Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027
- The Convention was adopted at Ramsar, Iran, in 1971 and functions as a specialised programme administered by the United Nations Environment Programme.
- The Montreux Record lists Ramsar Sites whose ecological character is under threat, and India's entries are Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake.
- Sukhna Wetland, designated in October 2026, is Chandigarh's first Ramsar Site and is a man-made lake created by damming a seasonal Shivalik stream.
Statement 1 is incorrect — the Convention on Wetlands was signed at Ramsar, Iran, on 2 February 1971, but it is not part of the UN system; its Secretariat works from Gland, Switzerland, hosted by IUCN, and UNESCO is only the depositary. Statement 2 is correct — the Montreux Record is the register of Ramsar Sites where ecological change has occurred, is occurring or is likely, and India's two entries are Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur). Statement 3 is correct — Sukhna was created in 1958 by damming the Sukhna Choe, a seasonal stream from the Shivalik foothills, and with Sauj Jheel (UP) it took India's tally to 103. Ramsar pre-dates UNEP (1972) and is an independent treaty: Ramsar city (Iran), Gland (Secretariat, with IUCN) and UNESCO (depositary).
- Sauj Jheel — Uttar Pradesh
- Glaw Lake — Arunachal Pradesh
- Saman Bird Sanctuary — Haryana
- Sukhna Wetland — Punjab
Pair 1 is correct — Sauj Jheel is a shallow floodplain lake in Mainpuri district, Uttar Pradesh, designated in October 2026. Pair 2 is correct — Glaw Lake, inside the Kamlang Tiger Reserve, became Arunachal Pradesh's first Ramsar Site and India's 101st in August 2026. Pair 3 is incorrect — Saman Bird Sanctuary is in Mainpuri, Uttar Pradesh (designated 2019), so Mainpuri now has two Ramsar Sites, Saman and Sauj. Pair 4 is incorrect — Sukhna Wetland lies in the Union Territory of Chandigarh, not in Punjab; Chandigarh is the shared capital of Punjab and Haryana but a separate UT.
- Statement-I: According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey, the female Labour Force Participation Rate for persons aged 15 years and above rose from 23.3% in 2017-18 to 40.0% in 2025.
- Statement-II: The Labour Force Participation Rate measures only the share of the population that is actually employed, excluding persons who are seeking work.
Statement-I is correct — female LFPR (15+) rose from 23.3% (2017-18) to 40.0% (2025), and female WPR rose from 22.0% to 38.8%. Statement-II is incorrect — LFPR counts everyone who is working or seeking/available for work, whereas the share of the population actually employed is the Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and the gap between the two is the unemployed. If LFPR excluded job-seekers it would equal WPR, yet the release gives 40.0% against 38.8%. Unemployment Rate is unemployed ÷ labour force, not ÷ population.
- Eligible women are entitled to up to 26 weeks of paid maternity leave.
- Commissioning mothers who have a child through surrogacy are not entitled to any maternity leave.
- Establishments employing 50 or more workers must provide a crèche facility.
- The four Labour Codes together consolidate 29 central labour laws.
Statement 1 is correct — up to 26 weeks of paid leave, a level first set by the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 (raised from 12 weeks) and carried into the Code on Social Security, 2020. Statement 2 is incorrect — adoptive and commissioning mothers are entitled to 12 weeks of maternity leave. Statement 3 is correct — a crèche is mandatory in establishments with 50 or more workers, with four visits a day allowed. Statement 4 is correct — the Code on Wages (2019), Industrial Relations Code, Code on Social Security and OSH Code (2020) consolidate 29 central laws. The phrase ‘not entitled to any’ converts a shorter entitlement into none, so test absolute qualifiers first.
PUE = total facility energy ÷ IT equipment energy, and a value of 1.0 is the theoretical ideal, where every unit of power goes to computing and none to cooling, lighting or power conversion. Option (b) is the inverse, sometimes called DCiE (data centre infrastructure efficiency), option (c) describes a renewable-share measure, and option (d) is Water Usage Effectiveness (WUE). Since PUE's ideal is 1.0 and real values exceed 1, the larger quantity (total facility) must be on top.
