- What Does the India-Russia Logistics Agreement (RELOS) Allow? GS2
- Central Banks to Increase Gold Reserves: WGC Survey 2026 GS3
- India World's Number Two Fish Producer: FAO 2026 Report GS3
- Walking on Footpaths a Fundamental Right, Rules Supreme Court GS2
- Four Glacial Lakes in Arunachal Pradesh Have Expanded in a Decade GS1
- Three Indigenously Built Naval Ships Commissioned GS3
- Heatwaves Driving Up Ground-Level Ozone, Aggravating Health Risks GS3
The India-Russia bilateral Logistics Support Agreement (LSA), termed the Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS), was operationalised in January 2026 after having been under negotiation for several years. Social media claims that it allows stationing of 3,000 Russian troops on Indian soil (or vice versa) sparked confusion, framing it as a military alliance — but RELOS is a standard Logistics Support Agreement, similar to those India has signed with eight other countries.
An LSA is a foundational military cooperation agreement between countries for administrative purposes, enabling the reciprocal use of each other's bases and ports for supplies, repair, and fuel. It specifies the occasions for use — generally joint exercises, training, port calls, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) situations — and reduces bureaucratic friction in military-to-military engagement.
- LEMOA (Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement) — signed with the US in 2016; India's first such agreement and the basic template for all subsequent LSAs.
- Covers: food, water, billeting, transportation, petroleum/oils/lubricants (POL), clothing, communication services, medical services, storage, training services, spare parts, repair and maintenance, calibration, and port services.
- LSAs do not provide for the establishment of bases or basing arrangements — a point clarified by the Minister of State for Defence in Parliament in February 2017 regarding LEMOA.
India currently has LSAs with nine countries — the US, UK, France, Vietnam, Japan, Australia, Singapore, and Russia on the standard LSA template, plus a similar arrangement with Oman covered under a broader overarching defence cooperation agreement.
- 2020 Eastern Ladakh standoff: India invoked its logistics pact with the US to procure high-altitude winter clothing for over 50,000 troops deployed through the winter.
- UK reciprocity: Royal Navy ships have received India-manufactured spare parts and undergone maintenance at Indian shipyards under the bilateral LSA.
- Operational endurance: Indian Naval ships and P-8I long-range maritime patrol aircraft use partner-nation LSAs during anti-piracy deployments in the Gulf of Aden for quick turnaround without returning to home ports.
RELOS defines procedures for supporting military formations, port calls of warships, and the use of airspace and airfield facilities by military aircraft of both countries, along with logistics and technical support of military formations, warships, aircraft, and other equipment.
| Parameter | Detail |
|---|---|
| Signed | Moscow, February 18, 2025 |
| Russian Ratification | President Vladimir Putin signed the federal law on December 15, 2025 |
| Operationalised | January 2026 |
| Personnel Ceiling | Maximum 3,000 troops (upper limit, not a fixed deployment) |
| Assets Ceiling | Up to 5 warships and 10 military aircraft at any given time |
| Validity | 5 years, with provision for revision/extension |
Officials have clarified: "No permanent or long-term stationing has been agreed upon as part of the Agreement." The troop/asset ceiling represents a broad upper limit accounting for the size of contingents and number of ships or aircraft that may visit during mutually agreed engagements — not a basing arrangement.
- RELOS gives India access to Russian military facilities in the Arctic as both countries expand cooperation there, driven by new navigation routes opening up due to global warming.
- This extends India's maritime and aerial operational footprint into the Arctic and Northern Sea Route, while reinforcing Russia's presence in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
- Multi-Alignment, Not Bloc Alignment: By signing similar, non-binding logistics pacts with competing powers (the US and Russia simultaneously), India avoids joining any single power bloc while drawing tactical advantages from both.
- Counter to China's "String of Pearls": China relies on sovereign military bases (Djibouti) or dual-use commercial ports (Hambantota) to secure the IOR. India's LSA network instead grants an "invisible footprint" across choke points such as the Mozambique Channel (via France), the Strait of Malacca (via Singapore), and the Lombok/Sunda Straits (via Australia).
- Integrated Theatre Commands: LSAs provide ready-made external logistical infrastructure as India transitions its armed forces into unified theatre commands.
