Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027
- Besides Indian-flagged ships, cargo vessels bound to or from Indian ports are eligible for cover under the Pool.
- The sovereign guarantee backing the Pool is invoked for any claim exceeding USD 100 million, irrespective of the Pool's reserves.
- Protection and Indemnity (P&I) insurance covers third-party liabilities such as oil pollution, wreck removal and crew injury.
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Eligibility covers Indian-flagged vessels, vessels owned, managed or controlled by Indian entities, and cargo vessels bound to or from India, and P&I cover indeed addresses third-party liabilities — pollution, wreck removal, crew injury and cargo damage — while Hull & Machinery covers the ship itself. Statement 2 is incorrect — claims up to USD 100 million are actually met first from the Pool's reserves and reinsurance recoveries, with the ₹12,980 crore sovereign guarantee activating only after the Pool's reserves are completely exhausted. This is a condition-deletion trap, replacing "only after reserves are exhausted" with "irrespective of," when a sovereign guarantee is designed as a last-resort backstop.
- PRASHAD — Tourism infrastructure at identified pilgrimage and heritage destinations
- Swadesh Darshan (launched 2014–15) — Destination-centric approach replacing theme-based tourist circuits
- NIDHI+ — Online processing of e-Visas for foreign tourists
- AOnly one pair
- BOnly two pairs
- CAll three pairs
- DNone of the pairs
Only pair 1 is correctly matched — PRASHAD (2014–15) funds infrastructure at pilgrimage and heritage destinations, with 54 projects worth ₹1,726.18 crore sanctioned. Pair 2 is incorrect, since the original Swadesh Darshan (2014–15) actually built theme-based circuits (15 circuits, 76 projects); the destination-centric approach belongs instead to Swadesh Darshan 2.0. Pair 3 is incorrect too — NIDHI+ is the National Integrated Database of Hospitality Industry, covering registration and classification of tourism service providers, NOT e-Visa processing, which is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs. This combines a version-swap trap in pair 2 with an acronym-misdirection trap in pair 3.
- World Tourism Day is observed on 27 September, marking the adoption of the Statutes of the UNWTO in 1970.
- UN Tourism, a specialised agency of the United Nations, is headquartered in Geneva.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct — the day marks the adoption of the UNWTO Statutes on 27 September 1970, celebrated since 1980, with the 2026 theme "Digital Agenda and Artificial Intelligence to Redesign Tourism," hosted by El Salvador. Statement 2 is incorrect, since UN Tourism (renamed from UNWTO in 2024) is headquartered in Madrid, Spain, not Geneva. This is a location-swap trap — Geneva hosts many UN bodies (WHO, ILO, WIPO, WMO), making it a plausible-sounding but wrong distractor for any UN agency.
- Statement-I: e-Methanol produced from green hydrogen and biogenic carbon dioxide is regarded as a low-carbon marine fuel.
- Statement-II: Methanol remains liquid at ambient temperature and pressure, making it easier to store and bunker than hydrogen.
- ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
- BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
- DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Both statements are correct, but the second does not explain the first. Green hydrogen made by electrolysis using renewable power, combined with biogenic CO₂, gives a fuel with low lifecycle emissions, while methanol is indeed a liquid at room conditions, unlike hydrogen, which must be stored under high pressure or cryogenically. But being a liquid explains ease of handling, NOT why the fuel is low-carbon — that comes from the feedstock, not the physical state. This is a true-but-irrelevant-reason trap: a physical property cannot explain a carbon footprint.
- Aa ban on the import of electronic components from countries with which India runs a trade deficit
- Ba cap of 26% on foreign investment in manufacturing companies located in border districts
- Cmandatory Reserve Bank approval for external commercial borrowings from non-market economies
- Dthe Government approval route for foreign investment from entities of countries sharing a land border with India
Option (d) is correct — Press Note 3 (2020 Series), issued by DPIIT on 17 April 2020, requires that an entity of a country sharing a land border with India, or where the beneficial owner is from such a country, may invest only under the Government route, aimed at curbing opportunistic takeovers during the COVID-19 period. Options (a), (b), and (c) are all constructed distractors — no such import ban, 26% border-district cap, or RBI approval rule for ECBs actually exists. This is a plausible-policy-fabrication trap, borrowing real vocabulary (trade deficit, RBI, ECB) but attaching it to rules that do not exist.
