Current Affairs Quiz 22 September 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

Score: 0 / 0
Q1
With reference to the special provisions for certain States under Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is correct?
  • AArticle 371H vests special responsibility for law and order in Arunachal Pradesh in the Chief Minister of the State.
  • BArticle 371J, inserted by the 98th Amendment Act, 2012, provides for a separate development board for the Vidarbha region.
  • CUnder Article 371A, an Act of Parliament on the ownership and transfer of land applies to Nagaland only if its Legislative Assembly so decides by resolution.
  • DArticle 371I requires the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim to consist of not less than thirty members.
Answer: (c)

Option (c) is correct — Article 371A (13th Amendment, 1962) provides that no Act of Parliament on Naga religious or social practices, customary law, or the ownership and transfer of land applies to Nagaland unless its Legislative Assembly so decides by resolution, with Article 371G giving Mizoram a similar safeguard. Option (a) swaps the authority involved — Article 371H gives this special responsibility to the Governor of Arunachal Pradesh, not the Chief Minister. Option (b) swaps the region — Article 371J concerns the Hyderabad-Karnataka (Kalyana Karnataka) region, while development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra and Kutch fall under Article 371. Option (d) swaps the State — the thirty-member minimum is in Article 371I and applies to Goa, while Sikkim's provision is Article 371F. The Centre has now proposed a new Article 371K for Ladakh.

Q2
  • Statement-I: The Supreme Court struck down Maharashtra's rule requiring methanol sold to non-drug manufacturers to be mixed with a colourant and a bitterant.
  • Statement-II: Intoxicating liquors are a subject in the State List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
  • CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (b)

Statement-I is correct — on 18 September 2026 the Court held Rule 18A(2) of the Maharashtra Poisons Rules, 1972 unconstitutional under Articles 14 and 19(1)(g), finding no reasonable and proximate nexus between the additives and preventing methanol misuse in the unregulated illicit-liquor sector. Statement-II is also correct, since intoxicating liquors fall under Entry 8 of the State List, but it does NOT explain Statement-I: the rule fell because it failed the proportionality test, not for want of State legislative competence, and the Court expressly affirmed that States can still regulate methanol, including under the Poisons Act, 1919. This is a true-but-irrelevant trap — both statements are accurate, but only one concerns the actual ground of the ruling.

Q3
With reference to the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement, consider the following statements:
  • New Zealand will eliminate customs duties on all Indian exports from the date the agreement enters into force.
  • India has granted New Zealand tariff concessions on dairy products through a tariff-rate quota under the agreement.
  • With this agreement, India has a trade agreement with every member of the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNone
Answer: (a)

Only statement 1 is correct — New Zealand will provide duty-free access to 100% of Indian exports from entry into force on 20 October 2026, while India liberalises tariffs on about 95% of New Zealand's exports by value. Statement 2 is incorrect, since India excluded dairy and sensitive farm products such as onions, almonds, chickpeas, peas, artificial honey and sugar, granting NO concessions on them — dairy was also a key reason for India's 2019 exit from RCEP talks. Statement 3 is incorrect too, since India now has trade agreements with all RCEP members except China, not every member. This combines an over-extension trap, where a device used elsewhere (tariff-rate quotas) is wrongly imported into a fully excluded sector, with an absolute-word trap in "every member."

Q4
With reference to the navigation regimes under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following statements:
  • The right of transit passage through straits used for international navigation extends to warships, and submarines may exercise it while submerged.
  • A coastal State may temporarily suspend transit passage through a strait bordering its coast for reasons of security.
  • The Strait of Singapore connects the Strait of Malacca with the South China Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Transit passage under UNCLOS Part III (Articles 37–44) is the freedom of navigation and overflight solely for continuous and expeditious transit; it applies to all ships and aircraft, and submarines may pass in their normal submerged mode. The Strait of Singapore, about 105 km long, is the eastern continuation of the roughly 800-km Strait of Malacca and links it to the South China Sea. Statement 2 is incorrect — Article 44 provides that transit passage shall NOT be suspended; it is only innocent passage in the territorial sea that a coastal State may temporarily suspend for security under Article 25(3), where submarines must surface and show their flag. This is a regime-swap trap, attributing a feature of innocent passage to transit passage.

Q5
With reference to the international legal regime governing outer space, consider the following statements:
  • The Outer Space Treaty, 1967 prohibits placing nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit around the Earth.
  • The Outer Space Treaty, 1967 prohibits placing any kind of conventional weapon in orbit around the Earth.
  • Under the Liability Convention, 1972, a launching State is absolutely liable for damage caused by its space object on the surface of the Earth.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNone
Answer: (b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Article IV of the Outer Space Treaty bars nuclear weapons and other weapons of mass destruction in orbit and reserves the Moon and celestial bodies for exclusively peaceful purposes, while the Liability Convention imposes absolute liability for damage on the Earth's surface or to aircraft in flight, though only fault-based liability for damage caused elsewhere in space. Statement 2 is incorrect, since the Treaty does NOT ban conventional weapons in orbit — which is why disclosure of on-orbit "space control" weapons raises concern without technically breaching Article IV. This is a scope-inflation trap, widening a ban limited to nuclear weapons and WMD to cover all weapons.

