Current Affairs Quiz 11 November 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

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Q1
With reference to India’s maritime zones and the regulation of fisheries, consider the following statements:
  • “Fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters” is an entry in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
  • Under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, a coastal State’s Exclusive Economic Zone may extend up to 200 nautical miles from its baselines.
  • The EEZ fisheries rules notified by India in November 2025 permit foreign fishing vessels to obtain an Access Pass to fish in India’s EEZ.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — Entry 57 of the Union List covers “fishing and fisheries beyond territorial waters”, while “Fisheries” within territorial waters is Entry 21 of the State List, which is why EEZ fishing rules are framed by the Centre. Statement 2 is correct — under Article 57 of UNCLOS (1982), the EEZ shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines, and within it the coastal State has sovereign rights over resources, not full sovereignty. Statement 3 is incorrect — the EEZ Fisheries Rules notified on 4 November 2025 under the Maritime Zones Act, 1976 bar foreign vessels from obtaining an Access Pass; the free digital pass, issued through the ReALCraft portal, is for Indian mechanised and large motorised vessels, with traditional and small-scale fishers exempt.

Q2
Consider the following pairs of channels around India’s island territories (Channel — Separates):
  • Ten Degree Channel — Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
  • Nine Degree Channel — Minicoy Island and the Maldives
  • Six Degree Channel — Great Nicobar and Sumatra
  • Coco Channel — North Andaman and the Coco Islands
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (c)

Pair 1 is correct — the Ten Degree Channel separates Little Andaman (Andaman group) from Car Nicobar (Nicobar group). Pair 2 is incorrect — the Nine Degree Channel separates Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep group, while it is the Eight Degree Channel that separates Minicoy from the Maldives (Minicoy lies at about 8.3°N). Pair 3 is correct — the Six Degree Channel lies between Great Nicobar (Indira Point, India’s southernmost point) and Sumatra, on the approach to the Malacca Strait. Pair 4 is correct — the Coco Channel separates North Andaman from Myanmar’s Coco Islands.

Q3
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: Conservation measures for tuna caught in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone are shaped by decisions of a regional fisheries management organisation, not by India alone.
  • Statement-II: Tunas are listed as highly migratory species under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, as their stocks range across national jurisdictions and the high seas.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)

Statement-I is correct — tuna in the Indian Ocean, including India’s EEZ, is managed under the Indian Ocean Tuna Commission, set up by a 1993 agreement under Article XIV of the FAO Constitution (in force 1996; Secretariat in Seychelles), whose Conservation and Management Measures bind members including India. Statement-II is correct — Annex I of UNCLOS lists yellowfin, bigeye and skipjack tuna as highly migratory species, and Article 64 requires coastal and fishing States to cooperate in conserving them. Because tuna stocks move across EEZs and the high seas, no single State can manage them alone, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Q4
With reference to seaweeds, consider the following statements:
  • Agar and carrageenan are extracted mainly from red algae.
  • Alginates are obtained mainly from brown algae such as Sargassum and Turbinaria.
  • Kappaphycus alvarezii, cultivated in India for carrageenan, is a species native to the Gulf of Mannar.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNone
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct — agar (from Gracilaria and Gelidiella) and carrageenan (from Kappaphycus) come from red algae (Rhodophyta). Statement 2 is correct — alginates are extracted from brown algae (Phaeophyta) such as Sargassum and Turbinaria. Statement 3 is incorrect — Kappaphycus alvarezii is not native to India but was introduced from South-East Asian waters for commercial cultivation, and studies have documented it spreading onto corals in the Gulf of Mannar, a bio-invasion concern relevant to lagoon farming in Lakshadweep.

Q5
With reference to mushrooms, consider the following statements:
  • Cultivated mushrooms are fruiting bodies of saprophytic fungi, which lack chlorophyll and obtain nutrition from dead organic matter.
  • The milky mushroom (Calocybe indica) is native to India and is suited to warm, humid conditions.
  • Mushrooms exposed to ultraviolet light can convert ergosterol into vitamin D₂.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. Mushrooms belong to Kingdom Fungi — no chlorophyll, cell walls of chitin and a saprophytic mode of nutrition — and the part we eat is the fruiting body, while the living network is the mycelium. Calocybe indica is an indigenous tropical mushroom suited to hot, humid plains, as grown by cultivators in Guntur and Nalanda in the PIB feature. Ultraviolet exposure converts ergosterol into vitamin D₂, making mushrooms one of the few non-animal natural sources of vitamin D.

