Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027
- Statement-I: Crops grown under elevated agrivoltaic installations can require less irrigation water than the same crops grown in open fields.
- Statement-II: Partial shading by solar panels lowers leaf and soil temperatures and reduces evapotranspiration from the crop and soil.
Statement-I is correct — field studies cited at the 7th AgriVoltaics World Conference (New Delhi, 21–23 October 2026) indicate about 30% lower water use under suitable agrivoltaic systems, along with 10–20% yield gains for certain crops, though these results are crop- and site-specific. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I — panels cut direct radiation, which lowers leaf and soil temperature and slows evapotranspiration, the combined loss of water by evaporation from soil and transpiration from plants, so less water lost means less water needed. Apply the ‘because’ test: crops under panels need less water because shading reduces evapotranspiration. The reverse link also exists (crop transpiration cools panels and raises PV efficiency), but that is not what Statement-II claims.
- PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana — Rooftop solar for households, with up to 300 units of free electricity a month
- International Solar Alliance — Treaty-based body headquartered in Paris
- International Water Management Institute — CGIAR research centre headquartered in Colombo
- PM-KUSUM, Component B — Standalone solar pumps in off-grid areas
Pair 1 is correct — PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana (approved February 2024, outlay about ₹75,021 crore) targets rooftop solar for 1 crore households with up to 300 units of free power a month, and has crossed 63 lakh beneficiaries. Pair 2 is incorrect — the International Solar Alliance was launched by India and France at COP21, Paris (30 November 2015), but it is headquartered at Gurugram, India, and its Framework Agreement entered into force in December 2017; it is the first treaty-based intergovernmental body with its headquarters in India. Pair 3 is correct — the IWMI is a CGIAR centre headquartered in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Pair 4 is correct — under PM-KUSUM (2019), Component A covers decentralised grid-connected plants up to 2 MW, Component B standalone solar pumps, and Component C solarisation of grid-connected pumps, including feeder-level solarisation. When a pair names a city, ask whether it is the birthplace or the seat.
- The IBSA Dialogue Forum was formalised through the Brasilia Declaration adopted by the foreign ministers of the three countries in 2003.
- The IBSA Facility for Poverty and Hunger Alleviation, popularly called the IBSA Fund, is managed by the World Bank.
Statement 1 is correct — IBSA was formalised by the Brasilia Declaration of 6 June 2003, the first IBSA Summit was held in Brasilia in 2006, and its naval track, IBSAMAR, began in 2008; the ninth edition ended at Simon's Town on 20 October 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect — the IBSA Fund (2004) is managed by the UN Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC), not the World Bank, and it finances development projects in other developing countries. A South–South fund is pinned to a Bretton Woods institution in the distractor, but IBSA's identity is South–South cooperation.
- INS Tarkash — Talwar-class stealth frigate
- INS Nilgiri — Project 17A stealth frigate
- INS Kamorta — Project 15B stealth destroyer
Pair 1 is correct — INS Tarkash (Talwar class, Project 1135.6) was built at Yantar Shipyard, Russia, and commissioned in 2012, and it represented India at IBSAMAR IX. Pair 2 is correct — INS Nilgiri is the lead ship of Project 17A, built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders and commissioned in January 2025, and it hosted the opening of SIMBEX-2026. Pair 3 is incorrect — INS Kamorta is the lead ship of Project 28 anti-submarine warfare corvettes, built by GRSE, Kolkata (commissioned 2014), whereas Project 15B is the Visakhapatnam-class destroyer programme. Anchor each code to a ship type: 15/15A/15B = destroyers, 17/17A = frigates, 28 = ASW corvettes, 75/75I = submarines.
- Cape Agulhas, and not the Cape of Good Hope, is the southernmost point of the African continent.
- The International Hydrographic Organization places the boundary between the Atlantic and Indian Oceans along the meridian of Cape Agulhas.
- Simon's Town, the principal base of the South African Navy, lies on False Bay.
Statement 1 is correct — Cape Agulhas (Western Cape) is Africa's southernmost point, while the Cape of Good Hope, about 150 km to its west, is the south-western tip of the Cape Peninsula. Statement 2 is correct — the IHO delimits the Atlantic–Indian Ocean boundary along the meridian of Cape Agulhas (about 20°E), not at the Cape of Good Hope. Statement 3 is correct — Simon's Town, on False Bay, is the South African Navy's main base, and it hosted IBSAMAR IX (concluded 20 October 2026). Most candidates assume the Cape of Good Hope is both the southern tip and the meeting point of oceans and mark Statements 1 and 2 wrong together, so check the misconception first — here, both are true.
