Current Affairs Quiz 06 November 2026

Statement 1 is correct — BIS is the National Standards Body under the BIS Act, 2016, and its administrative department is the Department of Consumer Affairs, Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. Statement 2 is correct — silver hallmarking (IS 2112:2025, eight grades) remains voluntary, but an HUID became compulsory for every hallmarked silver article from 1 September 2025. Statement 3 is incorrect — mandatory gold hallmarking began on 23 June 2021 in 256 districts and now covers 392 districts, not every district.

Pair 1 is correct — Article VI of the Outer Space Treaty makes States internationally responsible for national activities in space, including those of private actors. Pair 2 is correct — the Liability Convention imposes absolute liability for damage on the Earth’s surface or to aircraft in flight, and fault-based liability for damage in space. Pair 3 is incorrect — the ban on nuclear weapons in orbit is in Article IV of the Outer Space Treaty, while the Registration Convention requires launching States to register space objects with the UN. Pair 4 is incorrect — India signed the Moon Agreement in 1982 but has not ratified it, though it is a party to the other four core space treaties.

Statement-I is correct — on 27 March 2019, India destroyed Microsat-R at about 300 km, an altitude chosen so that most fragments would decay quickly. Statement-II is correct — the residual atmosphere is denser at lower altitudes, so drag is greater and orbits decay faster, which is why debris in very low orbits clears naturally while debris above roughly 800 km can persist for decades. The debris decayed quickly because drag is high at that altitude, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Statement 1 is correct — MIKTA was launched on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly in September 2013 as a cross-regional middle-power platform. Statement 2 is correct — IBSA was formalised by the Brasilia Declaration of June 2003. Statement 3 is incorrect — the G4 comprises India, Brazil, Germany and Japan; South Africa is not a member, although it belongs to IBSA and BRICS.

Statement 1 is incorrect — a Charter amendment that came into force in 1965 enlarged the Council from 11 to 15 members by raising non-permanent seats from six to ten, though the permanent five have not changed. Statement 2 is incorrect — under Article 108, an amendment comes into force when adopted by two-thirds of the General Assembly and ratified by two-thirds of members, including all five permanent members, which in effect gives each P5 member a veto over reform.

Statement 1 is correct — Section 173(1) of the BNSS allows information to be given irrespective of the area of the offence, giving the Zero FIR statutory footing. Statement 2 is correct — the Justice J.S. Verma Committee, set up in December 2012, reported on 23 January 2013 and recommended Zero FIRs for sexual offences. Statement 3 is incorrect — an e-FIR is taken on record once signed by the informant within three days, not seven. Statement 4 is correct — a Constitution Bench held in 2013 that registration is mandatory where the information discloses a cognizable offence, with a preliminary inquiry permitted only in limited categories.

Statement 1 is correct — the 2021 amendment raised the limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories, including survivors of rape and incest and minors, and beyond 24 weeks termination is allowed only for substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by a Medical Board. Statement 2 is correct — Section 24(1) of POCSO requires the statement to be recorded at the child’s residence or a place of the child’s choice, as far as practicable, by a woman police officer not below the rank of Sub-Inspector.

Pair 1 is correct — Section 66A was struck down as vague and over-broad. Pair 2 is correct — the Court held that speech and trade through the internet are protected under Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(g), and that suspensions must be temporary, proportionate and published. Pair 3 is incorrect — privacy was declared a fundamental right by a nine-judge Bench in K.S. Puttaswamy (2017), while Faheema Shirin was a Kerala High Court ruling treating internet access as part of the right to education and privacy. Pair 4 is correct — the Court held that airwaves are public property and that Article 19(1)(a) includes the right to receive and impart information.

Statement-I is correct — Section 9 requires a Data Fiduciary to obtain verifiable consent of the parent or lawful guardian before processing a child’s data, and bars tracking, behavioural monitoring and targeted advertising directed at children. Statement-II is correct — Section 2(f) defines a “child” as an individual who has not completed eighteen years. A seventeen-year-old needs parental consent precisely because the Act treats everyone under 18 as a child, so Statement-II explains Statement-I — unlike the lower digital age of consent (13–16) under laws such as the EU’s GDPR.

All three statements are correct. The 2025 Act, in force from 1 September 2025, replaced four laws: the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000. The CAA cut-off is 31 December 2014, while the 31 December 2024 date belongs to the Exemption Order, 2025, which protects against prosecution but does not confer citizenship. India has acceded to neither refugee instrument and has no national refugee law; refugees are managed through administrative orders, with Articles 14 and 21 still protecting them.

Statement 1 is correct — the PAC was set up in 1921 following the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms, making it Parliament’s oldest financial committee. Statement 2 is correct — it has 22 members (15 Lok Sabha + 7 Rajya Sabha), elected annually by proportional representation by single transferable vote, and Ministers cannot be members. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker and, by convention since 1967, comes from the Opposition. Statement 4 is incorrect — under Article 151(1), the CAG’s reports on Union accounts are submitted to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament.

All three statements are correct. All 435 voting seats of the House are elected every two years, including at the midterm. The Senate’s 100 members serve staggered six-year terms, so about one-third face election every two years — similar to the Rajya Sabha, where one-third of members retire every two years under Article 83(1). The Twentieth Amendment (1933) moved the start of congressional terms to noon on 3 January, shortening the outgoing “lame-duck” Congress.

Statement 1 is correct — of the 17.6 MeV released, about 14.1 MeV (~80%) goes to the neutron and about 3.5 MeV to the helium nucleus (alpha particle). Statement 2 is incorrect — driving current through the plasma is the tokamak’s method, whereas a stellarator such as Germany’s Wendelstein 7-X twists the field entirely with complex external coils. Statement 3 is correct — neutrons striking lithium in the blanket produce tritium, so a power plant would breed its own fuel. Statement 4 is incorrect — ADITYA (1989, rebuilt as ADITYA-U in 2017) and SST-1 are at the Institute for Plasma Research, Gandhinagar.

Statement 1 is correct — Section 3(d) bars patents on new forms (salts, polymorphs and the like) of known substances unless they show enhanced efficacy, which the Supreme Court read as therapeutic efficacy in Novartis v. Union of India (2013). Statement 2 is incorrect — under Section 25(1), a pre-grant opposition may be filed by any person, while the “person interested” requirement applies to post-grant opposition under Section 25(2); this is how civil-society groups opposed the BPaL patent application. Statement 3 is correct — in March 2012, Natco received India’s first compulsory licence under Section 84 for Bayer’s cancer drug Nexavar (sorafenib).

A quasi-ballistic missile flies a lower, flatter path than a classic ballistic missile and can manoeuvre in flight, which makes it harder to intercept; Pralay is a solid-propellant, surface-to-surface tactical missile with a reported range of about 150–500 km. Option (a) describes a cruise missile such as BrahMos, (c) a submarine-launched ballistic missile such as India’s K-series, and (d) an exo-atmospheric interceptor such as the Prithvi Defence Vehicle.