- In Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh (2013), the Supreme Court held that no preliminary inquiry is permissible before registering an FIR in any case.
- Section 173(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 permits a preliminary enquiry within 14 days for cognisable offences punishable with three years or more but less than seven years.
- The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 requires at least one officer in every police station to be designated as the Child Welfare Police Officer.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Section 173(3), BNSS does allow a preliminary enquiry within 14 days, with prior permission of an officer not below DSP rank, for offences punishable with 3 to under 7 years; and Section 107, JJ Act 2015 requires every police station to have at least one officer designated as Child Welfare Police Officer. Statement 1 is incorrect — the Constitution Bench made FIR registration mandatory where information discloses a cognisable offence, but did allow a limited preliminary inquiry in specified categories (matrimonial/family disputes, commercial offences, medical negligence, corruption, abnormal delay), ordinarily within 7 days. This is an absolute-word trap — courts rarely lay down absolute bans, so "in any case" should raise suspicion.
- In Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006), a Constitution Bench held the right to vote to be a statutory right.
- The voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies was lowered from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
- Article 326 provides that no person shall be ineligible for inclusion in an electoral roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex.
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Kuldip Nayar (2006) did hold the right to elect to be a statutory right under Section 62, RPA 1951, and the 61st Amendment Act, 1988 did amend Article 326 to lower the voting age to 18. Statement 3 is incorrect — the described provision is actually Article 325, not Article 326, which instead provides for elections on the basis of adult suffrage. This is an adjacent-article-swap trap, exploiting two consecutive articles on the same theme.
- Statement-I: Under the law governing the Election Commission, where the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners differ in opinion, the matter is decided by majority.
- Statement-II: The Selection Committee that recommends appointments of Election Commissioners under the 2023 Act includes the Chief Justice of India.
- ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
- BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
- DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
Statement-I is correct — Section 18 of the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023 requires business to be transacted unanimously as far as possible, and by majority where members differ. Statement-II is incorrect — the Selection Committee actually comprises the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister; the CJI was part only of the interim arrangement ordered in Anoop Baranwal (March 2023), which the 2023 Act later replaced. This is a superseded-arrangement trap, importing the court's temporary formula into the current statute.
- The President prorogues the Houses of Parliament under Article 85 of the Constitution.
- Prorogation of the Lok Sabha causes all Bills pending before it to lapse.
- An Ordinance cannot be promulgated by the President when both Houses of Parliament are in session.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Article 85(2)(a) provides that the President may prorogue the Houses or either House, and Article 123(1) permits Ordinances only when both Houses are not in session. Statement 2 is incorrect — prorogation does NOT cause pending Bills to lapse; lapse is instead linked to dissolution of the Lok Sabha under Article 107(5), subject to exceptions. This is a concept-conflation trap, transferring a consequence of dissolution onto prorogation.
- An amendment to the UN Charter comes into force only after ratification by two-thirds of UN members, including all permanent members of the Security Council.
- The Security Council has been enlarged only once, when its membership was raised from 11 to 15.
- Non-permanent members are elected for two-year terms and are not eligible for immediate re-election.
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
All three statements are correct. Article 108 requires adoption by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of members including all five permanent members, the structural reason reform stalls; the amendment adopted in 1963, in force from 1965, remains the only enlargement, raising membership from 11 to 15; and Article 23(2) fixes two-year terms with no immediate re-election, and India has served eight terms, most recently 2021–22. This is an aversion-to-"all correct" trap, where aspirants often assume at least one statement must be wrong and pick a smaller count.
