asmaka/Godavari) and IV (Kosala/Sarayu).

• Pair I — Asmaka/Godavari: CORRECT. Asmaka was one of the 16 Mahajanapadas located in South India on the Godavari river banks.
• Pair II — Kamboja/Vipas: WRONG. Kamboja was in the northwest (Afghanistan-Kashmir region); the Vipas (Beas) flows through Punjab but does not run through Kamboja's core territory.
• Pair III — Avanti/Mahanadi: WRONG. Avanti (modern Malwa/Ujjain) was watered by the SHIPRA (Kshipra) river, not Mahanadi. Mahanadi flows through Chhattisgarh/Odisha.
• Pair IV — Kosala/Sarayu: CORRECT. Kosala (capital Ayodhya/Shravasti) was located on the Sarayu river in modern UP.

Answer (D): Lahore. Vishnu Digambar Paluskar (1872–1931), a pioneering Hindustani classical musician, established the FIRST Gandharva Mahavidyalaya on 5 May 1901 in LAHORE (then in undivided India). He is credited with reviving Hindustani classical music and making it accessible to common people. He also arranged 'Raghupati Raghava Raja Ram' and organised the national song Vande Mataram. Note: The Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in New Delhi was established in 1939 — this is a different, later institution.

Answer (B): District-level administration. Ashokan inscriptions (especially Rock Edicts) mention three key officers:

• Pradeshika — the head/superintendent of a district or province (similar to a collector).
• Rajuka — an important officer responsible for revenue and justice in rural areas at the district level.
• Yukta — a subordinate officer who assisted the Pradeshika and Rajuka in district administration.

All three operated primarily at the DISTRICT LEVEL, forming the core of Mauryan local administration.

Answer (C): Both statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: At the Congress session at Nagpur (December 1920), the Congress formally adopted the NCM and declared attainment of 'SWARAJ by all legitimate and peaceful means' as its objective — replacing the earlier Dominion Status goal.
• S2 CORRECT: Gandhi declared the movement would be implemented in stages: if Swaraj was not achieved within a year OR if the government resorted to repression, the NEXT STAGE would involve civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes.

Answer (B): Only two — Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). SEBI defines AIFs as privately pooled investment vehicles investing in non-public markets, complex instruments, with high risk — for ultra high net-worth and institutional investors.

• Bonds ✗ — traditional debt instruments, NOT AIFs.
• Hedge Funds ✓ — Category III AIF under SEBI AIF Regulations 2012.
• Stocks ✗ — traditional equity instruments listed on exchanges, NOT AIFs.
• Venture Capital ✓ — Category I AIF under SEBI AIF Regulations 2012.

AIFs are the 'alternative' to conventional stocks and bonds.

Answer (D): I, II and V — Buying/selling G-secs, Buying/selling foreign currency, and Printing currency notes. RBI income sources:

• I ✓ — Open Market Operations (buying/selling G-secs): interest income + capital gains.
• II ✓ — Forex operations (buying/selling foreign currency): profits from exchange rate differentials.
• III ✗ — Pension fund management: NOT an RBI function. PFRDA manages pension funds.
• IV ✗ — Lending to private companies: RBI does not lend to private companies (only to banks/government).
• V ✓ — Printing currency notes: RBI earns seigniorage (the profit from issuing currency).

Answer (A): Only one row correctly matched — Row II.

• Row I — Directorate of Enforcement/Internal Security Division-I, MHA: WRONG. The ED operates under the DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE, MINISTRY OF FINANCE — not MHA. While ED enforces FEMA, PMLA, and FEOA, it sits under Finance Ministry.
• Row II — Directorate of Revenue Intelligence/Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance: CORRECT. DRI enforces the Customs Act under Revenue Dept, Finance Ministry.
• Row III — Directorate General of Systems and Data Management/Department of Revenue: WRONG. DGSDM (or similar data analytics units) for tax intelligence falls under CBDT/CBIC under Finance Ministry's Revenue Department, but UPSC's explanation indicates this row is also not correctly matched — the organisation exists but the functional description may be mismatched.

Answer (B): Statement II only.

• S1 WRONG: It is SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), NOT the RBI, that mandates listed companies to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). SEBI introduced BRSR via amendment to LODR Regulations in 2021 for the top 1000 listed companies.
• S2 CORRECT: BRSR disclosures are largely NON-FINANCIAL in nature — they cover ESG (Environmental, Social, Governance) parameters, enabling investors to make better-informed decisions beyond purely financial metrics.

Answer (D): Statement I incorrect, Statement II correct.

