Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027
- It was launched in 1995 to give effect to the Directive Principle of public assistance in cases of old age, sickness and disablement under Article 41.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme implemented directly by the Union Ministry of Rural Development without any role for State Governments.
- Under the revised norms approved in October 2026, its disability pension will cover persons with 40% benchmark disability from birth.
Statement 1 is correct — NSAP was launched on 15 August 1995 to discharge the Centre's responsibility under Article 41 (DPSP), which covers public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. Statement 2 is incorrect — NSAP is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in the ‘Core of the Core’ category; it carries 100% central assistance but is implemented by the States/UTs, which also add their own top-ups. Statement 3 is correct — the Cabinet lowered the threshold from 80% to 40% benchmark disability and removed the minimum age, so the pension is available from birth (earlier 18 years). Funding share does not decide the category, since who implements does, and the qualifier ‘without any role’ is a red flag. NSAP is now the PM Samajik Sahayata Yojana.
- Statement-I: The revised central disability pension rates of ₹375 and ₹625 a month are each 25% higher than the corresponding central widow pension rates.
- Statement-II: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 defines ‘benchmark disability’ as not less than 40% of a specified disability.
Statement-I is correct — widow pension is ₹300 (40–79 years) and ₹500 (80+), and 300 × 1.25 = ₹375 while 500 × 1.25 = ₹625. Statement-II is correct — Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act defines benchmark disability as not less than 40% of a specified disability. But Statement-II does not explain Statement-I: the 25% premium comes from Section 24(1), which requires disability assistance to be at least 25% higher than similar schemes for others, whereas Section 2(r) explains only the eligibility threshold. Apply the ‘because’ test — rates are not higher because benchmark disability is 40%, as that says who is eligible, not how much is paid. Both facts come from the same Act and the same decision, which is the proximity trap.
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry with an outlay of ₹33,660 crore over six years from FY 2026–27.
- Parks under the scheme are allocated among States by a formula based on each State's share of industrial output.
- Up to 25% of the approved funding may be used for external infrastructure such as road, rail and last-mile connectivity.
- Each park is to be developed and managed through a dedicated Special Purpose Vehicle.
Statement 1 is correct — the outlay is ₹33,660 crore from FY 2026–27 to FY 2031–32 under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, approved in March 2026 and notified on 10 April 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect — parks are selected in challenge mode, with up to 50 parks in Phase I over two rounds and 100 in all, judged on project readiness, land availability and industrial potential; there is no output-based formula. Statement 3 is correct — up to 25% of approved funding may go to external connectivity. Statement 4 is correct — dedicated SPVs oversee development, operations, investor facilitation and maintenance. Formula-based allocation is the method used for Finance Commission devolution, not for competitive schemes like BHAVYA or the Smart Cities Mission. Also recall support of up to ₹1 crore per acre and park sizes of 25–1,000 acres.
- Industries (subject to Union control over declared industries) — State List
- Acquisition and requisitioning of property — Union List
- Social security and social insurance — Concurrent List
- Relief of the disabled and unemployable — Concurrent List
Pair 1 is correct — industries are State List Entry 24, subject to Union List Entries 7 and 52. Pair 2 is incorrect — acquisition and requisitioning of property is Concurrent List Entry 42, while land itself is State List Entry 18. Pair 3 is correct — social security and social insurance is Concurrent List Entry 23. Pair 4 is incorrect — relief of the disabled and unemployable is State List Entry 9, which is why States run their own pension schemes alongside NSAP. Entries that sound ‘national’ are often moved to the wrong list, and land versus acquisition of land is the classic split: State List 18 versus Concurrent List 42.
- BHARAT TULIP, a programme to expand market access for traditional artisans, is implemented by the Ministry of MSME through the Khadi and Village Industries Commission.
- Article 46 of the Constitution directs the State to endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas.
Statement 1 is incorrect — BHARAT TULIP (Traditional Artisans' Upliftment Livelihood Programme, launched 5 November 2024) is run by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment through the National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation (NBCFDC), not MSME/KVIC. Statement 2 is incorrect — promotion of cottage industries is in Article 43, whereas Article 46 concerns the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections, especially SCs and STs. The setter swaps the familiar ‘artisan’ ministry and the adjacent DPSP articles, so both statements sound right while neither is.
- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds applicable to a judge of the Supreme Court.
- Under the 2023 law on appointments, the Selection Committee comprises the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India.