- COP26, Glasgow — Call to phase down unabated coal power
- COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh — Decision to establish a fund for responding to loss and damage
- COP28, Dubai — First decision text referring to transitioning away from fossil fuels in energy systems
- COP29, Baku — New Collective Quantified Goal of at least US$300 billion a year by 2035
- AOnly one pair
- BOnly two pairs
- COnly three pairs
- DAll four pairs
All four pairs are correctly matched. The Glasgow Climate Pact (2021) called for a phase-down of unabated coal power; COP27 (2022) agreed to set up a Loss and Damage Fund, operationalised at COP28; the first Global Stocktake decision at COP28 (2023) called for "transitioning away from fossil fuels in energy systems"; and the NCQG agreed at COP29 (2024) set a goal of at least US$300 billion a year by 2035. COP31 will be held in Antalya, Türkiye, in November 2026, with Australia leading negotiations. When every pair genuinely checks out, the correct answer is indeed "all four" — do not second-guess a clean verification.
- Under UNCLOS, the Exclusive Economic Zone of a coastal state may extend up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline.
- The Montevideo Convention (1933) lists membership of an international organisation as one of the criteria of statehood.
- The contiguous zone of a coastal state may extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Only statement 1 is correct — Article 57, UNCLOS sets the EEZ at up to 200 nm from the baselines, and the UN Declaration on Sea Level Rise (24 September 2026) affirms these zones stay fixed even if coasts retreat. Statement 2 is incorrect — Article 1 of the Montevideo Convention actually lists four criteria (a permanent population, a defined territory, a government, and capacity to enter into relations with other states), with UN membership being a consequence of statehood, not a criterion of it. Statement 3 is incorrect too, since the contiguous zone actually extends up to 24 nm (Article 33); 12 nm is instead the limit of the territorial sea. This combines a criterion-insertion trap with a number-swap trap between the two maritime zones.
- The National Crime Records Bureau functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, the investigation of an offence of rape is to be completed within two months from the date the information is recorded.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Both statements are correct. The NCRB was set up in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs and publishes the annual "Crime in India" report, with its 2024 data showing 29,536 rape cases registered; and Section 193(2), BNSS carries forward the two-month investigation timeline, with the trial likewise to be completed within two months of the chargesheet. Crime statistics and policing are correctly filed under Home Affairs — a Ministry-swap temptation toward the Law Ministry does not hold here.
- Poompuhar, at the mouth of the Kaveri, is associated with the early Cholas of the Sangam age.
- The Tamil epic Silappatikaram opens in Poompuhar with the marriage of Kovalan and Kannagi.
- Arikamedu, a site of Indo-Roman trade, lies on the Malabar coast of Kerala.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Poompuhar (Kaveripoompattinam), in Mayiladuthurai district, was indeed the port capital of the early Cholas, and the first book of the Silappatikaram, the Puhar Kandam, is set in Poompuhar and opens with the marriage of Kovalan and Kannagi. Statement 3 is incorrect — Arikamedu is actually near Puducherry on the Coromandel (east) coast, not the Malabar coast; the Malabar-coast site linked with Indo-Roman trade is Pattanam, associated with ancient Muziris. This is a coast-swap trap, shifting a genuine Indo-Roman site to the wrong coast.
- Tea thrives best in well-drained soils rich in lime and calcium.
- The Tea Board of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- The tea plant indigenous to Assam belongs to the variety Camellia sinensis var. assamica.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D2 and 3 only
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Tea Board is constituted under the Tea Act, 1953, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, headquartered in Kolkata; and assamica grows wild in Assam, with the Singpho community having helped identify it in the 1820s. Statement 1 is incorrect — tea actually needs acidic, lime-free soils, deep, well-drained and rich in humus, since lime is harmful to the crop, along with warm, humid conditions and 150–300 cm of rainfall on slopes. This is a soil-requirement-inversion trap — "lime-rich" sounds fertile, but tea is a classic acid-soil crop.