• S1 WRONG: In India, income from ALLIED agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing is NOT automatically exempt from tax. Agricultural income (direct cultivation) is exempt under Section 10(1) of the IT Act, but allied activities (poultry, livestock, fisheries) are separately assessed — they are generally TAXABLE unless specifically qualifying as agricultural income.
• S2 CORRECT: Rural agricultural land is NOT considered a CAPITAL ASSET under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Since it is not a capital asset, its transfer does not attract capital gains tax.

Answer (C): Statements I and III only.

• S1 CORRECT: India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) as its 14th member in June 2023.
• S2 WRONG: India is NOT resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals it has identified. India is deficient in several, including lithium, cobalt, and nickel — which is precisely why it joined the MSP.
• S3 CORRECT: Parliament amended the MMDR Act, 1957 in 2023, giving the Central Government exclusive power to auction mining leases and composite licenses for critical minerals.

Answer (A): Both S2 and S3 correct AND both explain S1.

• S1 CORRECT: Bondholders are at lower risk than stockholders — standard financial principle.
• S2 CORRECT: Bondholders are LENDERS (debt holders) while stockholders are OWNERS (equity holders) of a company.
• S3 CORRECT: In case of company dissolution/bankruptcy, BONDHOLDERS are prioritised (paid first) over stockholders.

Both S2 and S3 explain S1: bondholders are lower risk BECAUSE they are lenders (not owners) (S2) AND BECAUSE they have repayment priority (S3).

Answer (A): Statements I and II only.

• S1 CORRECT: India accounts for a very large portion of global equity option contracts — over 84% of all equity options traded globally were on Indian exchanges in Q1 2024.
• S2 CORRECT: India's stock market overtook Hong Kong's at some point — India became world's 4th largest stock market in January 2024 ($4.33 trillion vs Hong Kong's $4.29 trillion).
• S3 WRONG: SEBI DOES act as a regulatory body — it warns investors, regulates advisors, and takes action against unregistered financial advisors. The claim 'no regulatory body' is factually false.

Answer (A): Both S2 and S3 correct AND both explain S1.

• S1 CORRECT: Circular economy does reduce GHG emissions.
• S2 CORRECT: Circular economy reduces use of raw materials (through reuse, recycling, repair — retaining material value).
• S3 CORRECT: Circular economy reduces wastage in production (by designing out waste, using closed-loop systems).

Both S2 and S3 explain S1: fewer raw materials extracted (S2) = less energy-intensive mining/processing = fewer emissions; less production waste (S3) = less landfill methane + less energy use = fewer emissions.

Answer (A): Statements I and II only.

• S1 CORRECT: Capital receipts DO create a liability (borrowings must be repaid) or reduce assets (disinvestment reduces govt's shareholding). Correct definition.
• S2 CORRECT: Borrowings AND disinvestment are both capital receipts — borrowings create liabilities; disinvestment reduces assets.
• S3 WRONG: Interest received on loans is REVENUE RECEIPT (non-tax revenue), NOT a capital receipt. It does NOT create a liability — it's income the government earns.

Answer (B): Only four are NATO members. NATO membership status:

• Austria ✗ — NOT a NATO member; constitutionally neutral since 1955.
• Bulgaria ✓ — NATO member since 2004.
• Croatia ✓ — NATO member since 2009.
• Serbia ✗ — NOT a NATO member; follows a military neutrality policy.
• Sweden ✓ — NATO member since March 2024 (32nd member).
• North Macedonia ✓ — NATO member since 2020.

Four members: Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, North Macedonia.

Answer (C): Only four — Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela have Andes running through them. The Andes pass through 7 South American countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, Argentina. From the listed countries:

• Bolivia ✓ — Andes pass through.
• Brazil ✗ — Andes do NOT pass through Brazil (Brazil has the Guiana Highlands and Brazilian Highlands, not Andes).
• Colombia ✓ — Andes pass through.
• Ecuador ✓ — Andes pass through (Ecuador = equatorial Andes).
• Paraguay ✗ — Andes do NOT pass through Paraguay (landlocked lowland country).
• Venezuela ✓ — Northern branch of Andes passes through.

Four countries: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, Venezuela.

Answer (D): None — the equator passes through none of the three.

• Lake Tanganyika — located in East Africa between Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, Zambia. Its northernmost point is approximately 3°S latitude — just south of the equator, NOT crossed by it.
• Lake Tonlé Sap — in central Cambodia, approximately 12–13°N latitude — well NORTH of the equator.
• Patos Lagoon — in southern Brazil (Rio Grande do Sul), approximately 30–32°S latitude — well SOUTH of the equator.

The equator passes through none of them.

Answer (D): All three statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: India IS the largest producer, consumer AND exporter of turmeric (62%+ share of world trade).
• S2 CORRECT: More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India across 20+ states.
• S3 CORRECT: Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu ARE the major turmeric-producing states.

