Static Quiz 07 August 2026 (Indian Polity)

Daily Static Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

Score: 0 / 0
Q1
Which of the following statements regarding reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under the Indian Constitution is/are correct?
  • Article 15(4) enables the State to make special provisions for the advancement of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) as well as SCs and STs — this clause was inserted by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.
  • Article 16(4) provides for reservation in appointments in favour of SCs and STs that are not adequately represented in State services, and this is an enabling provision, not a fundamental right itself.
  • In the Indra Sawhney case (1992), the Supreme Court held that the total reservations under Articles 15(4) and 16(4) cannot ordinarily exceed 50% of the total seats or posts.
  • The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 provided 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) by inserting Articles 15(6) and 16(6), excluding persons who are already covered under existing reservation schemes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 3 only
  • B1, 2 and 3 only
  • C2 and 4 only
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)

All four statements are correct. Article 15(4), inserted by the First Amendment (1951), overcame Champakam Dorairajan's ban on caste-based educational reservations. Article 16(4) is an enabling, discretionary provision, not an enforceable right. Indra Sawhney (1992) established the 50% reservation ceiling except in extraordinary circumstances. The 103rd Amendment (2019) inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6), providing 10% EWS reservation for those not already covered by SC/ST/OBC reservations.

Q2
Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST):
  • The NCST was established by the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 by bifurcating the earlier National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  • The NCST is a constitutional body under Article 338A and is empowered to investigate and monitor matters relating to the safeguards provided to STs.
  • The NCST has the powers of a civil court in matters of summoning and examining witnesses and requiring discovery and production of documents.
  • The Union and every State Government is bound to consult the NCST on all major policy decisions affecting Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1, 2 and 3 only
  • C2, 3 and 4 only
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The 89th Amendment (2003) bifurcated the combined NCSC & ST into the separate NCSC (Article 338) and NCST (Article 338A). The NCST investigates and monitors ST safeguards, and under Article 338A(8), holds civil court powers for summoning witnesses and requiring document production. Statement 4 is incorrect — while consultation is mandatory on major policy matters specifically affecting ST welfare, the blanket "all major policy decisions" phrasing overstates this obligation.

Q3
Which one of the following statements regarding Minority Rights under the Indian Constitution is correct?
  • AArticle 30 confers the right to establish and administer educational institutions on religious and linguistic minorities, and this right extends to receiving government grants without any conditions or regulations.
  • BArticle 29 protects the cultural and educational rights of citizens having a distinct language, script or culture, and this right is available only to minorities and not to majorities.
  • CArticle 30(1) gives religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice, but the State may impose reasonable regulatory conditions while granting aid.
  • DUnder Article 30(2), the State is prohibited from acquiring minority educational institutions under any circumstances, as such acquisition would violate the fundamental right to administer these institutions.
Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct — Article 30(1) guarantees minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions, but as clarified in T.M.A. Pai Foundation (2002) and P.A. Inamdar (2005), the State may impose reasonable regulatory conditions, including for aid, without unreasonable interference. Option (a) is wrong — grants can carry reasonable conditions on standards, fees, and admissions. Option (b) is wrong — Article 29 protects any section of citizens, majority or minority, not exclusively minorities. Option (d) is wrong — Article 30(1A) permits acquisition provided compensation doesn't restrict or abrogate the Article 30(1) right; outright prohibition isn't the position.

Q4
Consider the following statements regarding the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution:
  • The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • Under the Fifth Schedule, a Governor may direct that any Act of Parliament or State Legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area, or shall apply with modifications.
  • The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram and provides for the creation of Autonomous District Councils with legislative and judicial powers.
  • Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule can make laws on subjects such as land management, use of waterways and social customs, subject to assent of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 3 only
  • B1, 2 and 3 only
  • C2 and 4 only
  • D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)

All four statements are correct. The Fifth Schedule (Article 244(1)) applies to Scheduled Areas outside the four northeastern States, covering parts of AP, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, MP, Himachal Pradesh, and Rajasthan, with the Governor empowered under Para 5 to modify or exclude application of laws. The Sixth Schedule (Article 244(2)) applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, creating Autonomous District Councils with legislative, executive, judicial, and financial powers, including laws on land, forests, waterways, shifting cultivation, local courts, and social customs, subject to Governor's assent.

Q5
Which of the following correctly describes the significance of the PESA Act (Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act), 1996?
  • APESA extended the provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment to Scheduled Areas under the Sixth Schedule without any modifications.
  • BPESA extended Panchayati Raj institutions to Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule but mandated that State laws conform to the customary law, social and religious practices, and community resources of tribal communities.
  • CPESA was enacted to provide reservations for Scheduled Tribes in all Panchayati Raj bodies across India, including non-scheduled areas.
  • DPESA abolished the authority of the Governor over Scheduled Areas and transferred all administrative powers to Gram Sabhas in those areas.
Answer: (b)

Option (b) is correct — PESA (1996) extended Panchayati Raj to Fifth Schedule areas (left out of the 1992 73rd Amendment), mandating State laws conform to tribal customary law, social/religious practices, and traditional resource management. Option (a) is wrong — PESA applies to Fifth, not Sixth, Schedule areas, and creates a customised framework rather than a direct extension without modifications. Option (c) is wrong — PESA's tribal reservation provisions apply only to Fifth Schedule areas, not nationwide (general ST reservations flow from the 73rd Amendment itself). Option (d) is wrong — PESA strengthened Gram Sabhas without abolishing the Governor's Fifth Schedule powers, which remain intact.

Book a Free Demo Class

August 2026
M T W T F S S
 12
3456789
10111213141516
17181920212223
24252627282930
31  
Categories

Get free Counselling and ₹25,000 Discount

Fill the form – Our experts will call you within 30 mins.