- An Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Statement 1 is correct — Article 324(5) gives the CEC the same removal protection as a Supreme Court judge. Statement 2 is incorrect — the committee with the CJI was the interim arrangement ordered in Anoop Baranwal (2023), while under Section 7 of the 2023 Act the committee is the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition (or leader of the largest opposition party) and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM; the CJI is not a member. Statement 3 is correct — under the proviso to Article 324(5), an Election Commissioner can be removed only on the CEC's recommendation. Separate what the Court ordered from what Parliament enacted.
Section 301 of the Trade Act of 1974 allows the US Trade Representative to investigate and respond to foreign practices that are unfair or burden US commerce, and it was used against China from 2018. Option (b) is wrong — Section 232 of the Trade Expansion Act, 1962 covers national-security tariffs (steel, aluminium). Option (c), IEEPA, was the basis of the 2025 ‘reciprocal’ tariffs, and option (d) is a multilateral WTO instrument, not a US domestic provision. All four are real trade instruments, so anchor the numbers: 301 → Trade Act 1974 (unfair practices); 232 → Trade Expansion Act 1962 (security).
- Statement-I: The right to hold peaceful demonstrations is not expressly mentioned in the Constitution of India but is protected as a fundamental right.
- Statement-II: Article 19(1)(b) guarantees all citizens the right to assemble peaceably and without arms, subject to reasonable restrictions in the interests of public order.
Statement-I is correct — the word ‘protest’ does not appear in the Constitution, but the Supreme Court has read the right into Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(b), for example in Kameshwar Prasad v. State of Bihar (1962) and Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (2018). Statement-II is correct — Article 19(1)(b) protects peaceable, unarmed assembly, and Article 19(3) allows restrictions in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India and public order. Statement-II supplies the textual source of the protection claimed in Statement-I, so it explains it: peaceful protest is protected because Article 19(1)(b) guarantees peaceable assembly. ‘Not expressly mentioned’ tempts a ‘therefore not a right’ error.
- The Code on Wages, 2019 makes a national floor wage statutory, and minimum wages fixed by the appropriate government cannot be lower than it.
- The four Labour Codes, which replaced 44 central labour laws, came into force across the country on 1 April 2025.
Statement 1 is correct — the Code on Wages, 2019 makes the floor wage statutory, so State minimum wages may not fall below it, and minimum wages are fixed by skill category (unskilled, semi-skilled, skilled, highly skilled) and geography. Statement 2 is incorrect — the four Codes (Wages 2019; Industrial Relations 2020; Social Security 2020; OSH 2020) consolidated 29 central laws, not 44, and came into force on 21 November 2025, not 1 April 2025. The setter combines a number mutation (44 was the older count of laws considered for codification) with a plausible financial-year date.
- Article 22(1) of the Constitution requires that an arrested person be informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds of arrest.
- Section 47 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 expressly requires the grounds of arrest to be furnished in writing.
- According to the Supreme Court, written grounds of arrest must be supplied at least two hours before the arrestee is produced for remand proceedings.
Statement 1 is correct — Article 22(1) gives the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and to consult a lawyer of one's choice, while Article 22(2) adds production before a magistrate within 24 hours. Statement 2 is incorrect — Section 47 BNSS (formerly Section 50 CrPC) requires the grounds to be communicated but does not specify the mode; the written requirement is judge-made, through Pankaj Bansal (2023), Prabir Purkayastha (2024) and Rajesh Mihir Shah (2025). Statement 3 is correct — Rajesh Mihir Shah (2025) set the two-hour minimum, and Jaskaran Jeet Singh Deol (2026) added consequences such as re-arrest only with the magistrate's leave, a change of investigating officer and a departmental inquiry. Always ask whether a rule is in the Act or the Court read it in.
- Under the RBI's Foreign Exchange Risk Reserve, banks must keep a part of the value of rupee-linked forex derivative contracts above $2 million as cash with the RBI.
- China, which uses a similar reserve ratio, raised it to 20% in 2026 to curb the strengthening of the yuan.
- A rise in domestic demand for dollars to hedge against rupee depreciation can itself put downward pressure on the rupee.
- Since 1993, India's exchange rate has been largely market-determined, with the RBI intervening to contain excessive volatility.