Answer (C): All three are evidences of continental drift.

• I CORRECT: The belt of ancient rocks (2000 million years) from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa — classic matching coastlines evidence.
• II CORRECT: Gold deposits of Ghana are believed to be derived from the Brazil plateau — the two continents once lay side by side and share mineral deposits.
• III CORRECT: Gondwana system sediments (Glossopteris flora, etc.) found in India have counterparts in Africa, South America, Antarctica, Australia, Madagascar — six different southern landmasses confirming they were once joined.

Answer (C): Statement I correct, Statement II incorrect.

• S1 CORRECT: Dust particles in the atmosphere are MORE concentrated in SUBTROPICAL and TEMPERATE regions (due to dry winds and arid/semi-arid conditions) compared to equatorial (humid) and polar (frozen) regions.
• S2 WRONG: Subtropical and temperate areas actually have MORE dry winds (not less). The explanation for more dust is PRECISELY the dry, dusty winds in these zones — deserts, grasslands, agricultural dust sources. S2 inverts the actual relationship.

Answer (A): Both statements correct AND Statement II explains Statement I.

• S1 CORRECT: In January (Northern Hemisphere winter), isotherms BEND EQUATORWARD over landmasses (land cools faster → cooler → isotherms shift toward equator) and POLEWARD over oceans (oceans retain heat → warmer → isotherms shift toward poles).
• S2 CORRECT: In January, the Northern Hemisphere land cools rapidly; oceans retain heat. So air over oceans IS warmer than over landmasses in winter.
• S2 explains S1: isotherms bend poleward over oceans BECAUSE ocean air is warmer in January; isotherms bend equatorward over land BECAUSE land air is cooler.

Answer (C): Only one of S2/S3 correct, and it explains S1.

• S1 CORRECT: Chalk IS permeable; clay IS impermeable (least permeable).
• S2 CORRECT: Chalk IS porous — water can be absorbed and held in its pores. This explains its permeability. ✓
• S3 WRONG: Clay IS actually porous (it has fine pores). However, clay is IMPERMEABLE because its pores are too small and poorly connected, preventing water from flowing through. The statement 'Clay is NOT AT ALL porous' is factually incorrect.

Only S2 (correct) explains S1 — chalk's permeability is due to its porosity.

Answer (C): All three statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing everywhere — no greenhouse effect = average Earth temp would be about −18°C instead of +15°C.
• S2 CORRECT: Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere DOES maintain Earth's average temperature — this is the basic greenhouse mechanism.
• S3 CORRECT: Atmosphere's gases (CO₂, water vapour, methane) ARE particularly good at absorbing and trapping longwave radiation — the greenhouse effect.

Answer (C): Both statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) IS aimed at upliftment of rural poor — more than 80% of low-producing indigenous animals are with small/marginal farmers and landless labourers.
• S2 CORRECT: RGM was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a SCIENTIFIC AND HOLISTIC MANNER, with focus on Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar breeds.

Answer (D): ALL three statements are NOT correct (question asks for incorrect ones).

• S1 NOT CORRECT: Panchayats at intermediate level do NOT exist in all states. Article 243B allows states with populations ≤20 lakh to have only two tiers (village + district), omitting the intermediate level. Small states like Goa, Sikkim, Manipur do not have intermediate panchayats.
• S2 NOT CORRECT: Eligibility age for Panchayat membership is 21 years (not 30). 30 years is the minimum age for Rajya Sabha membership.
• S3 NOT CORRECT: It is the GOVERNOR (not the Chief Minister) who constitutes the State Finance Commission to review Panchayat finances and make distribution recommendations.

Answer (D): Only Statement I is correct.

• S1 CORRECT: BIMSTEC has SEVEN member states as of January 2025 — Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Nepal, Bhutan.
• S2 WRONG: BIMSTEC came into existence with the BANGKOK DECLARATION, 1997 (NOT Dhaka Declaration, 1999). It was initially called BIST-EC.
• S3 WRONG: Founding members (1997) were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand. Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004; Myanmar in December 1997. Nepal is NOT a founding member.
• S4 WRONG: Tourism subsector in BIMSTEC is led by INDIA is debatable — trade/investment is led by India; tourism sector leadership is Myanmar. S4's claim about India leading tourism is incorrect.

Answer (C): II, III and IV — Prime Minister, Chief Justice of India, and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha. Gandhi Peace Prize Jury composition:

• Prime Minister of India — Chairperson ✓ (II)
• Chief Justice of India ✓ (III)
• Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha ✓ (IV)
• Two eminent persons nominated by the PM

The PRESIDENT of India is NOT a member of the Gandhi Peace Prize jury. The President of India is a constitutional head who does not sit on award juries.

