Current Affairs Quiz 13 October 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

Score: 0 / 0
Q1
With reference to the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, consider the following statements:
  • Its GIS-based digital platform has been developed by the Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N).
  • The Network Planning Group, which evaluates infrastructure projects under the plan, is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary.
  • The Logistics Division of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade acts as the PM GatiShakti Secretariat.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — BISAG-N, Gandhinagar, an autonomous body under MeitY, built the GIS platform, and it also developed the Query-Based Analytics Mechanism that opened 230 datasets to private users in October 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Cabinet Secretary chairs the Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS), the top tier, whereas the Network Planning Group (NPG) brings together the heads of network-planning divisions of infrastructure ministries. Statement 3 is correct — the Logistics Division, DPIIT (Ministry of Commerce & Industry) is the Secretariat, assisted by a Technical Support Unit. The setter keeps every body real but moves the chair from tier 1 to tier 2, so rebuild the three tiers in order: EGoS (Cabinet Secretary), NPG (network-planning heads), TSU (experts). PM GatiShakti was launched on 13 October 2021, and the NPG screens projects above ₹500 crore.

Q2
Consider the following subjects and the List of the Seventh Schedule in which they are placed:
  • Railways — Union List
  • Major ports — Concurrent List
  • Acquisition and requisitioning of property — Concurrent List
  • Land — State List
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — Railways are Entry 22, List I. Statement 2 is incorrect — ports declared by Parliament to be major ports are in the Union List (Entry 27), and it is ports other than major ports that sit in the Concurrent List (Entry 31). Statement 3 is correct — acquisition and requisitioning of property is Entry 42, List III, which is why both the Centre and States legislate on land acquisition. Statement 4 is correct — Land is Entry 18, List II. "Ports" appears in two Lists, so whenever a subject is split by an adjective (major / non-major, national / other highways), test which half is being quoted. Remember: Union has Railways (22), National Highways (23), National Waterways (24), Major Ports (27) and Airways (29); State has roads (13) and land (18).

Q3
The 'cropping intensity' of a region, one of the criteria used to select districts under the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana, is calculated as
  • Anet sown area divided by total geographical area, multiplied by 100
  • Bgross irrigated area divided by gross cropped area, multiplied by 100
  • Cnet sown area divided by gross cropped area, multiplied by 100
  • Dgross cropped area divided by net sown area, multiplied by 100
Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct — cropping intensity = (Gross Cropped Area ÷ Net Sown Area) × 100, and since land sown twice in a year is counted twice in gross cropped area, a value near 100% means a single crop a year. Option (a) describes the share of net sown area in a region's geographical area, option (b) gives the share of cropped area under irrigation, and option (c) inverts the correct ratio and can never exceed 100%. Option (c) uses the right two terms in the wrong order, so sanity-check with a limit: intensity must rise when land is cropped more than once, and only (d) can exceed 100%. PMDDKY selects districts on low productivity, low cropping intensity and low credit.

Q4
Consider the following pairs of air exercises and partner/host countries:
  • Garuda — France
  • Pitch Black — United Kingdom
  • Eastern Bridge — Oman
  • Indradhanush — Japan
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (b)

Pair 1 is correct — Garuda is the India–France bilateral air exercise. Pair 2 is incorrect — Pitch Black is a multilateral exercise hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force at Darwin, Australia. Pair 3 is correct — Eastern Bridge is the India–Oman air exercise. Pair 4 is incorrect — Indradhanush is the India–United Kingdom air exercise. Both wrong pairs use genuine IAF partners attached to the wrong exercise (the UK hosts Cobra Warrior; Japan holds Shinyuu Maitri with India), so anchor each exercise to one cue: Darwin for Pitch Black, the Gulf for Eastern Bridge. Also remember Cope India with the USA, Red Flag in the USA, and Tarang Shakti hosted by India.

Q5
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: The Indian Air Force observes Air Force Day on 8 October every year.
  • Statement-II: The prefix 'Royal' was conferred on the Indian Air Force in 1945 in recognition of its service in the Second World War.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b)

Statement-I is correct — the IAF was constituted on 8 October 1932 under the Indian Air Force Act, 1932, and Air Force Day marks that date; Tarang Shakti 2026 coincided with its 94th anniversary. Statement-II is correct, but it does not explain Statement-I — the "Royal" prefix came in 1945 and was dropped in 1950 when India became a Republic, and the date of Air Force Day comes from the 1932 founding, not the 1945 honour. The "because" test fails: "Air Force Day is on 8 October because the IAF was made 'Royal' in 1945" has nothing connecting 1945 to an October date, and two true historical facts placed side by side are the setter's favourite route to option (b). The first flight was on 1 April 1933, and the motto is 'Nabhah Sprisham Deeptam' (Gita, Ch. 11).

