Current Affairs Quiz 23 April 2026

Q1. In the Draft Regulations (2026) released by the CERC, which entity has been proposed to take on the role of the Market Coupling Operator (MCO)?

A) Indian Energy Exchange (IEX)
B) Power System Operation Corporation (POSOCO)
C) Grid Controller of India Ltd (Grid-India)
D) Central Electricity Authority (CEA)

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

• The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission in its Draft Power Market (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2026 has proposed Grid Controller of India Ltd (Grid-India) as the Market Coupling Operator (MCO).
• Why Grid-India?
  • It is the national grid operator, ensuring neutrality and system-wide oversight.
  • Market coupling requires aggregation of bids across all exchanges (IEX, PXIL, HPX) → only a neutral entity can ensure fairness.
• Conceptual clarity:
  • Market Coupling = “One Grid, One Price” → uniform market-clearing price across exchanges.
  • Based on maximisation of economic surplus (consumer + producer welfare).
• Why not others?
  • IEX/PXIL → private exchanges → conflict of interest.
  • POSOCO → old name of Grid-India (trap option).
  • CEA → policy/advisory body, not market operator.

Q2. Recently, the Government added 14 seaports as ICPs for e-visa entry. Which state accounts for the highest number of these newly designated ports?

A) Tamil Nadu
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Odisha
D) Gujarat

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

• The Ministry of Home Affairs designated 14 new seaports as Immigration Check Posts (ICPs) for e-visa entry.
• Gujarat accounts for the largest share (7 ports):
  • Alang, Bedi Bandar, Bhavnagar, Porbandar, Hazira, Pipavav, Mandvi.
• Why Gujarat dominates?
  • Longest coastline (~1,600 km).
  • Major role in maritime trade + port-led development under Sagarmala.
• Conceptual insight:
  • ICP expansion = decentralisation of border management + boost to cruise tourism + ease of doing business.
• Prelims trap:
  • Tamil Nadu has multiple ports, but numerically fewer than Gujarat in this specific expansion.

Q3. In the context of India’s maritime diplomacy, the acronym ‘SAGAR’ stands for:

A) Strategic Alliance for Global Atlantic Relations
B) Security and Governance Against Radicalization
C) Security and Growth for All in the Region
D) Sustainable Agriculture and Growth in Aquatic Resources

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

• SAGAR = “Security and Growth for All in the Region”, articulated by Narendra Modi in 2015.
• Strategic significance:
  • Core of India’s Indian Ocean Region (IOR) policy.
  • Positions India as a “Net Security Provider”.
• Operational pillars:
  • Maritime security cooperation
  • Disaster relief (HADR)
  • Capacity building for littoral states
• Application example:
  • India–Sri Lanka exercises like DIVEX reflect SAGAR in action.

Q4. Which of the following are examples of the application of Synthetic Biology as mentioned in the context of modern biotechnology?

1. Production of human insulin through recombinant DNA in bacteria.
2. Laboratory synthesis of Artemisinin using engineered microbes.
3. Traditional cross-breeding of bovine species to increase milk yield.
4. Development of GLP-1 receptor agonists like Semaglutide using biological engineering.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

• Synthetic Biology = Engineering biological systems using genetic design principles.

✔ Statement 1 (Correct):

• Recombinant DNA technology → insulin production using E. coli
• Classic example of modern biotechnology + synthetic biology foundation

✔ Statement 2 (Correct):

• Artemisinin now produced via engineered yeast/microbes
• Reduces dependence on plant extraction

✔ Statement 4 (Correct):

• Drugs like Semaglutide → engineered for longer biological activity
• Represents advanced biologics + synthetic modification

✖ Statement 3 (Incorrect):

• Traditional breeding = conventional biotechnology, not synthetic biology
• Key Concept:
  • Synthetic biology = precision + lab-based design
  • Traditional breeding = slow, selection-based evolution

Q5. With reference to the impact of extreme heat on agricultural crops, consider the following statements:

1. High night-time temperatures can reduce net productivity because respiration exceeds photosynthesis.
2. Heat stress during flowering (anthesis) in crops like rice causes yield loss by inducing pollen sterility.
3. Every 1°C rise in global temperature leads to a uniform 10% reduction in crop yields.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

✔ Statement 1 (Correct):

• At night, no photosynthesis occurs, but respiration continues.
• High temperatures increase respiration → energy loss → reduced growth

✔ Statement 2 (Correct):

• Flowering stage = most heat-sensitive phase
• Heat causes pollen sterility → failed fertilisation → empty grains

✖ Statement 3 (Incorrect):

• FAO–WMO estimate: ~6% yield reduction per 1°C rise, not 10%
• Also varies across crops (C3 vs C4), not uniform
• Advanced Insight:
  • Extreme heat acts as a “risk multiplier”, intensifying droughts, pests, and crop stress.
  • High night temperatures are particularly damaging → hidden yield loss factor.

---