Current Affairs Quiz 03 November 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

Score: 0 / 0
Q1
With reference to the Legislative Council of a State in India, consider the following statements:
  • Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council by an ordinary law, and such a law is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
  • One-twelfth of the members of a Legislative Council are elected by graduates residing in the State who have been graduates for at least three years.
  • In case of a disagreement over an ordinary Bill, the Governor may summon a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — under Article 169, Parliament creates or abolishes a Council by ordinary law once the Assembly passes a special-majority resolution, and Article 169(3) says such a law is not an amendment under Article 368. Statement 2 is correct — under Article 171(3)(b), about one-twelfth of members are elected by graduates of at least three years’ standing residing in the State. Statement 3 is incorrect — there is no joint sitting in a State legislature; under Article 197 the Council can only delay an ordinary Bill (up to three months, then one month), after which the Assembly’s version prevails, as joint sittings exist only for Parliament (Article 108).

Q2
Consider the following statements about social audit and grievance redressal:
  • Under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, the Gram Sabha is required to conduct regular social audits of all projects taken up within the Gram Panchayat.
  • The Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is administered by the Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — Section 17 of the 2005 Act requires the Gram Sabha to monitor works and conduct regular social audits of all projects in the Gram Panchayat, a cornerstone of the accountability model that the new VB-G RAM G grievance rules are being compared with. Statement 2 is incorrect — CPGRAMS is run by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, not the Ministry of Rural Development.

Q3
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: Paying a worker less than the statutory minimum wage has been held by the Supreme Court to amount to “forced labour” prohibited under Article 23 of the Constitution.
  • Statement-II: The prohibition under Article 23 is enforceable not only against the State but also against private persons.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b)

Statement-I is correct — in PUDR v. Union of India (1982), the Asiad workers’ case, the Court held that labour extracted under economic compulsion and paid below the minimum wage is forced labour under Article 23. Statement-II is correct — Article 23 is among the few Fundamental Rights enforceable against private individuals as well as the State. However, Statement-I concerns what counts as forced labour (economic compulsion) while Statement-II concerns against whom the right applies, so Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Q4
Consider the following enactments:
  • The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
  • The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939
  • The Foreigners Act, 1946
  • The Citizenship Act, 1955
How many of the above have been repealed and consolidated by the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 consolidated four laws into one framework for the entry, stay, movement and exit of foreigners: the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000. The Citizenship Act, 1955 governs how citizenship is acquired and lost, not the regulation of foreigners, and remains in force. So three of the listed Acts were repealed.

Q5
With reference to labour law in India, consider the following statements:
  • In Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978), the Supreme Court held that the absence of a profit motive does not by itself take an activity outside the definition of “industry”.
  • “Trade unions; industrial and labour disputes” is an entry in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — a seven-judge Bench laid down the triple test (systematic activity, employer–employee co-operation, and production or distribution of goods and services) and held profit motive irrelevant; Section 2(p) of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 keeps the core test but adds exclusions, which AITUC has challenged. Statement 2 is correct — it is Entry 22 of List III, and welfare of labour is Entry 24 of the same List, so both Parliament and State legislatures can make labour laws.

Q6
Which one of the following is not included in the Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
  • AUrban planning including town planning
  • BUrban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects
  • CFire services
  • DPolice
Answer: (d)

The Twelfth Schedule, added by the 74th Amendment (1992), lists 18 functional items for municipalities, including urban planning, regulation of land use, fire services and urban forestry and environmental protection — the functions the Indian Express op-ed links to climate-resilient planning in smaller cities. Police is a State List subject (Entry 2, List II) and does not appear in the Twelfth Schedule.

Q7
In the context of State finances in India, the term “committed expenditure” refers primarily to:
  • Aexpenditure on salaries, pensions and interest payments
  • Bcapital outlay on projects already sanctioned in previous budgets
  • Cthe State’s matching share in Centrally Sponsored Schemes
  • Dexpenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State
Answer: (a)

Committed expenditure means the near-fixed claims on a budget — salaries, pensions and interest — which in Tamil Nadu absorbed almost two-thirds of revenue receipts in 2024-25, against 49% in Maharashtra. Option (b) describes ongoing capital commitments and (c) a scheme-sharing obligation. Option (d), “charged” expenditure under Article 202(3), is a different idea — spending not subject to the Assembly’s vote, such as the Governor’s emoluments.

Q8
With reference to India’s climate commitments, consider the following statements:
  • At COP26 in Glasgow, India announced the target of achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
  • India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution (2022) commits to reducing the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45 per cent by 2030 from the 2005 level.
  • India’s first NDC under the Paris Agreement aimed at 50 per cent of cumulative installed electric power capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct — net zero by 2070 was one of the five “Panchamrit” commitments announced at COP26 (2021). Statement 2 is correct — the 2022 updated NDC set a 45% cut in emissions intensity (from 2005) and 50% non-fossil installed capacity, both by 2030. Statement 3 is incorrect — the first NDC (2015) targeted 40%, raised to 50% only in 2022; India crossed 50% in 2025 and now has 308 GW of non-fossil capacity, 55.1% of the total.