Q6
With reference to High-Voltage Direct Current (HVDC) transmission, such as that planned for the Ladakh–Haryana Green Energy Corridor, consider the following statements:
  • Over long distances, HVDC lines have lower transmission losses than comparable alternating-current lines.
  • An HVDC link can connect two alternating-current grids that are not synchronised with each other.
  • HVDC transmission does not require converter stations at either end of the line.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — HVDC avoids reactive-power and skin-effect losses, so it becomes cheaper and more efficient than AC beyond long distances, hence its use for the 480-km Pang–Kaithal line. Statement 2 is correct — because the link carries DC, it decouples the two AC systems and can join asynchronous grids. Statement 3 is incorrect — power is generated and consumed as AC, so HVDC needs converter terminals at both ends, and the project has 5 GW HVDC terminals at Pang and Kaithal. Statement 3 removes the very thing that makes HVDC expensive; a technology's advantages always come with a cost, and a statement that claims the cost away is the usual false one. The Ladakh–Haryana GEC carries 13 GW of renewable energy via Himachal Pradesh and Punjab, with a target of FY 2029–30.

Q7
With reference to the regulation of genetically modified (GM) organisms in India, consider the following statements:
  • The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
  • The rules regulating genetically engineered organisms have been framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
  • The Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation functions under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — the GEAC is the apex body for approving the environmental release of GM organisms and sits in the MoEFCC. Statement 2 is correct — the Rules, 1989 (Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms, Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells) were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 3 is incorrect — the RCGM functions under the Department of Biotechnology (Ministry of Science & Technology), and it oversees research and contained trials. GM crops "feel" like an agriculture subject, so the setter parks a biotech body in the Agriculture Ministry; remember the chain by function: research to DBT (RCGM), environmental release to MoEFCC (GEAC), and seed sale to Agriculture (Seeds Act). Bt cotton (2002) is the only GM crop in commercial cultivation.

Q8
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: Herbicide-tolerant cotton allows farmers to control weeds by spraying glyphosate over the standing crop instead of weeding manually.
  • Statement-II: Glyphosate is a selective herbicide that kills only broad-leaved weeds and leaves grasses unharmed.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c)

Statement-I is correct — HT cotton carries a gene such as cp4-epsps that lets the crop survive glyphosate, so farmers can spray the whole field, which is why the editorial cites ₹750–850 for 2–3 sprays against ₹12,000–15,000 per acre for manual weeding. Statement-II is incorrect — glyphosate is a non-selective, broad-spectrum herbicide that kills almost all green plants by blocking the EPSPS enzyme, and that is exactly why the crop itself must be engineered to tolerate it. If glyphosate were selective, no genetic modification would be needed, so HT traits exist only because the herbicide is indiscriminate. The cp4-epsps trait is unapproved in India, IARC (2015) classed glyphosate as "probably carcinogenic" (2A), and India restricted its use to pest-control operators in October 2022.

Q9
With reference to reservation in public employment under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
  • Article 16(4A), enabling reservation in promotion for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, was inserted by the Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995.
  • Under Article 16(4B), unfilled reserved vacancies carried forward to a later year are not counted towards the fifty per cent ceiling for that year.
  • In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992), the Supreme Court upheld reservation in promotions in government service.
  • The proviso to Article 335, permitting relaxation in qualifying marks for SCs and STs, was added by the Constitution (85th Amendment) Act, 2001.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct — the 77th Amendment (1995) inserted Article 16(4A), in response to Indra Sawhney. Statement 2 is correct — the 81st Amendment (2000) inserted Article 16(4B), treating carried-forward vacancies as a separate class outside that year's 50% ceiling. Statement 3 is incorrect — Indra Sawhney held that Article 16(4) covers initial appointments only, not promotions, which is the very ruling the 77th Amendment set out to overcome. Statement 4 is incorrect — the proviso to Article 335 was added by the 82nd Amendment (2000), while the 85th Amendment (2001) extended Article 16(4A) to consequential seniority. The 77th, 81st, 82nd and 85th Amendments all deal with service reservation within six years, so tie each to one word: 77 = promotion, 81 = carry-forward, 82 = marks, 85 = seniority. Also recall Nagaraj (2006) and Jarnail Singh (2018).

Q10
Consider the following pairs of missions and nodal ministries/departments:
  • National Quantum Mission — Department of Science and Technology
  • IndiaAI Mission — Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  • Deep Ocean Mission — Ministry of Earth Sciences
  • Mission Mausam — Ministry of Earth Sciences
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • COnly three pairs
  • DAll four pairs
Answer: (d)

Pair 1 is correct — the National Quantum Mission (2023, ₹6,003.65 crore) is implemented by the DST. Pair 2 is correct — the IndiaAI Mission (2024, ₹10,371.92 crore) is run by MeitY through the IndiaAI Independent Business Division. Pair 3 is correct — the Deep Ocean Mission (2021), including the manned submersible Matsya 6000, is under the MoES. Pair 4 is correct — Mission Mausam (2024, ₹2,000 crore) is also an MoES mission, implemented through the IMD, IITM Pune and NCMRWF. Seeing the same ministry twice tempts you to assume one pair must be wrong, but UPSC does not balance its lists; if each pair survives independent checking, trust "All four". Also recall ISM with MeitY, BioE3 with DBT, and ANRF with DST (chaired by the PM).