Q6
With reference to Ayurveda and traditional medicine, consider the following statements:
  • Ayurveda Day, earlier observed on Dhanteras, is now observed every year on 23 September, close to the autumnal equinox.
  • The Traditional Medicine Module 2 of the WHO's ICD-11 codes diagnostic terms from Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani.
  • The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre is headquartered in Geneva, with its only regional office at Jamnagar in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. A Gazette Notification of 23 March 2025 fixed 23 September as Ayurveda Day, replacing the earlier Dhanteras (Dhanvantari Jayanti) observance since 2016, with 2026 marking the 11th Ayurveda Day; and ICD-11 TM2, launched for country testing in New Delhi in January 2024 and formally released in 2025, enables dual coding of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani diagnoses. Statement 3 is incorrect — the WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre is itself located at Jamnagar, Gujarat, as WHO's global outposted centre, not merely a regional office of a Geneva-based headquarters. This is a location-shift trap that demotes the Jamnagar centre's actual global status.

Q7
Consider the following pairs:
  • Biomining : Excavation and screening of old dumped waste to recover soil, fuel, recyclables and inerts
  • Refuse-derived fuel : Liquid formed when rainwater percolates through a heap of municipal waste
  • Miyawaki method : Use of microbial cultures to stabilise organic matter in dumped waste
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one pair
  • BOnly two pairs
  • CAll three pairs
  • DNone of the pairs
Answer: (a)

Only pair 1 is correctly matched — biomining separates legacy waste into refuse-derived fuel, bio-soil, recyclables and inert material, as done at Gorakhpur, Bhalswa, Nagpur and Raichur under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0. Pair 2 describes leachate, not refuse-derived fuel, which is actually the high-calorific fuel made by shredding and drying non-recyclable waste for cement-kiln co-processing. Pair 3 describes bioremediation, not the Miyawaki method — developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, it is the dense, multi-layered planting of native species, and Raichur's Yakalaspura site now hosts a Miyawaki forest. Each wrong pair borrows the description of a neighbouring waste-management term.

Q8
With reference to the legal status of the rhesus macaque in India, consider the following statements:
  • The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 reduced the number of Schedules in the principal Act from six to four.
  • Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the Central Government may declare a wild animal not listed in Schedule I to be vermin for a specified area and period.
  • The rhesus macaque is assessed as 'Least Concern' on the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNone
Answer: (c)

All three statements are correct. The 2022 Amendment rationalised the Schedules from six to four and removed the rhesus macaque, earlier in Part I of Schedule II, from protection; Section 62 empowers the Centre to declare such an animal vermin for an area and period, and the rhesus macaque had earlier been declared vermin in parts of Himachal Pradesh for limited periods; and the species, being widespread and adaptable, is indeed assessed as Least Concern. After delisting, responsibility for monkey control in Shimla has shifted largely to civic bodies, and victims may fall outside the State's wildlife compensation policy. This is an all-true "discomfort" trap — a species at the centre of a conflict story feels like it should be threatened, tempting rejection of statement 3.

Q9
  • Statement-I: In the Gaganyaan crew module, the main parachutes are deployed first to stabilise the module, followed by the drogue parachutes for touchdown.
  • Statement-II: Reefing restricts the initial opening of a parachute canopy so that the opening shock stays within tolerable limits.
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
  • CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (d)

Statement-I is incorrect — the actual sequence is reversed: two mortar-deployed drogue chutes first stabilise the module and cut its speed, and three mortar-ejected pilot chutes then pull out the three main chutes for the final descent, so that even if one main chute fails, the other two can still land the module safely. Statement-II is correct — a cord wound around the canopy limits how far it can spread, and after a preset delay a timed cutter severs the cord so the chute can bloom fully, keeping loads manageable when the module is moving at about 170 m/s (the system is developed by ADRDE, Agra, under DRDO). This is a sequence-reversal trap, presenting the correct stages in the wrong order.

Q10
With reference to the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), consider the following statements:
  • UPI 'Tap & Pay' uses Near Field Communication and can complete a payment using the internet connection of the point-of-sale terminal.
  • The National Payments Corporation of India, which operates UPI, is a not-for-profit company set up by banks under the guidance of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • RuPay credit cards can be linked to UPI for making payments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. Tap & Pay, launched by RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra at the Global Fintech Fest 2026, lets a user tap an NFC-enabled phone on an NFC-enabled terminal and works even without mobile data by using the terminal's own internet connection, with PIN-less payments up to ₹5,000; NPCI, set up in 2008, is indeed a not-for-profit company established by banks under RBI's guidance and operates retail payment systems including UPI, RuPay and IMPS under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007; and RuPay credit cards were linked to UPI in 2022, with Tap & Pay supporting them too. This is an all-true "discomfort" trap — the offline element in statement 1 and the credit-card link in statement 3 sound counter-intuitive for a bank-account-based system, but both hold.

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