- The enlargement of the Council from 11 to 15 members, through an amendment of the UN Charter, came into effect in 1965.
- A retiring non-permanent member is eligible for immediate re-election for a second consecutive two-year term.
- Election to a non-permanent seat requires a two-thirds majority of the members of the General Assembly present and voting.
Statement 1 is correct — the amendment adopted in 1963 (GA Res. 1991 A (XVIII)) raised elected seats from six to ten and came into force in 1965; it is the only enlargement so far. Statement 2 is incorrect — Article 23(2) bars a retiring member from immediate re-election, which is why India's terms are spaced out (1950-51, 1967-68 …). Statement 3 is correct — under Article 18(2), elections to non-permanent seats need two-thirds of members present and voting, which is 129 if all 193 vote; the threshold was 127 in June 2026.
- Statement-I: India has served more terms as a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council than any other member State of the United Nations.
- Statement-II: Under the 1963 General Assembly resolution on the allocation of seats, African and Asian States together hold five of the ten non-permanent seats.
Statement-I is incorrect — India has served eight terms (1950-51, 1967-68, 1972-73, 1977-78, 1984-85, 1991-92, 2011-12, 2021-22), whereas Japan has served 12, the most of any member, and Brazil 11. Statement-II is correct — GA Res. 1991 A (XVIII) allots five seats to African and Asian States (by practice three Africa, two Asia-Pacific), one to Eastern Europe, two to Latin America and the Caribbean, and two to Western Europe and Others. When a statement is a superlative, look for the one country that beats it.
- The National Food Security Act, 2013 provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural and 50% of the urban population.
- Under the Act, the eldest man of the household, aged 18 years or above, is treated as the head of the household for issuing ration cards.
- The International Fund for Agricultural Development was set up as an outcome of the 1974 World Food Conference.
- World Food Day, observed on 16 October, marks the founding of the World Food Programme.
Statement 1 is correct — the NFSA, 2013 covers up to 75% rural and 50% urban population, about 81 crore people, now receiving grain free under PMGKAY until 2028. Statement 2 is incorrect — Section 13 makes the eldest woman (18+) the head of the household for ration cards, a women's-empowerment clause. Statement 3 is correct — IFAD was established in 1977 following the 1974 World Food Conference, and is both a UN specialised agency and an international financial institution. Statement 4 is incorrect — World Food Day marks the founding of the FAO on 16 October 1945, while the WFP was set up in 1961. Keep the Rome-based agencies apart: FAO (1945, knowledge), WFP (1961, food assistance) and IFAD (1977, finance).
- Article 324 of the Constitution vests the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls in the Election Commission of India.
- Since an amendment in 2021, the Representation of the People Act, 1950 provides four qualifying dates in a year for enrolment.
- Form 7 under the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960 is used by an eligible citizen to apply for inclusion of his or her name for the first time.
Statement 1 is correct — Article 324(1) covers both the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections. Statement 2 is correct — the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2021 introduced four qualifying dates: 1 January, 1 April, 1 July and 1 October. Statement 3 is incorrect — Form 6 is for new enrolment, while Form 7 is for objection to an inclusion or deletion of a name, the form the ECI has now capped per person to curb bulk objections. Memorise the trio: 6 = include, 7 = delete/object, 8 = correct/shift (6B = Aadhaar, voluntary).