- Two-Front Balancing Act: Executing RELOS with Russia while deepening integration with the US via LEMOA (2016) and COMCASA (2018) requires India to walk a diplomatic tightrope — the West views LSAs as tools to contain China, while a sanctioned Russia views them through an anti-NATO lens.
- CAATSA Risk: Managing defence trade with Russia without triggering secondary sanctions under the US Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA) requires complex non-dollar financial engineering (e.g., Rupee-Ruble trade), which suffers from trade imbalances.
- "Case-by-Case" Neutrality Trap: Unlike NATO's Article 5, LSAs carry no mutual defence obligation. This protects autonomy but means partners can request aid during active conflicts, and India's refusals (to preserve neutrality) can trigger diplomatic friction.
- China-Russia Axis Vulnerability: Russia's growing dependence on Beijing tests RELOS's reliability — if an India-China border conflict erupts, Russian logistical nodes in the Far East or Arctic may become questionable.
- RELOS = Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (India-Russia); operationalised January 2026; signed Moscow, 18 Feb 2025; ratified by Russia 15 Dec 2025.
- LEMOA = Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (India-US, 2016) — India's first LSA and the basic template for subsequent agreements.
- COMCASA (2018) = Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement — a separate India-US pact on secure communications interoperability, distinct from LEMOA.
- RELOS troop/asset ceiling: 3,000 personnel, 5 warships, 10 aircraft; validity 5 years; no permanent basing permitted.
- India's LSA partners: US, UK, France, Vietnam, Japan, Australia, Singapore, Russia (standard LSA) + Oman (under a broader defence cooperation agreement) = 9 total.
- CAATSA = Countering America's Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (US, 2017) — relevant to India-Russia defence trade.
- LSAs carry no mutual defence obligation (unlike NATO's Article 5) — they are administrative/logistical, not military alliances.
- China's "String of Pearls" = network of Chinese-linked ports/bases across the IOR (e.g., Djibouti, Hambantota), often cited as the strategic contrast to India's LSA-based "invisible footprint."
"Logistics Support Agreements (LSAs) are emerging as key force multipliers for India's defence diplomacy without compromising its strategic autonomy." Critically examine this statement with reference to the India-Russia RELOS agreement.
Match List-I (Logistics/Defence Agreement) with List-II (Partner Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
A. LEMOA
B. RELOS
C. COMCASA
D. Defence Cooperation Agreement (with embedded logistics arrangement)
List-II
1. Oman
2. Russia
3. United States (communications interoperability)
4. United States (logistics exchange)
- (a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
- (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
- (c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
- (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
The World Gold Council's (WGC) 2026 Central Bank Gold Reserves (CBGR) survey indicates that central banks around the world will accumulate more gold in the future, keeping gold prices elevated. Gold prices in India have increased about 40% in 12 months, driven primarily by central bank buying and the rupee's depreciation against the US dollar, the currency in which gold is priced globally.
Central banks "remain very positive on gold, highlighting its significance amid a volatile geopolitical and economic environment," the WGC said, noting a continuation of the trend from previous years — gold is making up a growing share of reserve portfolios.
| Metric | Figure |
|---|---|
| Survey window | 5 February – 19 May 2026 (majority of responses after the West Asia conflict began) |
| Central bank gold accumulation (avg., last 4 years) | ~1,000 tonnes/year |
| Accumulation (avg., preceding decade) | ~500 tonnes/year |
| Expect global CB gold reserves to rise (next 12 months) | 89% of respondents |
| Expect own institution's reserves to rise | 45% (a record high) |
| Expect own reserves to decrease | 1% |
| Expect lower USD share in global reserves (next 5 years) | 74% moderate/significant decline |
- Performance during times of crisis, portfolio diversification, and inflation hedging were cited as the main reasons.
- Gold also featured as a geopolitical risk hedge and as part of reserve diversification policy.
- Euro and renminbi shares are expected to remain broadly unchanged, even as the dollar's share declines and gold's share rises.
- Bank of England remains the most popular vaulting location — 57% of respondents.
- Domestic storage — 49% (second most popular); central banks continue diversifying storage across locations.
