Current Affairs Quiz 24 October 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

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Q1
With reference to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, consider the following statements:
  • The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of forest rights.
  • The District Level Committee is the final authority to approve the record of forest rights.
  • Recognition of land under individual forest rights is subject to a ceiling of four hectares.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. Under Section 6(1), the Gram Sabha initiates the process by receiving and consolidating claims and passing a resolution, assisted by a Forest Rights Committee. Claims then move through the Sub-Divisional Level Committee to the District Level Committee, whose decision on the record of rights is final and binding under Section 6(6), while a State Level Monitoring Committee under the Chief Secretary oversees implementation. Under Section 4(6), land recognised for an individual or family cannot exceed the area actually occupied and is capped at 4 hectares.

Q2
With reference to the Forest Rights Act, 2006, consider the following statements:
  • Other Traditional Forest Dwellers must show that they have resided in forest land for at least three generations, that is, 75 years, before 13 December 2005.
  • Community Forest Resource rights include the right to protect, regenerate, conserve and manage a community forest resource.
  • The Act provides for recognition of habitat rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups and pre-agricultural communities.
  • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal ministry for implementing the Act.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — OTFDs must prove residence for three generations (75 years) before 13 December 2005, whereas forest-dwelling STs need only have resided before that date. Statement 2 is correct — Section 3(1)(i) gives communities the right to protect, regenerate, conserve and manage customary forest resources, and Statement 3 is correct — Section 3(1)(e) provides habitat rights for PVTGs and pre-agricultural communities, though these have been recognised for only 11 of 75 PVTGs so far. Statement 4 is incorrect — the nodal ministry is the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, with the Environment Ministry only a key partner on forest management.

Q3
With reference to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India, consider the following statements:
  • A pre-agricultural level of technology is one of the criteria used to identify PVTGs.
  • Odisha has the largest number of PVTGs among the States.
  • The term “Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups” was coined by the Dhebar Commission in 1961.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — PVTGs are identified by a pre-agricultural level of technology, low literacy, economic backwardness and a declining or stagnant population. Statement 2 is correct — Odisha has the largest number (13) of the 75 PVTGs, which are spread across 18 States and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Dhebar Commission (1960–61) highlighted inequality among tribes and led to the category of “Primitive Tribal Groups”, which was renamed PVTGs only in 2006.

Q4
According to Land Use Statistics 2023–24, India’s net sown area was about 139 million hectares and its gross cropped area about 218 million hectares. The cropping intensity is therefore closest to
  • A64 per cent
  • B157 per cent
  • C79 million hectares
  • D357 per cent
Answer: (b)

Cropping intensity = Gross Cropped Area ÷ Net Sown Area × 100 = 217.88 ÷ 138.99 × 100 ≈ 157%, meaning cropped land carries about 1.6 crops a year on average. Option (a) inverts the ratio (NSA ÷ GCA), option (c) is the difference GCA − NSA, which is the area sown more than once rather than an intensity, and option (d) wrongly adds 200 per cent. Any intensity below 100% signals the ratio has been flipped.

Q5
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: In Scheduled Areas covered by the PESA Act, Gram Sabhas have been given powers over minor forest produce.
  • Statement-II: The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 extends the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution to Fifth Schedule areas, with exceptions and modifications that strengthen the Gram Sabha.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)

Statement-I is correct — PESA requires States to give Gram Sabhas and Panchayats ownership of minor forest produce, along with powers over land alienation, local markets and money-lending. Statement-II is also correct and explains Statement-I — Part IX did not apply automatically to Scheduled Areas (Article 243M), and PESA extended it to Fifth Schedule areas in 10 States with Gram Sabha-centred modifications, which are the source of these powers. Note that PESA covers Fifth Schedule areas, not the Sixth Schedule areas of the North-East, which have Autonomous District Councils.

Q6
Which of the following countries share a land border with Yemen?
  • Saudi Arabia
  • Oman
  • United Arab Emirates
  • Djibouti
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C1, 2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: (b)

Saudi Arabia borders Yemen to the north and Oman to the east — Yemen’s only two land neighbours. The UAE does not touch Yemen, as Oman lies between them. Djibouti, only about 30 km away, faces Yemen across the Bab-el-Mandeb strait, which links the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden — a sea boundary, not a land border.

Q7
Consider the following pairs of India’s evacuation operations (Operation — Country / region of evacuation):
  • Operation Rahat (2015) — Yemen
  • Operation Ganga (2022) — Ukraine
  • Operation Kaveri (2023) — Sudan
  • Operation Ajay (2023) — Israel
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (d)

All four pairs are correctly matched. Operation Rahat evacuated Indians and many foreign nationals from Yemen in 2015 by sea and air via Djibouti, and Operation Ganga brought Indian students home from Ukraine in 2022 through Poland, Romania and other neighbours. Operation Kaveri evacuated Indians from conflict-hit Sudan in 2023, and Operation Ajay facilitated the return of Indians from Israel the same year. The editorial urges similar contingency planning as Indians in Saudi Arabia face Houthi attacks.