Q6
Consider the following pairs of India’s biotechnology and research institutions (Institution — Description):
  • Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) — Not-for-profit Section 8 company set up by the Department of Biotechnology to support biotech start-ups and industry
  • Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) — Statutory body whose Governing Board is chaired by the Union Minister of Science and Technology
  • Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) — Apex body formed by merging the laboratories of the Indian Council of Medical Research
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • CAll three pairs
  • DNone of the pairs
Answer: (a)

Pair 1 is correct — BIRAC (2012) is a not-for-profit Section 8 company of the Department of Biotechnology, acting as the industry–academia interface for start-ups and SMEs. Pair 2 is incorrect — under the ANRF Act, 2023, the Governing Board is chaired by the Prime Minister, with the Ministers of Science & Technology and of Education as Vice-Presidents, and ANRF subsumed SERB. Pair 3 is incorrect — BRIC, approved by the Cabinet on 10 November 2023, subsumed 14 autonomous institutions of DBT (now 13 after NABI and CIAB merged), not ICMR laboratories, which fall under the Department of Health Research.

Q7
With reference to Article 22 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
  • The safeguards under clauses (1) and (2) do not apply to a person arrested or detained under a law providing for preventive detention.
  • The 24-hour period for producing an arrested person before a magistrate excludes the time necessary for the journey to the magistrate’s court.
  • The safeguards under clauses (1) and (2) are available only to citizens of India.
  • The provision of the Forty-fourth Amendment reducing the maximum period of preventive detention without an Advisory Board’s opinion to two months has not been brought into force.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — Article 22(3) excludes an enemy alien and a person held under a preventive detention law from clauses (1) and (2). Statement 2 is correct — Article 22(2) excludes only the journey time, and in Sujit Das v. Union of India (5 November 2026) the Supreme Court held that the clock starts the moment liberty is curtailed, not at formal arrest. Statement 3 is incorrect — clauses (1) and (2) protect any person arrested, citizen or foreigner, other than an enemy alien or preventive detainee; the citizens-only Fundamental Rights are Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30. Statement 4 is correct — Section 3 of the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 has never been notified, and in A.K. Roy v. Union of India (1982) the Court declined to compel the Government to bring it into force.

Q8
With reference to the ‘creamy layer’ among the Other Backward Classes, consider the following statements:
  • Exclusion of the creamy layer from OBC reservation was mandated by the Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992).
  • Under the DoPT Office Memorandum of 1993, income from salaries is counted while applying the income/wealth test to identify the creamy layer.
  • The income ceiling for the OBC creamy layer was raised to ₹8 lakh per annum in 2017.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — a nine-judge Bench in Indra Sawhney (1992) upheld the 27% OBC quota on condition that the creamy layer is excluded. Statement 2 is incorrect — the 8 September 1993 OM expressly excludes income from salaries and agricultural land from the income/wealth test, with the status of the parent’s post deciding for salaried families; in Union of India v. Rohith Nathan (11 March 2026), reaffirmed on 6 November 2026, the Court held that salary alone cannot determine creamy-layer status. Statement 3 is correct — the ceiling went from ₹1 lakh (1993) to ₹2.5 lakh (2004), ₹4.5 lakh (2008), ₹6 lakh (2013) and ₹8 lakh (2017).

Q9
Consider the following statements about satellite internet under international and Indian law:
  • Under the Outer Space Treaty, 1967, activities of private space companies are the sole responsibility of those companies and not of the State to which they belong.
  • The Telecommunications Act, 2023 provides for administrative assignment, rather than auction, of spectrum for the satellite-based services listed in its First Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect — Article VI of the Outer Space Treaty (1967) makes States internationally responsible for national space activities, including those of non-governmental entities, which require “authorization and continuing supervision”, so the US answers internationally for SpaceX. Statement 2 is correct — Section 4 of the Telecommunications Act, 2023, read with its First Schedule, provides for administrative assignment of spectrum for listed uses including satellite-based services, while other spectrum is generally auctioned.