Answer (D): Statements I and II only.

• S1 CORRECT: GAGAN is designed to provide additional ACCURACY and INTEGRITY to GPS signals over Indian airspace — key objectives of any SBAS.
• S2 CORRECT: GAGAN enables more UNIFORM AND HIGH-QUALITY AIR TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT by providing reliable navigation data to aircraft.
• S3 WRONG: GAGAN provides benefits NOT ONLY in aviation — it also benefits land transportation, maritime navigation, and surveying. SBAS signals are broadly usable.

Answer (A): Statement I only.

• S1 CORRECT: The AI Action Summit (Grand Palais, Paris, February 10–11, 2025) was CO-CHAIRED BY FRANCE AND INDIA, building on the Bletchley Park Summit (UK, 2023) and the Seoul Summit (2024).
• S2 WRONG: The USA and UK DID NOT sign the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. They declined to sign due to national security and other concerns about the language of the declaration.

Answer (D): All four pairs correctly matched.

• I ✓ — International Year of the Woman Farmer: 2026 (UN General Assembly declared).
• II ✓ — International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: 2027 (UN declared).
• III ✓ — International Year of Peace and Trust: 2025 (declared by UN).
• IV ✓ — International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: 2029 (declared by UN).

All four are correctly matched.

Answer (A): Statements I and II only.

• S1 CORRECT: 16th BRICS Summit was held in KAZAN, Russia under Russia's chairship (October 22–24, 2024).
• S2 CORRECT: Indonesia HAS become a full member of BRICS (announced during 2024–25 by Brazil's BRICS presidency).
• S3 WRONG: The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was 'Strengthening MULTILATERALISM for Just Global Development and Security' — the word is MULTILATERALISM, not 'multiculturalism.' A single-letter difference, deliberate word swap.

Answer (A): Statement III only — age not less than 45 years.

• S1 WRONG: Lokpal's jurisdiction DOES extend to Indian public servants posted OUTSIDE India — the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 covers all public servants regardless of posting location.
• S2 WRONG: The Chairperson of Lokpal is NOT required to be the Chief Justice of India. The Chairperson must be a former CJI OR an eminent person with impeccable integrity — it need not be the CJI. Also, the statement about 'only the CJI' being eligible is factually wrong.
• S3 CORRECT: The Chairperson or Member shall not be less than FORTY-FIVE YEARS of age. ✓
• S4 WRONG: Lokpal CAN inquire into allegations against a sitting Prime Minister (with certain safeguards — full bench, approved by 2/3 majority, in camera proceedings).

Answer (A): Statement I only.

• S1 CORRECT: The first Kho Kho World Cup was held in NEW DELHI (Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium), India in January 2025.
• S2 WRONG: In the MEN's final, India beat Nepal 54–36 (NOT 78–40). The 78–40 score was in the WOMEN's final.
• S3 WRONG: In the WOMEN's final, India beat Nepal 78–40 (NOT 54–36). The two scores are swapped between S2 and S3.

Answer (B): Statement II only.

• S1 WRONG: In the 45th Chess Olympiad (held in Budapest, Hungary 2024), India won gold in both open and women's categories — but by defeating Slovenia, NOT by Gukesh defeating Nepomniachtchi. The individual World Chess Championship (where Gukesh defeated Ding Liren of China) was a SEPARATE event held in Singapore in December 2024.
• S2 CORRECT: Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player of Indian origin, holds the record of becoming the YOUNGEST-EVER GRANDMASTER (at age 12 years, 4 months, 25 days in 2021).

Answer (A): Both statements correct AND Statement II explains Statement I.

• S1 CORRECT: Rare earth elements (Europium, Terbium, Yttrium, etc.) ARE used in flat panel displays, television screens and computer monitors — they provide the red, green, blue phosphorescence needed for image reproduction.
• S2 CORRECT: Several rare earth elements DO have PHOSPHORESCENT properties (they can absorb energy and re-emit it as visible light).
• S2 explains S1: REEs are used in flat panel displays and monitors BECAUSE they possess phosphorescent properties that enable light emission for image creation.

Answer (A): Statements I and II are NOT correct (question asks which are not correct).

• S1 NOT CORRECT: The National Rail Plan targets creating a future-ready railway system by 2030 (NOT 2028).
• S2 NOT CORRECT: Kavach was developed INDIGENOUSLY by RDSO (Research Designs and Standards Organisation) in collaboration with the Indian industry — NOT in collaboration with Germany.
• S3 CORRECT: Kavach system DOES consist of RFID tags fitted on tracks and at stations — this is a correct technical description of the system.

Answer (C): All three space missions support micro-gravity research.