Q8
With reference to artificial intelligence and semiconductors, consider the following statements:
  • Graphics Processing Units are widely used to train AI models because they can perform many calculations in parallel.
  • ‘Inference’ refers to the process of training an AI model on large datasets.
  • Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) units assemble, test and package chips but do not fabricate silicon wafers.
  • The India Semiconductor Mission functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — GPUs perform thousands of operations at once, suiting the matrix calculations at the heart of AI training, and the IndiaAI Mission (2024) provides subsidised shared GPU compute. Statement 2 is incorrect — training builds a model from data, while inference is the use of a trained model to produce outputs such as answering a query. Statement 3 is correct — OSAT/ATMP units handle assembly, testing, marking and packaging while fabs make chips on wafers, and Statement 4 is correct — the India Semiconductor Mission (2021) functions under MeitY within the Digital India Corporation.

Q9
With reference to State Legislative Councils, consider the following statements:
  • Parliament may abolish a State’s Legislative Council if the State Assembly passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority.
  • A law abolishing a Legislative Council is deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
  • The total membership of a Legislative Council cannot exceed one-third of the membership of the Assembly and cannot be less than 40.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — under Article 169, Parliament may create or abolish a Council if the Assembly so resolves by a majority of its total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting. Statement 2 is incorrect — Article 169(3) expressly says such a law shall not be deemed an amendment of the Constitution for Article 368, so it is passed by a simple majority in Parliament. Statement 3 is correct — under Article 171(1), a Council is capped at one-third of the Assembly’s strength and must have at least 40 members; six States (AP, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, UP) now have Councils.

Q10
With reference to the legislative powers of a State Legislative Council, consider the following statements:
  • There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council to resolve a disagreement over a Bill.
  • A Money Bill may be introduced in either House of a bicameral State legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — unlike Parliament (Article 108), a State legislature has no joint sitting; under Article 197 the Council can only delay an ordinary Bill for up to three months and then one month, after which the Assembly’s will prevails. Statement 2 is incorrect — under Article 198, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Legislative Assembly, and the Council must return it within 14 days with mere recommendations. In both Parliament and the States, Money Bills begin in the directly elected House.

Q11
With reference to the judiciary, consider the following statements:
  • Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more States, or for two or more States and a Union Territory.
  • Article 39A, which directs the State to provide free legal aid and equal justice, was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — Article 231 permits a common High Court, and one High Court serves the UTs of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, whose new Ladakh bench in Leh (about 3,500 m) began sitting in October 2026. Statement 2 is correct — Article 39A on equal justice and free legal aid was added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), and the Supreme Court has also read access to justice into Article 21. In two-statement questions, test each independently — ‘Both’ is a legitimate answer.

Q12
With reference to labour statistics in India, consider the following statements:
  • Under the Current Weekly Status approach, a person’s activity status is determined with reference to the preceding 365 days.
  • The Periodic Labour Force Survey was launched in 2017, replacing the NSSO’s five-yearly employment–unemployment surveys.
  • The Code on Social Security, 2020 defines both “gig worker” and “platform worker”.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect — Current Weekly Status uses the preceding seven days, while the Usual Status approach uses the preceding 365 days. Statement 2 is correct — the PLFS began in April 2017, and from January 2027 it will add a separate stratum for households with platform workers and questions on unpaid care, volunteer and trainee work. Statement 3 is correct — the Code on Social Security, 2020 defines “gig worker” and “platform worker” and provides for social security schemes for them.

Q13
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: Under international statistical standards adopted in 2013, unpaid domestic and care work done for one’s own household is counted as a form of work.
  • Statement-II: The 19th International Conference of Labour Statisticians defined ‘own-use production work’ to include producing goods and providing services for final use by the household.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)

Statement-I is correct — the 19th ICLS (2013), convened by the ILO, broadened “work” beyond employment into five forms: own-use production work, employment, unpaid trainee work, volunteer work and other work. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I — because own-use production work covers household services such as cooking, cleaning, childcare and elderly care, unpaid care is counted as work even though it is not employment. The revised PLFS will begin capturing it from 2027.

Q14
With reference to the Shamonda virus, whose first known human case was recently confirmed in France, consider the following statements:
  • It belongs to the family Flaviviridae, the same family as the dengue virus.
  • The World Organisation for Animal Health, which monitors such diseases, is headquartered in Geneva.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect — Shamonda virus is an Orthobunyavirus in the family Peribunyaviridae, in the Simbu group with Schmallenberg, Akabane and Oropouche viruses, and is spread by Culicoides midges, which also transmit bluetongue. Statement 2 is incorrect — the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH), founded as the OIE in 1924, is headquartered in Paris, while Geneva hosts the WHO and Rome the FAO.

Q15
With reference to global climate assessments, consider the following statements:
  • The Emissions Gap Report is published annually by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
  • Article 2 of the Paris Agreement aims to hold warming well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels while pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C.
  • The United Nations Environment Programme is headquartered in Nairobi.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect — the Emissions Gap Report is published by UNEP (annually since 2010), while the IPCC publishes multi-year Assessment Reports such as AR6 (2021–23); the 2026 edition concludes that keeping to 1.5°C without significant overshoot is no longer possible. Statement 2 is correct — Article 2 of the Paris Agreement (2015) sets the “well below 2°C” goal and the 1.5°C aspiration. Statement 3 is correct — UNEP, created after the 1972 Stockholm Conference, is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.

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