Current Affairs Quiz 25 September 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

Score: 0 / 0
Q1
With reference to political parties in India, consider the following statements:
  • The expression 'political party' is mentioned in the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the Fifty-second Amendment.
  • Registration of a political party with the Election Commission of India is provided for under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  • The Election Commission has statutory power to deregister any registered party that does not contest elections for six consecutive years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct — the term "political party" entered the Constitution through the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection), inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, and parties register with the ECI under Section 29A of the RPA, 1951. Statement 3 is incorrect — in Indian National Congress v. Institute of Social Welfare (2002), the Supreme Court held that the ECI can cancel registration only where it was obtained by fraud, where the party ceases to bear allegiance to the Constitution, or where it is declared unlawful; a party that simply does not contest elections is only "delisted," not deregistered, and remains eligible to receive contributions under Section 29B and claim tax exemption under Section 13A. This is a power-inflation trap, dressing up an administrative delisting practice as a statutory deregistration power the ECI does not have.

Q2
With reference to rural skilling programmes in India, consider the following statements:
  • Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship as part of the Skill India Mission.
  • The scheme provides placement-linked skill training to rural youth aged 15 to 35 years from poor households.
  • Under DDU-GKY 2.0, the minimum duration that qualifies as a placement has been extended from three months to six months.
  • Rural Self Employment Training Institutes provide free residential training to rural youth for self-employment and are managed by banks.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect — DDU-GKY is actually implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development as the skilling arm of DAY-NRLM, launched on 25 September 2014 and now completing 12 years, targeting rural youth aged 15–35 with mandatory coverage of SC/ST 50%, women 33%, and persons with disabilities 5%. The DDU-GKY 2.0 guidelines, notified May 2025, do extend the placement definition from 3 to 6 months, counting wage, self- and gig employment, with 12 months of post-placement tracking. RSETIs are bank-managed institutes, modelled on RUDSETI (1982, Ujire, Karnataka), offering residential training to youth aged 18–50, with 647 RSETIs now operating in 634 districts. This is a ministry-swap trap, placing the scheme with MSDE — the ministry most associated with skilling — rather than the ministry that actually runs it.

Q3
With reference to India's manufacturing policy, consider the following statements:
  • Production Linked Incentive schemes give incentives on incremental sales of goods manufactured in India over a defined base year.
  • Under Make in India 2.0, all twenty-seven focus sectors of the initiative are drawn exclusively from manufacturing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — PLI schemes, launched 2020–21 across 14 sectors with a total outlay of about ₹1.97 lakh crore, reward incremental production and sales over a base year, having attracted about ₹2.4 lakh crore of investment by 2026 (though the top five sectors account for nearly 83% of it). Statement 2 is incorrect — Make in India, launched 25 September 2014 under DPIIT, covers 27 sectors under version 2.0, but only 15 are manufacturing, with the other 12 drawn from services, including Medical Value Travel, Legal Services and Environmental Services. This is a scope-narrowing trap — the name "Make in India" suggests factories only, tempting the removal of its services component.

Q4
  • Statement-I: An amendment to the UN Charter abolishing the veto cannot come into force unless it is ratified by all five permanent members of the Security Council.
  • Statement-II: The word 'veto' does not appear anywhere in the text of the Charter of the United Nations.
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
  • CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (b)

Both statements are correct, but the second does not explain the first. Statement-I follows from Article 108 — an amendment needs adoption by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of members including all permanent members, so the veto effectively protects itself. Statement-II is also true, since the veto is the practical effect of Article 27(3), which requires the "concurring votes of the permanent members" on substantive matters, with an abstention not counted as a veto by practice. But the ratification rule arises specifically from Article 108, not from the mere absence of the word "veto." This is a true-but-unrelated trap, where two accurate facts about the veto invite a false causal link.

Q5
With reference to the Charter and practice of the United Nations, consider the following statements:
  • The Security Council was enlarged from eleven to fifteen members through a Charter amendment that came into force in 1965.
  • Article 53 of the UN Charter exempts regional enforcement action against World War II 'enemy states' from the need for Security Council authorisation.
  • Under a 2022 General Assembly resolution, the Assembly convenes within ten working days whenever a veto is cast in the Security Council.
  • The 'Uniting for Peace' resolution of 1950 was adopted by the Security Council to limit the General Assembly's role in matters of peace and security.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Council grew from 11 to 15 members by an amendment in force from 1965; Article 53(1) requires Council authorisation for regional enforcement action but makes an exception for measures against "enemy states" defined in Article 53(2), with Article 107 similarly preserving Allied action against them (the UNGA called these clauses obsolete in 1995, and the 2005 World Summit resolved to delete them, though no amendment followed); and Resolution 76/262 (April 2022), the Liechtenstein initiative, does mandate a UNGA debate within 10 working days of a veto. Statement 4 is incorrect — Uniting for Peace (Resolution 377(V)) was adopted by the General Assembly, not the Security Council, specifically to let the Assembly act when the Council is deadlocked by lack of unanimity among the permanent members. This combines an organ-swap with a purpose-reversal trap in statement 4.