- Bank for International Settlements (BIS) — 16% (a slight uptick from last year).
- Swiss National Bank — fell to 6%, down from 12% in 2025.
| Fiscal Year | Total Gold Reserves |
|---|---|
| FY24 | 822.1 tonnes |
| FY25 | 879.58 tonnes |
| FY26 | 880.52 tonnes |
The RBI repatriated over 100 tonnes of physical gold from overseas vaults to domestic storage during FY25, aligning with the broader global central-bank trend toward storage diversification and self-custody.
- WGC is the market development organisation for the global gold industry; formed in 1987, headquartered in London; a nonprofit association whose members are leading gold mining companies.
- Since 2018, WGC (with YouGov) has conducted this annual global survey of central banks on gold and reserve management — participation is voluntary and responses are anonymised.
- WGC played a key role in developing the Shanghai Gold Exchange (now the world's largest physical gold exchange) and supporting the India Gold Spot Exchange (launched 2022, at GIFT City, regulated by the International Financial Services Centres Authority, IFSCA) to improve transparency and liquidity.
- De-dollarisation Signal: The expected decline in USD reserve share alongside rising gold allocation reflects a structural shift in global reserve management amid geopolitical fragmentation.
- India's Import Bill: Gold is among India's largest import items by value; sustained high prices have implications for the Current Account Deficit (CAD).
- Reserve Composition: India's forex reserves comprise Foreign Currency Assets, Gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and the Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) with the IMF — gold's growing share strengthens reserve resilience against currency volatility.
- WGC = World Gold Council; formed 1987; HQ London; nonprofit, members are gold mining companies.
- CBGR Survey = Central Bank Gold Reserves survey, conducted annually by WGC with YouGov since 2018.
- India's forex reserves = Foreign Currency Assets + Gold + SDRs + Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) with IMF.
- India Gold Spot Exchange = launched 2022 at GIFT City; regulated by the IFSCA (International Financial Services Centres Authority).
- Shanghai Gold Exchange = world's largest physical gold exchange; developed with WGC support.
- Most popular gold vaulting location among central banks: Bank of England (57%), followed by domestic storage (49%) and BIS (16%).
- RBI gold reserves rose from 822.1 tonnes (FY24) to 880.52 tonnes (FY26); over 100 tonnes repatriated to domestic vaults in FY25.
"Rising central bank gold accumulation reflects a structural shift in global reserve management amid geopolitical uncertainty." Discuss the drivers of this trend and its implications for India's external sector.
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Gold Council's (WGC) 2026 Central Bank Gold Reserves Survey:
1. The survey found that a record 45% of respondent central banks expect their own gold reserves to increase over the next 12 months.
2. The Swiss National Bank emerged as the single most preferred gold vaulting location among central banks in 2026.
3. The World Gold Council was formed in 1987 and is headquartered in London.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
India produced 9% of the world's aquatic animals in 2024, making it the second-largest producer globally after China, according to the Food and Agriculture Organization's State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA) 2026 report. India also led the world in inland water catches and ranked second in aquaculture, even as the FAO warned that marine fish stock sustainability continues to decline.
- 2nd-largest producer of aquatic animals globally (after China) — 9% of world output (2024).
- World's largest inland water catch: 2.2 million tonnes from rivers, lakes, and freshwater systems — ahead of Bangladesh's 1.4 million tonnes.
- 2nd-largest aquaculture producer globally — contributing 12% of total farmed aquatic animal output.
- Part of a five-country bloc (China, India, Indonesia, Vietnam, Bangladesh) producing 82% of all farmed aquatic animals.
| Metric | Figure (2024) |
|---|---|
| Total global fisheries + aquaculture production | 235 million tonnes (record high; +5.2% vs 2022) |
| — Aquatic animals | 195 million tonnes |
| — Algae | 40 million tonnes |
| Aquaculture production alone | 142 million tonnes (record high; main growth driver) |
| Top-5 producers' share of aquaculture output | 84% (China, Indonesia, India, Vietnam, Bangladesh) |
| Marine vs inland water source split | 67% marine / 33% inland |
- Share of marine fish stocks within biologically sustainable levels fell to 62.4% in 2023, down from 64.5% in 2021.