• Axiom-4 ✓ — Private mission to ISS; carries experiments in medicine, materials science, and biology under microgravity conditions.
• SpaDeX ✓ — ISRO's Space Docking Experiment; while primarily a docking technology demo, microgravity effects are studied during maneuvering in space.
• Gaganyaan ✓ — ISRO's human spaceflight mission; explicitly designed to carry human crew and scientific experiments in microgravity conditions.

Answer (B): Only two pairs correctly matched — I and III.

• Pair I — Dornier-228/Maritime patrol aircraft: CORRECT. The Dornier-228 is used by Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime surveillance and patrol.
• Pair II — IL-76/Supersonic combat aircraft: WRONG. The IL-76 is a STRATEGIC AIRLIFTER (heavy transport aircraft), not a supersonic combat aircraft.
• Pair III — C-17 Globemaster III/Military transport aircraft: CORRECT. The C-17 is a large military strategic/tactical transport aircraft operated by the IAF.

Answer (A): Silver iodide and potassium iodide. Cloud seeding (artificial rain) uses chemical agents to promote ice crystal formation or water droplet coalescence:

• Silver iodide (AgI) — the primary cloud seeding agent; its crystal structure is similar to ice, enabling it to act as ice-forming nuclei.
• Potassium iodide (KI) — also used as a secondary agent in some cloud seeding operations.

Answer (A): Statement I only.

• S1 CORRECT: The President's pardoning power under Article 72 CAN be subjected to LIMITED judicial review. Supreme Court rulings (Maru Ram v. Union of India, 1980; Epuru Sudhakar, 2006) established that courts can review if the power was exercised arbitrarily, capriciously, or mala fide — though the scope is narrow.
• S2 WRONG: The President exercises pardoning power ONLY ON THE ADVICE OF THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS (Cabinet). Under Article 74, the President must act on Cabinet advice for all executive functions including pardons. The President cannot act independently.

Answer (C): Statements I and III only.

• S1 CORRECT: On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker does NOT vacate office — continues until IMMEDIATELY BEFORE the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha. This ensures continuity.
• S2 WRONG: The Constitution does NOT require the Speaker to resign from their political party upon election as Speaker. This is a parliamentary convention in some countries (UK) but is NOT a constitutional provision in India.
• S3 CORRECT: The Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by ABSOLUTE MAJORITY (majority of all then-members), with 14 days' notice — as specified in Article 94.

Answer (D): Neither statement is correct.

• S1 WRONG: Under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), Paragraph 6(1), disqualification questions are decided by the SPEAKER (Lok Sabha) or CHAIRMAN (Rajya Sabha) — NOT the President. The Supreme Court has reaffirmed this in various rulings.
• S2 WRONG: The word 'political party' IS mentioned in the Constitution of India — specifically in the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection provisions) added by the 52nd Amendment (1985). The Tenth Schedule explicitly refers to 'political parties' multiple times.

Answer (D): Statement I incorrect, Statement II correct.

• S1 WRONG: State governments DO have power to make rules for grant of concessions for MINOR MINERALS in their territories. Section 15(1) of the MMDR Act, 1957 explicitly empowers State Governments to make rules regarding minor minerals.
• S2 CORRECT: The Central Government has the power to NOTIFY (define/classify) which minerals are 'minor minerals' under the MMDR Act.

Answer (A): The European Union. The EU Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is the EU's first continent-wide legislation for long-term ecosystem recovery. It came into force in August 2024 with legally binding targets to restore 20% of EU land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need by 2050, with specific targets for forests, grasslands, wetlands, and urban green spaces.

Answer (D): All three are correct. Given: Revenue expenditure = ₹80,000 cr, Revenue receipts = ₹60,000 cr, Borrowings = ₹10,000 cr (= Fiscal Deficit), Interest payments = ₹6,000 cr.

• I ✓ Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts = 80,000 – 60,000 = ₹20,000 crores.
• II ✓ Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts). Since borrowings = ₹10,000 cr represents the fiscal deficit = ₹10,000 crores.
• III ✓ Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Net Interest Payments = 10,000 – 6,000 = ₹4,000 crores.

Answer (A): India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran. The INSTC (International North-South Transport Corridor) is a 7,200 km multi-modal corridor connecting:

• India (Mumbai/Mundra) → via ship to Iran (Bandar Abbas/Chabahar) → overland through Iran → Azerbaijan/Central Asia (Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan) → Russia → Europe.

The route bypasses the Suez Canal and reduces transit time by ~40% compared to the traditional sea route. India, Russia, and Iran signed the founding agreement in 2000.

Answer (D): Statement I incorrect, Statement II correct.

