Static Quiz 24 May 2025 (Polity)
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Static Quiz 24 May 2025 (Polity) For UPSC Exam
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- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following pairs regarding constitutional bodies and their respective articles:
1. Election Commission – Article 324
2. Union Public Service Commission – Article 315
3. National Commission for Scheduled Castes – Article 338
4. Comptroller and Auditor General – Article 148
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?CorrectAnswer: (d) All four
Explanation:
• Pair 1: Correct. Election Commission is under Article 324.
• Pair 2: Correct. UPSC is under Article 315.
• Pair 3: Correct. National Commission for Scheduled Castes is under Article 338.
• Pair 4: Correct. CAG is under Article 148.IncorrectAnswer: (d) All four
Explanation:
• Pair 1: Correct. Election Commission is under Article 324.
• Pair 2: Correct. UPSC is under Article 315.
• Pair 3: Correct. National Commission for Scheduled Castes is under Article 338.
• Pair 4: Correct. CAG is under Article 148. - Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Parliamentary Privileges in India?
1. Parliamentary privileges are codified in the Constitution of India.
2. The freedom of speech in Parliament is absolute and not subject to judicial review.
3. The Parliament can punish individuals for breach of privilege or contempt.
4. The privileges extend to the publication of parliamentary proceedings under the authority of the House.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAnswer: (a) 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. Parliamentary privileges are not fully codified in the Constitution (Article 105); they are partly based on conventions and rules.
• Statement 2: Correct. Freedom of speech in Parliament is absolute under Article 105(1), not subject to judicial review.
• Statement 3: Correct. Parliament can punish for breach of privilege or contempt (Article 105(3)).
• Statement 4: Correct. Privileges cover authorized publications of proceedings.IncorrectAnswer: (a) 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. Parliamentary privileges are not fully codified in the Constitution (Article 105); they are partly based on conventions and rules.
• Statement 2: Correct. Freedom of speech in Parliament is absolute under Article 105(1), not subject to judicial review.
• Statement 3: Correct. Parliament can punish for breach of privilege or contempt (Article 105(3)).
• Statement 4: Correct. Privileges cover authorized publications of proceedings. - Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to the Advocate General of a State, consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor of the State.
2. The Advocate General must be a person qualified to be appointed as a judge of a High Court.
3. The Advocate General can participate in the proceedings of the State Legislature but cannot vote.
4. The Advocate General’s term is fixed for five years or until the age of 62, whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above are correct?CorrectAnswer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor (Article 165).
• Statement 2: Correct. They must be qualified to be a High Court judge.
• Statement 3: Correct. The Advocate General can participate in legislative proceedings but has no voting rights (Article 177).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The term is not fixed; they hold office during the pleasure of the GovernorIncorrectAnswer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Advocate General is appointed by the Governor (Article 165).
• Statement 2: Correct. They must be qualified to be a High Court judge.
• Statement 3: Correct. The Advocate General can participate in legislative proceedings but has no voting rights (Article 177).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The term is not fixed; they hold office during the pleasure of the Governor - Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005:
1. The RTI Act applies to all States and Union Territories of India except Jammu and Kashmir.
2. Public authorities are required to provide information within 30 days of receiving an RTI application.
3. The Central Information Commission is headed by the Chief Information Commissioner, appointed by the President.
4. The RTI Act allows citizens to access information held by private entities performing public functions.
How many of the above statements are correct?CorrectAnswer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. The RTI Act applies to all of India, including Jammu and Kashmir, after the 2019 reorganization.
• Statement 2: Correct. Information must be provided within 30 days (Section 7).
• Statement 3: Correct. The Central Information Commission is headed by the Chief Information Commissioner, appointed by the President (Section 12).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The RTI Act applies to public authorities, not private entities, unless they are substantially financed by the government.IncorrectAnswer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. The RTI Act applies to all of India, including Jammu and Kashmir, after the 2019 reorganization.
• Statement 2: Correct. Information must be provided within 30 days (Section 7).
• Statement 3: Correct. The Central Information Commission is headed by the Chief Information Commissioner, appointed by the President (Section 12).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The RTI Act applies to public authorities, not private entities, unless they are substantially financed by the government. - Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Which of the following actions were taken under the provisions of Article 368 of the Constitution of India?
1. Addition of the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ to the Preamble.
2. Creation of the State of Jharkhand from Bihar.
3. Introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
4. Abolition of the Legislative Councils in certain States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The 42nd Amendment (1976) added ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ to the Preamble via Article 368.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The creation of Jharkhand was under Article 3 (Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000), not Article 368.
• Statement 3: Correct. The 101st Amendment (2016) for GST required constitutional amendment under Article 368.
• Statement 4: Incorrect. Abolition of Legislative Councils is under Article 169, not Article 368.IncorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The 42nd Amendment (1976) added ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ to the Preamble via Article 368.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The creation of Jharkhand was under Article 3 (Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000), not Article 368.
• Statement 3: Correct. The 101st Amendment (2016) for GST required constitutional amendment under Article 368.
• Statement 4: Incorrect. Abolition of Legislative Councils is under Article 169, not Article 368.