- FAO attributed the decline partly to methodological revisions, but also to real sustainability declines in specific regions.
- When weighted by catch volume, 72.6% of landings from assessed stocks came from sustainably managed stocks — suggesting larger commercial fisheries tend to be better governed, even as the overall trend remains a warning sign.
- Over 90% of aquatic animal production reaches human plates.
- Per capita availability: global average 21.1 kg (2023) → preliminary 21.3 kg (2024).
- Regional gaps: Asia 26.3 kg (highest); North America, Europe, Oceania ~20–22 kg; Latin America/Caribbean 10.1 kg; Africa 9.1 kg (lowest).
- Despite having the lowest per-capita availability, Africa ranked 2nd globally in the share of animal protein derived from aquatic sources — 19% — reflecting strong reliance on fish as a protein source despite low absolute consumption.
- Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) — India's flagship fisheries scheme, launched 2020, implemented by the Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (a separate ministry since 2019).
- India's fisheries push is often referred to as a "Blue Revolution" — paralleling the Green Revolution in agriculture.
- Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) — a specialised United Nations agency, headquartered in Rome, established in 1945.
- SOFIA is FAO's flagship biennial report assessing global fisheries and aquaculture trends.
- FAO SOFIA 2026 = State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture report, by the Food and Agriculture Organization (UN agency, HQ Rome, est. 1945).
- India = 2nd-largest aquatic animal producer globally (after China); world's largest inland fish producer (2.2 million tonnes).
- PMMSY = Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (launched 2020) — flagship scheme under the Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
- "Blue Revolution" = term for India's fisheries development push, analogous to the Green Revolution.
- Marine stock sustainability fell to 62.4% (2023) from 64.5% (2021) — a key trend data point.
- Five-country bloc producing 82% of farmed aquatic animals: China, India, Indonesia, Vietnam, Bangladesh.
"India's rising fish production coexists with a global decline in marine stock sustainability." Analyse the structural strengths of India's fisheries sector and the sustainability challenges it must address to consolidate its position in the Blue Economy.
With reference to the FAO's State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA) 2026 report, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
- (a) India is the world's second-largest producer of aquatic animals, after China.
- (b) India recorded the highest inland water fish catch in the world in 2024, ahead of Bangladesh.
- (c) The share of marine fish stocks within biologically sustainable levels increased in 2023 compared to 2021.
- (d) Aquaculture, at 142 million tonnes in 2024, was the principal driver of growth in global aquatic animal production.
The Supreme Court, in a judgment authored by Justice P.S. Narasimha (Bench: Justices P.S. Narasimha and Atul S. Chandurkar), declared the freedom to walk on demarcated and well-maintained footpaths a fundamental right which has priority over movement by motorised vehicles. The judgment came in a case concerning the death of a five-year-old boy, struck and killed by a tanker lorry while walking to school with his father in Karnataka.
- "If a road exists, there must then be a duty to ensure that a footpath is demarcated and maintained for the walkers. This is an enforceable duty."
- The fundamental right to walk on demarcated footpaths shall override the privilege of a motorised vehicle.
- The Court called for a statutory framework — not only to declare the right to walk a fundamental right, but also to recognise the duty-bearers responsible for ensuring it.
- The parent was awarded compensation of over ₹11 lakh.
- Article 19(1)(d) — "All citizens shall have the right... to move freely throughout the territory of India" — the Court held this constitutionally guarantees walking.
- The judgment situates the right within the Court's expansion of Article 21 (right to life and personal liberty) since the 1970s.
- Walking was also linked to Article 19(1)(a) (expression), 19(1)(b) (assembly), and 19(1)(c) (association) — the Court held that "walking is not just motion, it certainly embodies expressional, congregational and associational rights."
Article 19 rights (including 19(1)(d), freedom of movement) are available only to citizens. Article 21 (life and personal liberty), under which the broader right to walk safely has also been read, is available to any person, citizen or not — a distinction frequently tested in Prelims.
- Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) — origin of the expansive, substantive-due-process reading of Article 21, beyond mere procedural protection.
- Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) — the Supreme Court read the right to livelihood (including pavement dwellers' rights) into Article 21, a direct precedent for reading public-space access rights into the same Article.