- Bar on criminal proceedings against the President and Governors during their term of office — Article 361 of the Constitution
- Freedom of speech and immunity for any vote given by Members of Parliament — Article 105 of the Constitution
- Powers, privileges and immunities of members of State Legislatures — Article 194 of the Constitution
- Bar on civil and criminal proceedings against serving and former Election Commissioners for official acts — Article 324(5) of the Constitution
Pair 1 is correct — Article 361 bars criminal proceedings and arrest during the term of office, with civil suits only after two months' notice. Pair 2 is correct — Article 105(2) gives no liability for anything said or any vote given in Parliament, and Sita Soren (2024) held that bribery is not protected. Pair 3 is correct — Article 194 is the State-legislature counterpart of Article 105. Pair 4 is incorrect — this immunity comes from Section 16 of the 2023 Act on the CEC and other ECs, now challenged in the Supreme Court, whereas Article 324(5) deals with removal: the CEC only like a Supreme Court judge, and ECs only on the CEC's recommendation. Ask whether a protection is in the Constitution or in an Act.
- As originally issued, the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950 allowed persons professing Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism to be deemed members of a Scheduled Caste.
- Like Scheduled Caste status, Scheduled Tribe status under the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950 is restricted on the basis of the religion professed.
Statement 1 is incorrect — as issued in 1950, paragraph 3 recognised only Hindus; Sikhs were added in 1956 and Buddhists in 1990, and the Supreme Court has now held that conversion ends SC status and does not carry backward-class status into the new religion. Statement 2 is incorrect — the ST Order under Article 342 has no religion test, and a tribal person who converts may retain ST status if tribal identity and customs continue. The present-day list of three religions is correct today but not in 1950, so always check the time qualifier ‘as originally issued’.
- The OCI category was created by an amendment to the Citizenship Act, 1955 and does not confer dual citizenship.
- OCI cardholders may be registered as voters in India, although they cannot contest elections to Parliament.
Statement 1 is correct — Sections 7A–7D were inserted by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003 and the scheme began in 2005; an OCI remains a foreign national, as India permits no dual citizenship. Statement 2 is incorrect — Section 7B(2) denies OCI cardholders registration as voters, election to Parliament or legislatures, constitutional offices and, except as notified, public employment, and Article 19 rights belong only to citizens. Statement 2 pairs a false clause (voter registration) with a true one (cannot contest), and one false clause makes the whole compound statement false.
- Statement-I: Under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, 1982, transit passage through straits used for international navigation, unlike innocent passage in the territorial sea, cannot be suspended by the bordering States.
- Statement-II: The Convention provides that States bordering straits used for international navigation shall not hamper transit passage.
Statement-I is correct — in the territorial sea (12 nm), a coastal State may temporarily suspend innocent passage for security (Article 25(3)), whereas transit passage through straits such as Hormuz (Articles 37–44) carries no such power. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I, because Article 44 says bordering States shall not hamper transit passage and that there shall be no suspension of it. Apply the ‘because’ test: transit passage cannot be suspended because bordering States must not hamper it. Most candidates blur the two regimes, so keep them apart: territorial sea → innocent passage (suspendable); straits → transit passage (non-suspendable). Iran has not ratified UNCLOS.
Latency depends mainly on the distance a signal travels. GEO satellites are about 35,786 km up, giving roughly 600 ms round trip, whereas Starlink's LEO satellites fly at about 540–570 km, so latency drops to tens of milliseconds. Option (a) is wrong because GEO satellites also use the Ku and Ka bands, and option (b) describes a GEO satellite, since LEO satellites move fast and need constant hand-over. Option (c) is wrong too, as LEO satellites are typically small and numerous. Option (b) borrows GEO's defining feature, so ask which orbit a feature truly belongs to.
- It is listed as ‘Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List.
- It is listed in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- It is the State animal of Punjab, Haryana and Andhra Pradesh.
Statement 1 is incorrect — the blackbuck is Least Concern on the IUCN Red List, upgraded from Near Threatened in 2017, and local extinctions, such as in Chhattisgarh by the 1970s, do not change its global status. Statement 2 is correct — it is protected under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the highest level of legal protection in India. Statement 3 is correct — it is the State animal of Punjab, Haryana and Andhra Pradesh, and the Bishnoi community is known for protecting it. IUCN status is global and assessed separately from domestic schedules, so strong Indian protection does not imply a high threat category.