Q9
With reference to geothermal energy, consider the following statements:
  • A part of the heat in the Earth’s interior is generated by the decay of radioactive elements such as uranium, thorium and potassium.
  • Binary cycle geothermal power plants use a secondary working fluid with a boiling point lower than that of water, making them suitable for moderate-temperature resources.
  • Unlike solar and wind power, geothermal power generation is independent of weather and can supply electricity round the clock.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. Interior heat comes from the radioactive decay of U, Th and K plus primordial heat left from the planet’s formation. In a binary (Organic Rankine) cycle, hot geothermal water heats a low-boiling-point fluid in a closed loop, which suits the low-to-medium enthalpy resources common in India. Geothermal is a weather-independent baseload source, and India commissioned its first two geothermal wells at Puga Valley, Ladakh (ONGC Energy Centre, July 2026) under the National Policy on Geothermal Energy (2025).

Q10
Consider the following pairs of Brahmaputra tributaries (Tributary — Bank of the Brahmaputra on which it joins):
  • Subansiri — Right bank
  • Lohit — Left bank
  • Manas — Left bank
  • Kopili — Left bank
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (c)

Pair 1 is correct — the Subansiri, the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra, rises in Tibet and joins from the north (right bank), and the 2,000 MW Subansiri Lower Project is on this river. Pair 2 is correct — the Lohit and the Dibang join the Siang near Sadiya from the left, forming the Brahmaputra. Pair 3 is incorrect — the Manas flows down from Bhutan and joins from the right (north) bank. Pair 4 is correct — the Kopili rises in the Meghalaya–Assam hills and joins from the left (south) bank.

Q11
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: A strong El Niño year is typically associated with drier-than-normal conditions and a heightened risk of forest and peatland fires over Indonesia.
  • Statement-II: During an El Niño, the Walker circulation weakens and the zone of rising air and heavy rainfall shifts eastward from the Indonesian region towards the central Pacific.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)

Statement-I is correct — 2026 is a very strong El Niño year, and more than 1.9 million hectares burned in Indonesia between January and September, 38% more than by September 2019, with 61.91% of the mainland in a dry season according to BMKG. Statement-II is correct — the warm water and convection that normally sit over the western Pacific–Indonesia shift east during El Niño, so Indonesia loses its usual rain-producing rising air. That eastward shift is the very reason for Indonesia’s drought and fires, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Q12
Consider the following Biosphere Reserves of India:
  • Panna
  • Seshachalam
  • Great Nicobar
  • Manas
How many of the above are included in UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (b)

Panna (2020) and Great Nicobar (2013) are in the World Network. Seshachalam (Andhra Pradesh) is notified nationally but is not in the World Network, and Manas (Assam) is a national Biosphere Reserve and a UNESCO World Heritage Site but not part of the WNBR. India has 18 notified Biosphere Reserves, of which 13 are in the WNBR under UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme (1971).

Q13
Consider the following statements about green crackers and silence zones:
  • Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, a silence zone is an area of not less than 300 metres around hospitals, educational institutions and courts.
  • The “green crackers” permitted by the Supreme Court were developed by CSIR’s National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect — the Noise Rules, 2000 define a silence zone as an area of not less than 100 metres; the 300-metre figure is the Supreme Court’s own “no-cracker zone” in its 2026 Deepavali order. Statement 2 is correct — CSIR-NEERI developed the green-cracker formulations SWAS, STAR and SAFAL, with roughly 30% lower particulate emissions, the basis of the Court’s orders since Arjun Gopal v. Union of India (2018).

Q14
Consider the following pairs of water conservation initiatives (Initiative — Feature):
  • Atal Bhujal Yojana — Community-led management of groundwater in water-stressed areas
  • Mission Amrit Sarovar — Development or rejuvenation of 75 water bodies in each district
  • Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain — Launched on World Environment Day, 2021
  • Per Drop More Crop — Component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (c)

Pairs 1, 2 and 4 are correct — Atal Bhujal Yojana (2020) promotes community-led, demand-side groundwater management in water-stressed areas, Mission Amrit Sarovar (2022) targets 75 water bodies per district, and Per Drop More Crop (micro-irrigation) is a component of PMKSY. Pair 3 is incorrect — JSA: Catch the Rain was launched on 22 March 2021, World Water Day, with the theme “Catch the Rain, Where It Falls, When It Falls”, while World Environment Day is 5 June; its 2026 version, JSJB: CTR, began on 1 June 2026.

Q15
With reference to Ultraluminous X-ray Sources (ULXs), recently in the news, consider the following statements:
  • The Eddington limit on the luminosity of an accreting object does not depend on the mass of the object.
  • Ultraluminous X-ray sources are, by definition, located at the nuclei of their host galaxies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect — the Eddington limit, where outward radiation pressure balances inward gravity, rises in proportion to mass, at about 1.3 × 10³⁸ erg/s per solar mass. Statement 2 is incorrect — ULXs are off-nuclear point sources, while bright sources at galactic centres are powered by supermassive black holes (AGN); NGC 4490 ULX-8, studied by IIA and RRI over 24 years, lies away from its galaxy’s centre. A ULX is “ultraluminous” precisely because it beats the limit for a stellar-mass object, which only makes sense if the limit depends on mass.

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