• S1 WRONG: The USA produces MORE ethanol than Brazil — not less. In 2024, USA produced approximately 16.1 billion gallons vs Brazil's 8.8 billion gallons. The USA is the world's largest ethanol producer.
• S2 CORRECT: In the USA, CORN is the principal feedstock; in Brazil, SUGARCANE is the principal feedstock — this is a standard comparative fact about the two major ethanol programs.

Answer (C): Both statements — I and II.

• S1 CORRECT: Peninsular India would indeed suffer from increased flooding (intensified monsoons), tropical cyclones (more intense), and droughts (more frequent) due to climate change and wet-bulb temperature increases. (Note: wet-bulb ≥35°C also amplifies extreme weather events.)
• S2 CORRECT: Wet-bulb temperature ≥35°C represents the SURVIVABILITY THRESHOLD for humans and animals — at this temperature, the body cannot cool itself through perspiration even in ideal conditions, leading to hyperthermia and death.

Answer (A): ₹48,500 crores. Primary Deficit formula: Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments = ₹50,000 crores – ₹1,500 crores = ₹48,500 crores. Note: The non-debt creating capital receipts (₹10,000 cr) are already factored into the fiscal deficit figure and do NOT affect the primary deficit calculation directly.

Answer (C): Statements I, III and IV.

• S1 CORRECT: The 15th Finance Commission recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores (₹1,200 crore/year) from 2022-23 to 2025-26 for incentivising states to improve educational outcomes.
• S2 WRONG: The 15th FC recommended sharing 41% of net proceeds of Union taxes (not 45%) with states. The 14th FC had recommended 42%.
• S3 CORRECT: ₹45,000 crores were recommended as performance-based incentive for states undertaking agricultural reforms.
• S4 CORRECT: The 15th FC reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Answer (C): Statements I and III only.

• S1 CORRECT: IBRD provides loans and guarantees primarily to MIDDLE-INCOME and creditworthy low-income countries.
• S2 WRONG: IBRD does NOT work 'single-handedly' — it works as part of the World Bank GROUP (which also includes IDA, IFC, MIGA, ICSID). It coordinates with other development institutions globally.
• S3 CORRECT: IBRD WAS established (1944, Bretton Woods) to help EUROPE REBUILD after World War II — reconstruction was its original mandate; development was added later.

Answer (A): Statement I only.

• S1 CORRECT: RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) — settlement is INSTANTANEOUS, transaction by transaction. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) — processed in BATCH MODE (deferred net settlement in batches throughout the day). S1 correctly distinguishes the two.
• S2 WRONG: In RTGS, customers are NOT charged for INWARD transactions (receiving money is free). Only outward RTGS transactions may attract charges. NEFT also has no charges for inward transactions.
• S3 WRONG: Both RTGS and NEFT now operate 24×7, 365 days (since December 2020 for RTGS; already 24×7 for NEFT). Operating hours are no longer restricted for either.

Answer (B): Only three — UAE, France and Singapore accept UPI international merchant payments. Countries where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI (as of 2025): Bhutan, France, Mauritius, Nepal, Singapore, Sri Lanka, UAE. From the listed countries:

• UAE ✓ — UPI accepted.
• France ✓ — UPI accepted.
• Germany ✗ — NOT on the UPI international acceptance list.
• Singapore ✓ — UPI accepted.
• Bangladesh ✗ — NOT on the UPI international acceptance list.

Three countries: UAE, France, Singapore.

Answer (D): All three statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana targets installation of ONE CRORE solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
• S2 CORRECT: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) does aim to impart training on solar rooftop installation, operation, maintenance and repairs at grassroot levels.
• S3 CORRECT: The scheme aims to create more than three lakh skilled manpower through skilling and up-skilling under its capacity building component.

Answer (C): Statements I and III only.

• S1 CORRECT: An Ordinance under Article 123/213 CAN amend any Central/State Act — it has the same force as an Act of Parliament.
• S2 WRONG: An Ordinance CANNOT abridge Fundamental Rights. Under Article 13(2), the State cannot make any law that takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights; an Ordinance is 'law' under Article 13 and must comply with Part III.
• S3 CORRECT: An Ordinance CAN have retrospective effect (come into effect from a back/past date) — this is within the President's/Governor's promulgation power.

Answer (B): Only two pairs correctly matched — I and II.

• Pair I — Arunachal Pradesh/Capital named after fort, two National Parks: CORRECT. Itanagar = named after 'Ita Fort' (Ita = brick in Assamese). Arunachal has Namdapha NP and Mouling NP (two National Parks). ✓
• Pair II — Nagaland/came into existence by Constitutional Amendment Act: CORRECT. Nagaland became a state by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962 (an Act of Parliament). ✓
• Pair III — Tripura/Initially Part 'C' State: WRONG. Tripura was initially a PART B State (not Part C) in the original 1950 Constitution (it was a Princely State that merged with India). Part C states were Commissioner-administered territories.

