Current Affairs Quiz 31 October 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

Score: 0 / 0
Q1
Consider the following pairs under the Code on Social Security, 2020 (Term — Meaning — Example):
  • Gig worker — Earns outside a traditional employer–employee relationship — A freelance, task-based designer
  • Platform worker — Uses an online platform to access customers or organisations — A food-delivery rider using an app
  • Aggregator — A union representing platform workers — A gig workers’ association
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNone
Answer: (b)

Pair 1 is correct — a gig worker performs work outside a traditional employer–employee relationship. Pair 2 is correct — a platform worker uses an online platform to reach customers or organisations and get paid, so all platform workers are gig workers but not vice versa. Pair 3 is incorrect — an aggregator is the digital intermediary or marketplace, i.e. the platform company, that connects users with service providers, and aggregators contribute 1–2% of turnover to the social security fund.

Q2
Consider the following statements about the National Social Security Board:
  • The National Social Security Board for gig and platform workers is chaired by the Union Minister for Labour & Employment.
  • Under the Code on Social Security, aggregators contribute 1–2% of annual turnover, capped at 5% of the amount paid or payable to gig and platform workers.
  • ‘Social security and social insurance’ is a subject in the Union List.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — the newly notified Boards are chaired by the Union Labour Minister and include Central and State representatives, aggregators, employers, unions and gig associations. Statement 2 is correct — aggregators contribute 1–2% of annual turnover, subject to a cap of 5% of payments to gig and platform workers. Statement 3 is incorrect — social security and social insurance is Entry 23 of the Concurrent List, and “welfare of labour” (Entry 24) is also Concurrent.

Q3
Consider the following statements about the Survey of India and geospatial policy:
  • The Survey of India, established in 1767, functions under the Department of Science and Technology.
  • The National Geospatial Policy, 2022 designates the Department of Science and Technology as the nodal department for the geospatial domain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — the Survey of India (1767), headquartered in Dehradun, is among the world’s oldest scientific departments and works under DST. Statement 2 is correct — the National Geospatial Policy, 2022 makes DST the nodal department and sets up the Geospatial Data Promotion and Development Committee (GDPDC) as the apex body, building on the liberalised 2021 guidelines.

Q4
The Survey of India is building positioning infrastructure, including a CORS network. Which one of the following best describes a CORS network?
  • AA constellation of Earth observation satellites for land mapping
  • BA fleet of LiDAR-equipped drones for terrain surveys
  • CA network of fixed ground stations that continuously receive satellite signals and correct positions to centimetre-level accuracy
  • DA national database linking land records to property owners
Answer: (c)

CORS — Continuously Operating Reference Stations — are permanent GNSS receivers at known locations; comparing their known positions with satellite readings lets users correct errors and achieve centimetre-level accuracy for surveying, construction and precision farming. Options (a) and (b) are data-capture tools, while (d) describes land-record systems such as those supported by SVAMITVA.

Q5
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: India has not ratified ILO Convention No. 102 on minimum standards of social security.
  • Statement-II: Social security and the welfare of labour are subjects in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (b)

Statement-I is correct — Convention No. 102 (1952) sets minimum standards across nine branches of social security, and India has not ratified it. Statement-II is correct — Entry 23 (social security and social insurance) and Entry 24 (welfare of labour) are in the Concurrent List, the basis of the editorial’s federal argument. However, the constitutional distribution of powers does not explain India’s decision on an international treaty, so Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

Q6
Consider the following statements about India–China border mechanisms:
  • The 1993 India–China agreement related to the maintenance of peace and tranquillity along the Line of Actual Control.
  • The Special Representatives mechanism on the boundary question was established in 2003.
  • The McMahon Line was drawn at the Simla Convention of 1914, and China does not accept it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. The 1993 Agreement committed both sides to respect the LAC and keep forces at minimum levels pending a settlement, and the 1996 CBM agreement barred firearms use within 2 km of the LAC. The Special Representatives mechanism dates to 2003, followed by the 2005 Political Parameters agreement. The McMahon Line emerged from the Simla Convention (1914) between British India and Tibet, and China rejects it and claims much of Arunachal Pradesh.

Q7
Consider the following pairs relating to the India–China Line of Actual Control (Sector — States / UT — Associated area):
  • Western — Ladakh — Aksai Chin
  • Middle — Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh — Barahoti
  • Eastern — Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh — McMahon Line
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • CAll three
  • DNone
Answer: (b)

Pair 1 is correct — the Western sector covers Ladakh, including the dispute over Aksai Chin, with Galwan, Depsang and Demchok lying here. Pair 2 is incorrect — the Middle sector covers Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand; Barahoti, in Uttarakhand, is right for this sector, but the States listed belong to the Eastern sector. Pair 3 is correct — the Eastern sector covers Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, where the McMahon Line is India’s boundary; the LAC is about 3,488 km long.

Q8
Consider the following statements about frontier physics:
  • The Higgs boson, discovered at CERN in 2012, is a particle with zero spin.
  • Kaluza–Klein theory attempted to unify gravity and the strong nuclear force by introducing an extra spatial dimension.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — the Higgs boson has spin 0, the kind of particle described by the Klein–Gordon equation (1926), which waited decades for such a particle to be found. Statement 2 is incorrect — Kaluza–Klein theory sought to unify gravity and electromagnetism, not the nuclear forces, through a fifth dimension, an idea later developed by string theory. Ashoke Sen (ICTS) is the first Indian to receive the Oskar Klein Medal.