- In the absence of a national law governing pedestrian rights, responsibility is split across municipal laws, town-planning statutes, and street design guidelines.
- Most cities lack continuous, unobstructed footpaths; where they exist, they are often encroached upon by parking, vendors, utilities, and construction debris.
- As motorised transport became widespread, walking was relegated to an inconvenience, with motorists often treating pedestrians as a "nuisance."
| Law | Intended Protection | Implementation Outcome |
|---|---|---|
| Street Vendors Act, 2014 | Protects vendors under Article 19(1)(g) | Mixed success — municipalities still conduct "eviction drives"; surveys, town vending committees, and zone demarcation often delayed |
| Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA), 2003 | Curtailed public smoking | Worked over 20 years — but via consistent social messaging and small fines, not "restitutionary remedies" |
| Swachh Bharat Mission mandates | Reduce littering | Culture of littering persists — law focuses on citizens' duty to segregate while the state has often overlooked its duty to collect segregated waste |
- Implementation Gap: The new judgment may set up disputes with the Street Vendors Act, 2014, over footpath space allocation.
- Risk of Misuse: A state using the ruling to "cleanse" streets of informal commercial activity could gentrify public spaces and criminalise the survival strategies of the urban poor.
- Tool for Compensation, Not Prevention: If the principal effect is post-tragedy compensation rather than upfront infrastructure investment, the "constitutional nudge" may not produce real change.
- The nudge's principal path to success lies in moving state funds toward pedestrian infrastructure, not merely litigation-driven compensation.
- A statutory framework clearly assigning duty-bearers (municipal corporations, town planning authorities) is essential for enforceability.
- Right to walk on demarcated footpaths read into Article 21 (life and personal liberty) and Article 19(1)(a)/(b)/(c)/(d) (expression, assembly, association, movement).
- Article 19(1)(d) = freedom to move freely throughout India's territory — available only to citizens.
- Article 21 = right to life and personal liberty — available to any person, not just citizens.
- Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) = foundational case for the expansive interpretation of Article 21.
- Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) = read the right to livelihood (including pavement dwellers) into Article 21.
- Street Vendors Act, 2014 = protects vendors under Article 19(1)(g); requires town vending committees and zone demarcation.
- COTPA, 2003 = Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act — curtailed public smoking via social messaging and fines.
"Bail is the rule, jail is the exception" and now "walking is a fundamental right" — yet declared rights in India often fail at the implementation stage. Critically examine, with reference to the Supreme Court's recent ruling on the right to walk on footpaths, why rights-based judicial pronouncements often struggle to translate into ground-level change, drawing on comparable legislative experience.
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court has held that the right to walk on a demarcated footpath constitutes an enforceable duty on the part of municipal authorities wherever a road exists.
Reason (R): Article 19(1)(d) of the Constitution extends the freedom of movement to all persons, whether citizens or non-citizens, residing in India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above two statements?
- (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
- (c) A is true, but R is false.
- (d) A is false, but R is true.
A satellite-based assessment of five glacial lakes in the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh has found that four have expanded over the last decade, with one lake showing rapid growth — adding fresh evidence to concerns over the threat posed by Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) in the eastern Himalaya. The study was conducted by Suhora Technologies, a Noida-based geospatial intelligence firm, and is a company report rather than a peer-reviewed study.
A Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) occurs when natural moraine dams — ridges of rock and debris deposited by glaciers — fail, or when large avalanches, landslides, or icefalls suddenly displace water and generate destructive waves. Lakes impounded by moraines can become hazardous as retreating glaciers increase the volume of water trapped behind them.
| Lake | 2016 / Earlier Extent | Mid-2026 Extent | Trend |
|---|---|---|---|
| Sanhapo Lake | 78.07 hectares (2019) | 88.81 hectares | Most significant growth — flagged highest priority for hazard modelling |
| Two "very high risk" lakes | — | — | Each expanded by about 1 hectare over the decade |
| Dharkha Tso ("high risk") | — | — | Gradual growth recorded |
| Fifth lake | — | — | Remained broadly stable over the observation period |
- All five lakes are located in the Mago Chu basin, Tawang district, and are classified by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) as "high-risk" or "very high-risk."