Q6
With reference to Greenland, consider the following statements:
  • Greenland is a self-governing territory within the Kingdom of Denmark, but it is not a part of the European Union.
  • Denmark, which retains responsibility for Greenland's foreign affairs and defence, is a founding member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
  • The United States operates Pituffik Space Base in Greenland under a defence agreement signed with Denmark in 1951.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. Greenland gained Home Rule in 1979 and wider autonomy under the Self-Government Act, 2009, and after a 1982 referendum left the European Economic Community in 1985, even though Denmark itself remains an EU member; Denmark signed the North Atlantic Treaty in 1949 as a founding member; and the Defense of Greenland Agreement (1951), updated in 2004, is the basis for the base formerly called Thule, renamed Pituffik Space Base in 2023, supporting missile warning and space surveillance. This is an all-true discomfort set — statement 1 tempts doubt because Denmark is in the EU, wrongly assuming the territory automatically follows its parent state's EU membership.

Q7
With reference to the liquidity management operations of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:
  • Under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility, the Standing Deposit Facility rate forms the floor and the Marginal Standing Facility rate the ceiling of the corridor.
  • An open market sale of government securities by the RBI injects durable liquidity into the banking system.
  • When banks swap foreign currency mobilised through FCNR(B) deposits with the RBI for rupees, rupee liquidity in the banking system rises.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Since April 2022, the Standing Deposit Facility at repo minus 25 bps is the floor of the LAF corridor and the Marginal Standing Facility at repo plus 25 bps is the ceiling, and when banks sell dollars raised through FCNR(B) deposits to the RBI under swaps, the RBI pays rupees, adding to liquidity — this, with month-end government spending, pushed the surplus to about ₹4.92 lakh crore. Statement 2 is incorrect — an OMO sale actually takes cash out of the system as banks pay for the securities, absorbing durable liquidity rather than injecting it. This is a direction-reversal trap, pairing the correct instrument with the opposite effect.

Q8
Consider the following pairs of financial messaging or payment systems and the institutions or places associated with them:
  • Cross-Border Interbank Payment System (CIPS) — People's Bank of China
  • System for Transfer of Financial Messages (SPFS) — Bank of Russia
  • Structured Financial Messaging System (SFMS) — National Payments Corporation of India
  • SWIFT — headquartered in Switzerland
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (b)

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched — CIPS, launched by the People's Bank of China in 2015, clears cross-border yuan payments onshore with participants in 120+ countries, and SPFS was developed by the Bank of Russia in 2014 to bypass Western sanctions, reaching 440 users by 2023. Pair 3 is incorrect — India's SFMS, which underpins NEFT and RTGS, is actually run by IDRBT, an RBI-established institute in Hyderabad, not NPCI, which runs UPI and RuPay. Pair 4 is incorrect too — SWIFT, founded in 1973, is a cooperative headquartered in Belgium, overseen by the National Bank of Belgium, not Switzerland. This combines an institution-swap trap in pair 3 with a location-swap trap in pair 4, since Switzerland is more commonly associated with international banking bodies like the BIS.

Q9
With reference to the measurement of national income, which one of the following statements is correct?
  • AReal GDP is obtained by multiplying nominal GDP by the GDP deflator.
  • BGDP at market prices equals GVA at basic prices plus product subsidies minus product taxes.
  • CA depreciation of the rupee against the US dollar, other things remaining the same, raises India's GDP measured in dollars.
  • DIf nominal GDP in rupees grows by 10% while the rupee depreciates by about 10% against the dollar, GDP in dollar terms remains roughly unchanged.
Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct — dollar GDP growth is approximately nominal rupee growth minus rupee depreciation, so the two effects cancel out, as seen in the debate on whether India's economy can triple in a decade. Option (a) is wrong, since real GDP equals nominal GDP divided by the GDP deflator, not multiplied by it. Option (b) reverses the signs — GDP actually equals GVA plus product taxes minus product subsidies. Option (c) is wrong too, since depreciation means more rupees per dollar, so the same rupee GDP converts into fewer dollars, not more. India's dollar GDP grew at a 6.2% CAGR in 2014–2026 while the rupee fell about 3.2% a year; tripling to about $12.46 trillion by 2036 would need about 11.6% annual dollar growth. This combines three separate operation-reversal traps across the wrong options.

Q10
With reference to Polylactic Acid (PLA), recently in news under the BioE3 framework, consider the following statements:
  • It is a polymer made from lactic acid obtained by the microbial fermentation of sugars derived from crops such as sugarcane.
  • The Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council, which is funding a PLA pilot facility, is a not-for-profit company set up by the Department of Biotechnology.
  • Being a bio-based plastic, it degrades rapidly in soil and marine environments without any need for industrial composting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. PLA is made by fermenting sugars into lactic acid, converting it to lactide and polymerising it, and BIRAC, a Section 8 not-for-profit public sector enterprise set up by the Department of Biotechnology in 2012, has given a ₹75 crore grant for a 100 TPA PLA pilot facility at Kumbhi, Uttar Pradesh, under the BioE3 policy. Statement 3 is incorrect — PLA breaks down reliably only under industrial composting conditions (about 58°C, high humidity), degrading very slowly in soil and seawater; being bio-based does not mean being biodegradable, just as bio-PE is bio-based but not biodegradable, while fossil-based PBAT is biodegradable. This is a category-conflation trap, passing off the feedstock label "bio-based" as an end-of-life property.

Book a Free Demo Class

September 2026
M T W T F S S
 123456
78910111213
14151617181920
21222324252627
282930  
Categories

Get free Counselling and ₹25,000 Discount

Fill the form – Our experts will call you within 30 mins.