Q11
In the context of the 2026 Economics Nobel awarded for work on macroeconomic stabilisation, consider the following statements about India's monetary policy framework:
  • The inflation target for the Reserve Bank of India is defined in terms of the Wholesale Price Index.
  • The Monetary Policy Committee derives its statutory basis from an amendment made to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 in 2016.
  • The inflation target is set by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect — the target is defined on the Consumer Price Index (Combined), 4% ± 2%, because CPI reflects the prices households actually pay. Statement 2 is correct — the Finance Act, 2016 amended the RBI Act to insert Chapter IIIF, creating the six-member MPC (Section 45ZB). Statement 3 is correct — under Section 45ZA, the Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, fixes the target once every five years. WPI was India's headline inflation measure for decades, so it sounds official, but the logic of inflation targeting is that the target must track the cost of living, hence CPI. The MPC has 6 members (3 RBI + 3 external).

Q12
The Living Planet Index, published in WWF's Living Planet Report, measures
  • Athe percentage of animal species that have gone extinct since 1970
  • Bthe share of monitored wildlife populations that are currently in decline
  • Cthe average change in the relative abundance of monitored vertebrate populations since 1970
  • Dthe number of species assessed as threatened on the IUCN Red List
Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct — the LPI is a weighted geometric mean of the rates of change of 35,803 monitored vertebrate populations, relative to 1970 = 1, and the 2026 figure shows an average decline of 73%. Options (a) and (d) concern species extinctions and threat status, which the index does not measure. Option (b) is the common misreading: only 50% of populations were declining, while 43% were increasing and 7% stable. "73% decline" is widely reported as "73% of wildlife lost" or "73% of species declining", but the index averages rates of change and counts neither species nor individuals. Regionally, Latin America and the Caribbean fell 95%, Africa 80%, Asia 49% and Europe 23%.

Q13
With reference to the preparation of electoral rolls in India, consider the following statements:
  • Article 326 of the Constitution provides that elections to the House of the People and to State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage.
  • Once the Election Commission directs a special revision of the electoral roll for a constituency, the existing roll ceases to be in force until the revision is completed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — Article 326 guarantees adult suffrage to every citizen aged 18 or above (lowered from 21 by the 61st Amendment, 1988). Statement 2 is incorrect — Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 lets the ECI order a special revision, but its proviso keeps the existing roll in force until the revision is completed. The setter flips a safeguard; otherwise a constituency would have no valid roll during the revision and no election could be held, and law avoids such vacuums. Recall Art. 324 (ECI), Art. 325 (one roll, no exclusion on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex) and Lal Babu Hussein (1995).

Q14
With reference to the specification of Scheduled Tribes under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
  • Under Article 342, the President may, after consultation with the Governor, specify the tribes to be deemed Scheduled Tribes in relation to a State.
  • A community can subsequently be included in or excluded from the notified list of Scheduled Tribes by a fresh Presidential order.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — Article 342(1) empowers the President, after consulting the Governor of a State, to notify its Scheduled Tribes by public notification. Statement 2 is incorrect — under Article 342(2), once notified, the list can be changed only by Parliament by law, not by another Presidential order. Because the President made the first list, it seems natural that the President can amend it, but the Constitution deliberately hands later changes to Parliament to prevent executive tinkering, the same design as Article 341 for SCs. Also recall Art. 338A (NCST, 89th Amendment, 2003) and the Lokur Committee (1965) criteria.

Q15
With reference to the regulation of medicine prices in India, consider the following statements:
  • The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 has been issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
  • The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority functions under the Department of Pharmaceuticals.
  • Ceiling prices under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013 are fixed for medicines included in the National List of Essential Medicines.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is correct — the DPCO, 2013 is issued under Section 3 of the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Statement 2 is correct — the NPPA, set up in 1997, is an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers), not the Health Ministry. Statement 3 is correct — scheduled formulations, those in the NLEM (384 medicines in NLEM 2022), carry ceiling prices, while non-scheduled drugs can raise MRP by at most 10% a year. Medicines suggest the Health Ministry, which makes statement 2 look wrong, but pricing sits with the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers; when every statement checks out independently, do not invent an error. Also recall the stent price caps of 2017 and the 30% cancer-drug margin cap (2019) under Para 19.

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