- Satellite sources used: ICEYE, PlanetScope, and LISS-IV; comparison window: 2016 to June 2026.
- Uncertainties remain about Sanhapo Lake's historical extent due to ice cover visible in its 2016 imagery, but it has shown sustained expansion in recent years.
- The National GLOF Risk Mitigation Programme was expanded following the October 2023 South Lhonak Lake disaster in Sikkim, which breached and triggered floods that destroyed the 1,200 MW Teesta III (Chungthang) hydropower dam and killed dozens of people.
- NDMA currently monitors 189 high-risk glacial lakes nationally as part of this programme.
- Arunachal Pradesh alone has 27 high-risk glacial lakes identified across five districts: Tawang (6), Kurung Kumey (1), Shi Yomi (1), Dibang Valley (16), and Anjaw (3).
- Over 900 glacial lakes and water bodies are currently under satellite observation by the Central Water Commission.
- "If lakes are expanding, then it is considered an unstable lake," said Anil Kulkarni, glaciologist at the Divecha Centre for Climate Change, IISc Bengaluru — but he stressed that "mere increase in area, even over a decade, cannot be a single criterion" for judging danger.
- Risk also depends on factors such as the possibility of landslides, avalanches, or rockfalls entering the lake.
- Suhora itself cautioned that "lake expansion does not directly indicate a flood event," and that the findings instead highlight the importance of regular monitoring and further assessment.
- India's ability to identify potentially dangerous glacial lakes has improved considerably through satellite monitoring and modelling.
- However, translating scientific assessments into practical risk reduction (early warning systems, evacuation planning, downstream infrastructure safeguards) remains a major challenge.
- The assessment comes amid heightened attention on glacial hazards following a recent risk evaluation by the Centre for Earth Sciences and Himalayan Studies (CESHS), Arunachal Pradesh.
- Priority Hazard Modelling: Sanhapo Lake, given its size and continued growth, should receive detailed hazard modelling, continuous monitoring, and possible early-warning systems.
- Integrated Risk Assessment: Combine satellite-derived area data with on-ground geomorphological assessment (moraine stability, avalanche/landslide proneness) rather than relying on area expansion alone.
- Scale the NDMA Programme: Expand ground-truthing capacity to match the 189-lake satellite monitoring programme, particularly in remote, high-altitude districts.
- GLOF = Glacial Lake Outburst Flood; triggered by moraine dam failure, avalanches, landslides, or icefalls.
- Moraine = ridge of rock and debris deposited by a glacier; moraine-dammed lakes become hazardous as meltwater volume increases.
- South Lhonak Lake GLOF (Oct 2023, Sikkim) = destroyed the 1,200 MW Teesta III (Chungthang) hydropower project; killed dozens — the key reference disaster for India's current GLOF monitoring push.
- NDMA currently monitors 189 high-risk glacial lakes nationally; Arunachal Pradesh has 27 across 5 districts (Tawang, Kurung Kumey, Shi Yomi, Dibang Valley, Anjaw).
- Mago Chu basin = location in Tawang district, Arunachal Pradesh, site of the Suhora Technologies 2026 study.
- Lake area expansion is not by itself sufficient evidence of imminent GLOF risk — a key conceptual distinction.
- Central Water Commission currently observes over 900 glacial lakes/water bodies via satellite.
"Satellite monitoring has outpaced ground-level risk mitigation in India's glacial lake management." Discuss this statement with reference to recent findings from Arunachal Pradesh and the lessons of the 2023 South Lhonak Lake disaster.
Consider the following statements regarding Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) in India:
1. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) currently monitors 189 high-risk glacial lakes across the Indian Himalayan region.