Answer (A): Only one — The Inter-State Council — is a constitutional body.

• Inter-State Council ✓ — established under ARTICLE 263 of the Constitution (constitutional provision). It was actually constituted in 1990 by Presidential Order.
• National Security Council ✗ — created by EXECUTIVE ORDER of the Government of India; NOT a constitutional body.
• Zonal Councils ✗ — created by the STATES REORGANISATION ACT, 1956 (an Act of Parliament); NOT a constitutional provision.

Answer (A): Statement I only.

• S1 CORRECT: The Constitution DOES explicitly mention the Governor's discretion in certain matters. Article 163(1) states that the Governor acts on Cabinet advice 'except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.' Article 163(2) says the Governor's decision on discretion matters is final.
• S2 WRONG: The President CANNOT reserve a bill on his/her own without it being forwarded by the Governor. Under Article 200, the Governor may reserve a bill for President's consideration; the President then acts on it. The President cannot proactively reach into state legislature proceedings without the Governor's referral.

Answer (C): All three pairs correctly matched.

• Pair I — Separation of Judiciary from Executive/DPSP: CORRECT. Article 50 (DPSP) directs the state to separate judiciary from executive in public services.
• Pair II — Preserving rich heritage of composite culture/Fundamental Duties: CORRECT. Article 51A(f) (Fundamental Duties) enjoins citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of India's composite culture.
• Pair III — Prohibition of employment of children below 14 in factories/Fundamental Rights: CORRECT. Article 24 (Fundamental Rights, Part III) prohibits employment of children below 14 in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment.

Answer (D): Neither statement is correct.

• S1 WRONG: The State Government does NOT lose executive power in Scheduled Areas. Paragraph 2 of the Fifth Schedule affirms that state executive power EXTENDS to Scheduled Areas. The Governor has special powers (modifying laws, establishing Tribes Advisory Council) but these do not remove state executive authority.
• S2 WRONG: The Union Government cannot 'take over total administration' of Scheduled Areas based solely on Governor's recommendation. The Fifth Schedule does not provide for such a central takeover mechanism. (President's Rule under Article 356 would require different constitutional grounds.)

Answer (D): None of the pairs correctly matched.

• Pair I — National Automotive Board/Ministry of Commerce and Industry: WRONG. NAB falls under MINISTRY OF HEAVY INDUSTRIES.
• Pair II — Coir Board/Ministry of Heavy Industries: WRONG. Coir Board operates under MINISTRY OF MSME.
• Pair III — National Centre for Trade Information/Ministry of MSME: WRONG. NCTI is under MINISTRY OF COMMERCE AND INDUSTRY (specifically the Directorate General of Foreign Trade/DPIIT).

All three are mismatched by one ministry each — a deliberate circular rotation of ministries.

Answer (A): Statements I and II require ratification by half the States. Under the proviso to Article 368(2), constitutional amendments affecting the following require ratification by legislatures of not less than HALF the States:

• Any List in the Seventh Schedule ✓ (includes Union List — List I)
• Extent of executive power of a State ✓ (Article 162 — affects federal balance)
• Representation of States in Parliament, Articles 54, 55, 73, 162, 241, or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, Chapter I of Part XI, Seventh Schedule, Fifth and Sixth Schedules
• Conditions of Governor's office ✗ — Governor's conditions of office are in Article 153–167 range; Article 368 does NOT specifically list Governor's conditions as requiring State ratification. This is NOT in the proviso.

Answer (D): All three statements correct.

• S1 CORRECT: Article 361(1) — Governor is not answerable to any court for exercise and performance of powers and duties of office (complete personal immunity for official acts).
• S2 CORRECT: Article 361(2) — No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during term of office.
• S3 CORRECT: Article 105(2) and 194(2) — Members of Parliament and State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House (parliamentary privilege of free speech).

Answer (B): Only two — Refining/storage/distribution (II) and Marketing/sale of petroleum products (III) are regulated by PNGRB. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006 to regulate MIDSTREAM and DOWNSTREAM petroleum activities:

• I (Production of crude oil) ✗ — regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas / DGH (upstream). PNGRB does NOT regulate upstream oil production.
• II (Refining, storage and distribution) ✓ — PNGRB regulated (midstream/downstream).
• III (Marketing and sale of petroleum products) ✓ — PNGRB regulated (downstream).
• IV (Production of natural gas) ✗ — upstream exploration/production, NOT PNGRB's mandate.