Statement 1 is correct — banks must set aside 20% (which the RBI can vary) of rupee-linked forex derivative contracts above $2 million as cash with the RBI, making hedging and speculation against the rupee costlier. Statement 2 is incorrect — in March 2026 China cut its reserve ratio from 20% to zero because the yuan was strengthening, and removing the reserve lowered the cost of betting against the yuan, the opposite of India's situation. Statement 3 is correct — hedging means buying dollars forward, which adds to dollar demand and weakens the rupee in a stressed market. Statement 4 is correct — after LERMS (1992) the rupee became market-determined in March 1993, a managed float. The reversed direction stays internally coherent, so only the logic of the tool exposes it: you remove a cost on selling your currency when it is too strong.
- It brought hydrofluorocarbons under the Montreal Protocol because they deplete the stratospheric ozone layer.
- India must freeze its HFC production and consumption in 2028 and achieve an 85% reduction from its baseline by 2047.
- The Multilateral Fund, which supports developing countries' compliance, is financed by contributions from developed countries.
Statement 1 is incorrect — HFCs were adopted as substitutes for CFCs precisely because they do not deplete ozone; they were brought under the Protocol because they are potent greenhouse gases, and full implementation could avoid 0.3–0.5°C of warming by 2100. Statement 2 is correct — India (ratified 2021; baseline 2024–26) freezes in 2028, then cuts 10% (2032), 20% (2037), 30% (2042) and 85% (2047). Statement 3 is correct — the Multilateral Fund (established 1990, operational 1991) is financed by developed countries to meet the agreed incremental costs of developing countries. Kigali, adopted on 15 October 2016 and in force from 1 January 2019, is a climate measure carried by an ozone treaty.
- Nagoya Protocol — Access to genetic resources and fair sharing of benefits
- Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework — Protecting 30% of land and sea areas by 2030
- Cartagena Protocol — Benefit-sharing from Digital Sequence Information
- Kigali Amendment — Phase-out of chlorofluorocarbons
Pair 1 is correct — the Nagoya Protocol (2010; in force 12 October 2014) is the CBD's ABS instrument, which India implements through the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, with the NBA distributing ABS money (cumulative ₹202 crore). Pair 2 is correct — the KMGBF (2022), Target 3, is the ‘30×30’ goal, while Target 13 covers benefit-sharing and Target 19 resource mobilisation. Pair 3 is incorrect — the Cartagena Protocol (2000) deals with biosafety of living modified organisms, and benefit-sharing from DSI is handled by the Cali Fund, set up at COP16 (2024). Pair 4 is incorrect — CFCs were phased out under the original Montreal Protocol (1987), whereas the Kigali Amendment (2016) phases down HFCs.
- The Jeypore ground gecko is endemic to the Eastern Ghats and was rediscovered in 2010 after being presumed extinct for over a century.
- Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, the Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining individual and community forest rights.
- The Bondo, one of the communities claiming Odisha's Balda hills as ancestral land, are notified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group.
Statement 1 is correct — described in 1878 by R.H. Beddome from Potangi (now lost to bauxite mining), the gecko was rediscovered in 2010 in Koraput; it is restricted to 900–1,400 m forests of the Eastern Ghats (Odisha and Andhra Pradesh) and is IUCN Endangered. Statement 2 is correct — Section 6 of the FRA, 2006 makes the Gram Sabha the authority to initiate the process of determining rights, and in Orissa Mining Corporation v. MoEF (2013) (Niyamgiri) gram sabhas decided on bauxite mining. Statement 3 is correct — the Bondo of Malkangiri are among Odisha's PVTGs, and the Paraja (Porja) also claim the Nagnaswari reserve forest. When every statement is correct, resist striking one out by reflex; Eastern versus Western Ghats is the line most likely to be second-guessed.
- The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.
- Oman's Musandam peninsula forms the southern shore of the Strait of Hormuz.
- LNG exports from Qatar to India do not need to pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
Statement 1 is correct — the strait links the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and onward to the Arabian Sea. Statement 2 is correct — Iran lies to the north, and Oman's Musandam exclave forms the southern shore. Statement 3 is incorrect — Qatar lies inside the Persian Gulf, so its cargoes must transit Hormuz, which is why Qatar's share of India's LNG fell to about 0.3% in May–September 2026, while Oman, whose terminal is on the Gulf of Oman, became the top supplier in September. Picture the map: inside the Gulf are Qatar, the UAE's main ports and Kuwait, while outside are Oman's coast and Fujairah.