2. The October 2023 South Lhonak Lake disaster in Sikkim led to the destruction of the Teesta III hydropower project.
3. According to glaciologists, an increase in a glacial lake's surface area over time is, by itself, a sufficient indicator of imminent outburst flood risk.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
The Indian Navy commissioned three indigenously built frontline platforms — Dunagiri, Sanshodhak, and Agray — in Kolkata, with the ceremony presided over by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Separately, the Ministry of Defence signed a ₹425 crore contract with Bharat Forge Limited for 12 sets of indigenous marine gas turbine generators for the Navy's Kolkata-class ships.
| Platform | Role | Detail |
|---|---|---|
| Dunagiri | Advanced stealth frigate | 5th Project 17A stealth frigate; equipped with BrahMos surface-to-surface missiles and medium-range surface-to-air missile system |
| Sanshodhak | Survey vessel (large) | 4th survey vessel (large); designed for coastal & deep-water hydrographic surveys; equipped with autonomous underwater vehicles (AUVs) and remotely operated vehicles (ROVs) |
| Agray | Anti-submarine warfare (ASW) shallow water craft | 4th of the Arnala-class; equipped with lightweight torpedoes, indigenous rocket launchers, and shallow-water sonar systems |
- All three platforms were designed by the Indian Navy's Warship Design Bureau and constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
- Indigenous content exceeds 75%; construction involved more than 200 MSMEs, generating substantial direct and indirect employment.
- Together, the three platforms strengthen blue-water operations, maritime domain awareness, and coastal security against evolving threats.
BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between India and Russia — among the weapons systems equipping the Dunagiri frigate.
| Parameter | Detail |
|---|---|
| Contracting Party | Bharat Forge Limited (BFL), Pune |
| Value | ₹425 crore (approx.) |
| Quantity | 12 sets of 1.25 MW marine gas turbine generators |
| Application | Onboard power generation for Kolkata-class guided-missile destroyers |
| Indigenous Content | At least 60% |
| Execution Period | 5 years |
| Procurement Category | Buy (Indian) under the Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020 (DAP-2020) |
- Indian warships have used marine gas turbine generators imported from Russia since the 1980s; every warship typically combines 2–4 marine gas turbine and diesel generators for power.
- This contract marks BFL's entry into the marine gas turbine (GT) business and will deliver the first indigenous GT-based power plant to operate aboard Indian Naval ships.
- Over the last three years, the Navy has worked to indigenise gas turbine parts and the compressor with firms including BHEL and Bharat Forge, to reduce import dependence on spares.
- Maritime Self-Reliance: Both developments enhance self-reliance in critical strategic technologies and bolster operational readiness through indigenous production and end-to-end life-cycle support.
- Atmanirbhar Bharat in Defence: Indigenous content above 75% (ships) and 60%+ (gas turbines) reflects deepening defence-industrial self-reliance.
- MSME Ecosystem: Participation of 200+ MSMEs in shipbuilding demonstrates the breadth of India's defence manufacturing base beyond large public-sector shipyards.
- Reducing Import Dependence: Replacing Russian-imported gas turbine generators (in use since the 1980s) with indigenous units reduces a long-standing supply-chain vulnerability.
- Project 17A = stealth frigate class; Dunagiri is the 5th ship, built by GRSE, Kolkata.
- GRSE = Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata — a Defence PSU shipyard.
- Arnala-class = anti-submarine warfare shallow water craft; Agray is the 4th ship of this class.
- BrahMos = supersonic cruise missile; India-Russia joint venture (BrahMos Aerospace).
- DAP 2020 = Defence Acquisition Procedure 2020; "Buy (Indian)" category prioritises domestic manufacturers.
- Kolkata-class = guided-missile destroyers of the Indian Navy — context for the new gas turbine generator contract.
- Marine gas turbine generators for Indian warships have historically been imported from Russia since the 1980s.
"Indigenisation of naval platforms and propulsion systems is central to India's Atmanirbhar Bharat vision in defence." Discuss with reference to recent developments in indigenous shipbuilding and marine gas turbine technology.
With reference to the recently commissioned Indian naval platforms, which one of the following is correctly matched?
- (a) Dunagiri — Anti-submarine warfare shallow water craft of the Arnala-class
- (b) Sanshodhak — Survey vessel (large), equipped with autonomous underwater vehicles
- (c) Agray — Advanced stealth frigate of Project 17A, equipped with BrahMos missiles
- (d) Dunagiri — Survey vessel (large) for hydrographic and oceanographic data collection
A new study by Indian researchers has shown that heatwaves are not just a direct threat to human health — they also drive up concentrations of ground-level (surface) ozone that sharply aggravate mortality risks. In 2024 alone, more than 830 deaths in India could be attributed to increased ozone concentrations caused by extreme heat, according to the study, published in Clean Air, part of the Nature stable of journals.