Q9
With reference to State Legislative Councils, consider the following statements:
  • Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council by law, on a resolution of the State Legislative Assembly passed by a special majority.
  • Such a law is deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.
  • One-third of the members are elected by members of the Legislative Assembly from among persons who are not members of the Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — under Article 169, the Assembly passes a resolution by a special majority and Parliament enacts a law. Statement 2 is incorrect — Article 169(3) states that such a law is not deemed an amendment under Article 368, so Parliament passes it by simple majority. Statement 3 is correct — under Article 171, one-third are elected by MLAs from among non-members, one-third by local bodies, one-twelfth each by graduates and teachers, and the rest are nominated by the Governor; six States (AP, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, UP) have Councils.

Q10
In a Rajya Sabha election held by single transferable vote, 180 MLAs vote to fill 5 seats. What is the quota of first-preference votes a candidate needs to be elected?
  • A30
  • B36
  • C37
  • D31
Answer: (d)

Quota = [number of valid votes ÷ (number of seats + 1)] + 1, so here 180 ÷ (5 + 1) = 30, and 30 + 1 = 31. Surplus votes of elected candidates are transferred to next preferences and the lowest candidates are eliminated until all seats are filled. The same STV system applies to Legislative Council elections, which therefore use ballot papers, not EVMs.

Q11
Consider the following statements about prisons in India:
  • ‘Prisons’ is a subject in the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
  • The Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act, 2023 replaced the Prisons Act, 1894 in all States with immediate effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • A1 only
  • B2 only
  • CBoth 1 and 2
  • DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct — “Prisons, reformatories, borstal institutions” are in Entry 4 of the State List. Statement 2 is incorrect — the 2023 Act is a model law prepared by the Centre for States to adopt, so since prisons are a State subject it does not automatically replace the colonial Prisons Act, 1894. The Theni jailbreak has highlighted overcrowding and staff shortages.

Q12
Consider the following statements about measuring poverty:
  • The World Bank’s international extreme poverty line is $3.00 a day in 2021 purchasing power parity terms.
  • The Multidimensional Poverty Index covers deprivations in health, education and living standards.
  • The Tendulkar Committee methodology placed India’s poverty ratio for 2011–12 at about 21.9%.
  • Purchasing power parity exchange rates are the same as market exchange rates.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct — the World Bank moved to 2021 PPPs in 2025, with $3.00 for extreme poverty and $4.20 for lower-middle-income countries, and India’s extreme poverty fell from 27.1% (2011) to 2.6% (2023). Statement 2 is correct — the MPI (OPHI–UNDP) uses health, education and living-standard indicators. Statement 3 is correct — the Tendulkar method gave about 21.9% for 2011–12, against 29.5% under the Rangarajan method. Statement 4 is incorrect — PPP rates adjust for price levels and, for India, differ greatly from market rates because prices are lower.

Q13
Consider the following statements:
  • Statement-I: A satellite placed in a geosynchronous transfer orbit must use its own propulsion to reach its final orbit.
  • Statement-II: A geosynchronous transfer orbit is an elliptical orbit whose perigee is far below the geosynchronous altitude of about 36,000 km.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
  • ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
  • BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
  • CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
  • DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (a)

Statement-I is correct — after the launcher releases it, the satellite fires its own apogee motor to raise its orbit. Statement-II is correct — NVS-03 was placed in a GTO of about 170 km × 37,000 km, and its low perigee must be raised to circularise the orbit at about 36,000 km. Because the transfer orbit dips far below the target altitude, the satellite must manoeuvre to reach it, so Statement-II explains Statement-I; NVS-02 failed in 2025 at exactly this stage.

Q14
Consider the following statements about palaeoclimate and related concepts:
  • The Meghalayan Age of the Holocene begins with the 4.2-thousand-year mega-drought.
  • C4 plants are generally better adapted to hot and dry conditions than C3 plants.
  • An oxbow lake forms when a meandering river cuts off one of its loops.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. The Meghalayan Age (about 4,200 years ago to present) is defined using a stalagmite from Mawmluh Cave, Meghalaya, and the 4.2 ka drought is linked to the decline of the Indus Valley Civilisation. C4 plants (many grasses, maize, millets) use water and CO₂ more efficiently in heat and dryness, while C3 plants (most trees, rice, wheat) prefer cooler, wetter settings. Oxbow lakes are cut-off meanders common in the Ganga plain, and BSIP used one near Hulas Khera to reconstruct 4,600 years of monsoon history.

Q15
Consider the following statements about the geo-heritage of the Andaman Islands:
  • Barren Island is the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.
  • Narcondam Island is home to an endemic species of hornbill.
  • Inclusion of a site on UNESCO’s Tentative List confers World Heritage status on it.
  • Mud volcanoes, such as those at Baratang, erupt molten lava.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • AOnly one
  • BOnly two
  • COnly three
  • DAll four
Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is correct — Barren Island lies on the volcanic arc formed as the Indian Plate subducts beneath the Burma microplate. Statement 2 is correct — the Narcondam hornbill is found only on Narcondam. Statement 3 is incorrect — the Tentative List is a prerequisite for nomination, not recognition, since only the World Heritage Committee inscribes sites. Statement 4 is incorrect — mud volcanoes emit mud, water and gases (mainly methane), not molten rock; Baratang, the Andaman Subduction Volcanoes and Sirpur were recently added to India’s Tentative List.

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