Answer (B): Publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi. Gandhi's famous declaration 'Sedition has become my religion' was made at the time of the CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT / DANDI MARCH (1930). When Gandhi arrived at Dandi on 6 April 1930 and picked up salt to break the salt law, he declared the British rule had brought a 'deep injury' and 'sedition has become my religion.' He was expressing that defying unjust colonial laws was a moral/religious duty.

Answer (C): Bronze. The 'Dancing Girl' from Mohenjo-daro is a BRONZE figurine (approximately 4 inches tall), created using the LOST-WAX (cire perdue) casting process. It depicts a young woman standing in a confident contrapposto pose, one arm on her hip and the other adorned with bangles. It was discovered in 1926 and is now housed at the National Museum, New Delhi.

• Carnelian — a semi-precious stone used for beads in IVC.
• Clay — used for terracotta figurines.
• Gold — used for jewellery.

Answer (B): Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant. Following the Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922), 225 people were tried at Gorakhpur Sessions Court. Madan Mohan Malaviya (who had retired from law but returned) and Krishna Kant provided legal defence for those wrongly accused. Their intervention helped reduce death sentences significantly. Malaviya's work here is a lesser-known but documented historical fact.

Answer (A): The Poona Pact. After the POONA PACT (September 1932), Gandhi increasingly referred to untouchables as 'Harijans' (children of God) and formally included the upliftment of Harijans as a central political and social programme. The Poona Pact arose from Gandhi's fast-unto-death against separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (which Ambedkar had supported in the Communal Award). The compromise — more reserved seats within joint Hindu electorate — led Gandhi to make Harijan upliftment a core Gandhian agenda.

Answer (C): All three fruits were introduced by Portuguese.

• Papaya ✓ — Native to Mexico/Central America; brought to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century.
• Pineapple ✓ — Native to South America; introduced by Portuguese to India in the 16th century (Dutch traveller Linschoeten documented it in 1580s India).
• Guava ✓ — Native to tropical Americas; introduced by the Portuguese to India during the 16th–17th centuries.

All three are American (New World) fruits introduced via Portuguese colonial contact.

Answer (C): Only three — UK, Denmark, and Australia have more than four time zones.

• UK ✓ — Despite mainland using 1 TZ, overseas territories (Bermuda, Falklands, Pitcairn, etc.) give UK 9+ time zones.
• Denmark ✓ — Mainland uses 1 TZ, but Greenland (3 TZs) + Faroe Islands (1 TZ) = Denmark spans 5+ time zones.
• New Zealand ✗ — Has only 3 time zones (NZ standard + Chatham Islands + Tokelau). NOT more than 4.
• Australia ✓ — Has 5-8 time zones (Eastern, Central, Western, Lord Howe, Cocos/Keeling, Christmas Island, etc.).
• Brazil ✗ — Has 4 time zones; does NOT have MORE than 4.

Answer (A): Statement I only.

• S1 CORRECT: Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are geographically close (separated by Bering Strait, ~90 km), but have a time difference of approximately 20–21 hours. So when people wake up for breakfast in one, it is a different calendar day in the other.
• S2 WRONG: When it is MONDAY in Anadyr, it is SUNDAY in Nome (NOT Tuesday). Nome is 20+ hours BEHIND Anadyr. The International Date Line runs between them — crossing westward (to Anadyr) gains a day; crossing eastward (to Nome) loses a day. Monday Anadyr → crossing IDL eastward → Sunday Nome.

Answer (A): 'Periyar' E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker. E.V. Ramaswamy Periyar (1879–1973) founded the SELF-RESPECT MOVEMENT in 1925 in Tamil Nadu to empower the Dravidian people, challenge Brahminical dominance, eradicate caste discrimination, and promote rationalism, atheism, and gender equality. His movement became the ideological foundation for the Dravidian political parties that later dominated Tamil Nadu.

Answer (C): All three pairs correctly matched.

• Botswana/Diamond ✓ — Botswana is one of the world's largest diamond producers (Jwaneng mine); diamonds = 30% of GDP and 80% of exports.
• Chile/Lithium ✓ — Chile is the world's 2nd largest lithium producer and part of the 'Lithium Triangle' (Chile-Argentina-Bolivia).
• Indonesia/Nickel ✓ — Indonesia is the world's largest nickel producer (critical for EV batteries).

Answer (D): None of the pairs correctly matched.

• Mallorca/Italy: WRONG. Mallorca (Majorca) is part of SPAIN (Balearic Islands, western Mediterranean).
• Normandy/Spain: WRONG. Normandy is a region of northern FRANCE (D-Day landing site, 1944).
• Sardinia/France: WRONG. Sardinia is a large island of ITALY (second largest Mediterranean island after Sicily).

All three are swapped — each region is assigned to the wrong country.