- Title: "Heatwaves trigger severe surface ozone pollution in India: Regional Hotspots, Trends and Health Effects."
- Authors: Jayanarayanan Kuttippurath (IIT Kharagpur) and Parambat Sangeetha (Kerala University of Fisheries and Ocean Studies, Kochi).
- First-of-its-kind attempt to assess the health impacts of heatwave-driven surface ozone in India, based on 21 years of data.
| Type | Location | Effect |
|---|---|---|
| Stratospheric ("good") ozone | 15–50 km altitude (middle atmosphere) | Naturally produced; absorbs harmful UV rays — acts as Earth's natural sunscreen |
| Ground-level / tropospheric ("bad") ozone | Near the Earth's surface | Air pollutant; not directly emitted — a secondary pollutant formed from chemical reactions |
Ground-level ozone is formed by reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight. Heat accelerates these reactions, which is why heatwaves sharply elevate ozone concentrations.
The Montreal Protocol (1987) addresses ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs and protects the stratospheric ozone layer. It is not the relevant framework for ground-level ozone pollution, which is a tropospheric air-quality issue governed instead by air pollution standards such as NAAQS.
| Metric | Figure |
|---|---|
| Deaths attributable to heatwave-driven ozone (India, 2024) | 830+ |
| Safe ground-level ozone concentration | ~30 parts per billion (ppb) |
| Typical Indian background ozone level | 50–55 ppb (especially NW India and the Gangetic plains) |
| Duration of elevated ozone after a heatwave ends | 3–4 days on average |
| COPD deaths in India (2023) linked to ozone exposure | ~234,000 (State of Global Air report, 2025) |
- Ozone exposure affects the lungs and heart, and can lead to Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) and Ischemic Heart Disease (IHD), apart from cancer and diabetes.
- Summer months in India are usually a relief from particulate air pollution — but rising ozone concentrations during heatwaves now add a new, distinct health threat during this period.
"Under climate change scenarios... more and more regions are likely to have high concentrations of ozone. The frequency and severity of heatwaves is expected to rise, and so would the threat from ozone exposure," the study's lead author noted.
- Monitoring Gap: Agencies like the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) need to monitor ground-level ozone as actively as other parameters and include it in regular bulletins and alerts.
- NAAQS Integration: Ozone is already one of 12 pollutants notified under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), monitored by CPCB — this existing framework should be leveraged for heatwave-linked ozone alerts.
- National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) Integration: Heatwave action plans and air quality management under NCAP (MoEFCC/CPCB) should be explicitly linked, given the demonstrated heat-ozone-health pathway.
- Ground-level (tropospheric) ozone = secondary pollutant; formed from NOx + VOCs in sunlight — NOT directly emitted.
- Stratospheric ozone (15–50 km altitude) = protective, absorbs UV radiation; governed by the Montreal Protocol (1987), which addresses ozone-depleting substances like CFCs.
- NAAQS = National Ambient Air Quality Standards; ozone is one of 12 notified pollutants, monitored by CPCB.
- Safe ground-level ozone threshold ≈ 30 ppb; Indian background levels often 50–55 ppb in NW India/Gangetic plains.
- COPD = Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease; IHD = Ischemic Heart Disease — both linked to ozone exposure.
- Elevated ozone from a heatwave persists for 3–4 days after the heatwave ends (based on 21 years of data).
- Clean Air = journal (part of the Nature group) in which the study was published.
"Heatwaves are increasingly compounding India's air pollution burden through rising ground-level ozone." Examine the science behind this linkage and suggest policy measures to integrate ozone monitoring into India's climate and public health response systems.
Which one of the following statements about atmospheric ozone is correct?
- (a) Ground-level ozone is a primary pollutant directly emitted by vehicles and industries.
- (b) The Montreal Protocol (1987) was designed primarily to regulate ground-level ozone pollution caused by heatwaves.
- (c) Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed from reactions between nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in the presence of sunlight.
- (d) Stratospheric ozone and ground-level ozone are regulated under the same international framework.