- The Singapore–India Maritime Bilateral Exercise began in 1994 under the name Exercise Lion King.
- India's first Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement was signed with Singapore.
- The Information Fusion Centre–Indian Ocean Region set up by the Indian Navy is located in Singapore.
Statement 1 is correct — SIMBEX began in 1994 as Exercise Lion King, and the 33rd edition is being held at Visakhapatnam and in the Bay of Bengal from 21 to 26 October 2026. Statement 2 is correct — the India–Singapore CECA, signed in 2005, was India's first CECA, and ties were upgraded to a Strategic Partnership (2015) and a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (2024). Statement 3 is incorrect — the IFC-IOR was set up by the Indian Navy in 2018 at Gurugram, while Singapore hosts a separate Information Fusion Centre run by the Republic of Singapore Navy. The suffix ‘–IOR’ marks India's centre, and Singapore's is simply the ‘IFC’.
- The SCO evolved from the ‘Shanghai Five’ grouping formed in 1996.
- The SCO's Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure is headquartered in Beijing.
- Russian and Chinese are the official languages of the SCO.
- Mongolia is a full member of the SCO.
Statement 1 is correct — the Shanghai Five (1996: China, Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan) became the SCO on 15 June 2001, when Uzbekistan joined. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is in Tashkent, Uzbekistan, while Beijing hosts the SCO Secretariat. Statement 3 is correct — Russian and Chinese are the SCO's official languages. Statement 4 is incorrect — Mongolia is an observer, along with Afghanistan, whereas the 10 members include India and Pakistan (2017), Iran (2023) and Belarus (2024); the 25th Council of Heads of Government met in Dushanbe on 20 October 2026. Remember SCO = Secretariat Beijing + RATS Tashkent, and do not promote an observer or dialogue partner to member.
- The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is a statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
- The Codex Alimentarius Commission, whose standards are cited by infant-food manufacturers, was set up jointly by the WHO and UNICEF.
- The Infant Milk Substitutes, Feeding Bottles and Infant Foods Act, 1992 restricts the promotion of foods meant for children up to two years of age.
Statement 1 is correct — FSSAI was created under the FSS Act, 2006, which consolidated older food laws such as the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, and it functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Codex Alimentarius Commission was set up in 1963 by the FAO and the WHO, not UNICEF, and since Codex is about food standards its parent is the Food and Agriculture Organization. Statement 3 is correct — the IMS Act, 1992 (amended 2003) restricts the promotion of foods for children up to two years, drawing on the WHO International Code of Marketing of Breast-milk Substitutes (1981).
- The UN Charter entered into force on 24 October 1945, which is now observed as UN Day.
- The membership of the UN Security Council has been enlarged twice since the Charter came into force.
- An amendment to the Charter comes into force only after ratification by two-thirds of UN members, including all permanent members of the Security Council.
- The Secretary-General is appointed by the Security Council on the recommendation of the General Assembly.
Statement 1 is correct — the Charter, signed at San Francisco on 26 June 1945, entered into force on 24 October 1945, and the UN marks its 81st anniversary in 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect — the Council has been enlarged only once, from 11 to 15 members, effective 1965. Statement 3 is correct — under Article 108 an amendment needs a two-thirds vote in the General Assembly and ratification by two-thirds of members, including all five permanent members, which gives each P5 member a veto over reform. Statement 4 is incorrect — it is the reverse: under Article 97 the General Assembly appoints the Secretary-General on the Security Council's recommendation, and the current term ends on 31 December 2026. The Council proposes, the Assembly disposes.
- China is a participating state of the Wassenaar Arrangement on conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies.
- India became a member of the Australia Group, which deals with chemical and biological weapons, in 2018.
- India's SCOMET list of controlled items is notified under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992.
Statement 1 is incorrect — China is not in the Wassenaar Arrangement (1996), nor in the MTCR or the Australia Group, though it is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group; India joined Wassenaar in December 2017. Statement 2 is correct — India joined the Australia Group in January 2018, after the MTCR (2016) and Wassenaar (2017), and India is not an NSG member. Statement 3 is correct — SCOMET (Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and Technologies) is part of India's export policy under the FT(D&R) Act, 1992, backed by the WMD Act, 2005. India and China hold mirror-image positions: India is in three regimes but not the NSG, while China is in the NSG but not the other three.