Q10
With reference to the international climate regime, consider the following statements:
  • The meeting of the Parties to the Paris Agreement is known as the CMA.
  • Article 9.1 of the Paris Agreement requires all Parties, including developing countries, to provide financial resources for climate action.
  • The Fund for responding to Loss and Damage was operationalised at COP28 held in Dubai.
  • Under the Paris Agreement, Parties are required to communicate Nationally Determined Contributions once every ten years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct — the CMA is the COP serving as the meeting of the Parties to the Paris Agreement, while the CMP serves the Kyoto Protocol, and Antalya hosts COP31, CMP21 and CMA8. Statement 2 is incorrect — Article 9.1 obliges developed country Parties to provide finance, while Article 9.2 only encourages other Parties to do so voluntarily. Statement 3 is correct — the Fund was agreed at COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh (2022) and operationalised at COP28, Dubai (2023), and Nepal recently received $20 million from it after floods. Statement 4 is incorrect — under Article 4.9, NDCs are communicated every five years, the same cycle as the Global Stocktake.

Q11
In the context of emerging technologies, the term ‘digital twin’ refers to
  • Aa backup data centre that mirrors a primary server to ensure business continuity
  • Ba pair of quantum bits whose states remain correlated regardless of the distance between them
  • Ca duplicate digital identity created for an individual within a decentralised identity system
  • Da virtual replica of a physical asset, process or system, continuously updated with real-world data and used for simulation and optimisation
Answer: (d)

A digital twin is a live virtual model of a physical object, plant, grid or city, fed by real-time sensor data so that changes can be simulated before they are made; manufacturers deploying physical-AI robots report deployment times cut by about half using twins, and India’s National Geospatial Policy, 2022 envisages digital twins of major cities. Option (a) describes data mirroring for disaster recovery, (b) quantum entanglement and (c) a digital or self-sovereign identity.

Q12
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: A pulse oximeter estimates the oxygen saturation of venous blood draining from the fingertip.
  • Statement-II: Oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin absorb red and infrared light to different extents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)

Statement-I is incorrect — a pulse oximeter estimates SpO₂, the oxygen saturation of arterial blood, by isolating the pulsatile part of the light signal that comes from arteries expanding with each heartbeat. Statement-II is correct — oxygenated haemoglobin absorbs relatively more infrared light and deoxygenated haemoglobin more red light, and comparing the two gives the saturation; wearables such as the ‘Temple’ device use a related method, photoplethysmography (PPG).

Q13
Which one of the following countries does NOT share a land boundary with Myanmar?
  • ALaos
  • BBangladesh
  • CVietnam
  • DThailand
Answer: (c)

Myanmar shares land boundaries with five countries — Bangladesh, India, China, Laos and Thailand — while Vietnam lies further east, with Laos in between. The Golden Triangle is where Myanmar, Laos and Thailand meet on the Mekong. India–Myanmar ties were recently in the news with the first tri-services HADR exercise, RAHAT MITRA, in Chennai.

Q14
Consider the following pairs of Indian texts on UNESCO’s Memory of the World registers (Text — Subject matter):
  • Rajatarangini — History of the kings of Kashmir
  • Sahṛdayāloka-Locana — Grammar of the Pali language
  • Arthashastra — Saptanga theory of the State
  • Panchatantra — Commentary on the Bhagavad Gita
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (b)

Pair 1 is correct — Kalhana’s Rajatarangini (c. 1148–50 CE, eight tarangas) chronicles the kings of Kashmir and was inscribed on the Asia-Pacific register in November 2026. Pair 2 is incorrect — Sahṛdayāloka-Locana is a foundational work of Sanskrit poetics, Anandavardhana’s Dhvanyaloka with Abhinavagupta’s Locana commentary on the theory of dhvani (suggestion), inscribed in 2024. Pair 3 is correct — Kautilya’s Arthashastra sets out the Saptanga theory (Swami, Amatya, Janapada, Durga, Kosha, Danda and Mitra) and was inscribed in 2026. Pair 4 is incorrect — the Panchatantra, attributed to Vishnu Sharma, is a collection of animal fables teaching practical wisdom (niti), inscribed in 2024.

Q15
Consider the following statements about the Indian National Army:
  • Subhas Chandra Bose proclaimed the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind) in Singapore in October 1943.
  • The first Indian National Army, raised in 1942 from Indian prisoners of war after the fall of Singapore, was commanded by Rash Behari Bose.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — Subhas Chandra Bose proclaimed the Provisional Government of Free India in Singapore on 21 October 1943, after taking charge of the INA in July 1943. Statement 2 is incorrect — the first INA (1942) was raised under Captain Mohan Singh, largely from about 40,000 Indian prisoners of war, while Rash Behari Bose headed the political arm, the Indian Independence League, and later handed the movement over to Subhas Chandra Bose.

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