- The Fair and Remunerative Price of sugarcane is fixed by the Union Government on the recommendation of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
- The Fair and Remunerative Price is linked to a basic rate of sugar recovery from cane.
- The Minimum Selling Price of sugar is fixed by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
- The Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 has been issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Statement 1 is correct — FRP is fixed by the Centre on the CACP's recommendation and approved by the CCEA, and it replaced the Statutory Minimum Price from 2009–10. Statement 2 is correct — FRP is set for a basic recovery rate (10.25%) with a premium for higher recovery, which is why farmers want transparent recovery testing, a term of reference of the new Ramesh Chand Committee. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Minimum Selling Price of sugar (introduced 2018; ₹31/kg since 2019) is fixed by the Central Government through the Department of Food and Public Distribution, since the CACP recommends prices for crops, not processed sugar. Statement 4 is correct — the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 is issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, and it also requires mills to pay within 14 days of delivery. Cane → CACP; sugar → Government order.
The stance signals the direction of future policy: under calibrated tightening, rate cuts are off the table and the next move is a hike or a pause, depending on data. The MPC adopted this stance at its 5–7 October 2026 meeting, raising the repo rate by 25 bps to 5.5%. Option (a) is incorrect because a stance does not commit the MPC to a hike at every meeting, as the Governor said the length of the cycle depends on growth–inflation data and second-round effects. Options (b) and (c) are incorrect because a stance says nothing about specific liquidity instruments or meeting frequency, and the RBI Act, 1934 (amended 2016) requires the MPC to meet at least four times a year. Absolute words such as ‘every’, ‘only’ and ‘until’ usually mark a distractor in policy questions.
- Statement-I: With only three of its satellites currently providing navigation signals, NavIC cannot at present offer standalone positioning services.
- Statement-II: A receiver needs signals from at least four satellites to work out its three position coordinates and the time.
Statement-I is correct — the Government told Parliament in July 2026 that only three NavIC satellites provide positioning, navigation and timing (PNT) signals, so standalone positioning is not possible, with atomic-clock failures, the NVS-02 orbit failure (2025) and a slow launch rate having weakened the constellation. Statement-II is correct and explains Statement-I — a receiver has four unknowns, latitude, longitude, altitude and its clock error, so it needs at least four satellite signals, and with three NavIC falls one short. Apply the ‘because’ test: NavIC cannot offer standalone positioning because four satellites are needed and only three work. Many candidates think three satellites suffice for a 3-D position, forgetting the time unknown.
- Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) — Section 70B
- National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre — Section 70A
- Controller of Certifying Authorities — Section 17
- Legal recognition of electronic signatures — Section 5
Pair 1 is correct — CERT-In is the national agency for incident response under Section 70B, and its 2022 directions require reporting of cyber incidents within 6 hours. Pair 2 is correct — NCIIPC protects critical information infrastructure under Section 70A. Pair 3 is correct — the CCA is appointed under Section 17 and runs the Root Certifying Authority of India for Digital Signature Certificates, which MeitY said were unaffected by the eMudhra web-certificate key leak. Pair 4 is correct — Section 5 gives legal recognition to electronic signatures, as Section 4 does for electronic records. Sections 70A and 70B sit side by side, so candidates suspect a swap, but 70A protects infrastructure first and 70B responds to incidents after; do not assume a match-the-pairs question must contain an error.
- Barren Island in the Andaman Sea is the only confirmed active volcano in India.
- Mud volcanoes, such as those at Baratang, erupt molten rock at lower temperatures than magmatic volcanoes.
- The Lakshmana Temple at Sirpur, on the banks of the Mahanadi, is a brick temple.
- A property must be on a State Party's Tentative List before its nomination for the World Heritage List can be considered.
Statement 1 is correct — Barren Island is India's only confirmed active volcano, with eruptions recorded since 1787 and activity in 2025 and early 2026, and it and Narcondam form the proposed Andaman Subduction Volcanoes site. Statement 2 is incorrect — mud volcanoes erupt mud, water and gases (mainly methane) driven by pressure in buried sediments, and no molten rock is involved. Statement 3 is correct — the Lakshmana Temple (c. 7th century) at Sirpur, Mahasamund district, Chhattisgarh, is among India's finest brick temples, and Sirpur lies on the Mahanadi. Statement 4 is correct — under the Operational Guidelines of the World Heritage Convention (1972), a site must be on the Tentative List, usually for at least one year, before nomination. The word ‘volcano’ pulls in lava, but a mud volcano shares the cone shape, not the molten rock.
