Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027
- Entry 50 of the State List empowers state governments to levy taxes on mineral rights, subject to any limitations imposed by Parliament by law relating to mineral development.
- The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act) vests control over regulation of mines and development of minerals with the Union under Entry 54 of the Union List.
- Under the MMDR Amendment Act, 2026, amounts already deposited or recovered by states from mining companies as levies are required to be refunded once the Act comes into force.
- District Mineral Foundations (DMFs), established under the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015, are statutory bodies that receive contributions from major mineral mining operations to fund local community development.
- A1, 2 and 4 only
- B1 and 2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 3 and 4 only
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Entry 50 of the State List allows states to tax mineral rights but explicitly makes that power subject to parliamentary limitation — the constitutional peg on which the entire 2026 Amendment hangs — while Entry 54 of the Union List gives the Union control over mine regulation and mineral development. DMFs, created under the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015, are statutory bodies funded by contributions from holders of major mineral leases to benefit mining-affected districts. Statement 3 is the reversal trap, since the 2026 Amendment provides that amounts already deposited or recovered shall NOT be refunded — only unpaid or uncollected dues are invalidated.
Reason (R): Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, when biological resources are accessed through open-market intermediaries and no single farmer or community can be identified as the source, the NBA may allocate ABS proceeds proportionally among State Biodiversity Boards of states where the resource is cultivated.
- ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- CA is true, but R is false.
- DA is false, but R is true.
Both statements are true and the Reason directly explains the Assertion. M/s. Pioneer Overseas Corporation sourced mustard parental lines from open-market traders, leaving no identifiable farmer or community, so an Expert Committee constituted by the NBA devised the cultivation-area allocation modality that the Authority then approved — now a binding precedent for similar cases. Rajasthan, with roughly 42% of India's mustard cultivation, received the largest share, and total ABS released by the NBA has crossed ₹182.5 crore. The trap is assuming ABS must always reach an identifiable local community as in the standard Nagoya Protocol model, whereas the intermediary-source exception lets the state biodiversity body step in as recipient.
- Article 22(1) requires that an arrested person be informed of the grounds of arrest as soon as possible and be allowed to consult and be defended by a lawyer of their choice.
- Under Article 22(2), an arrested person must be produced before the nearest magistrate within 48 hours of arrest, excluding travel time.
- The preventive detention provisions under Article 22(3) to 22(7) do not apply the safeguards of Article 22(1) and 22(2) to persons detained under preventive detention laws.
- In the Vihaan Kumar v. State of Haryana (2025) judgment, the Supreme Court held that communicating grounds of arrest to the arrested person's relatives satisfies the requirement of Article 22(1).
- A1, 2 and 3 only
- B2, 3 and 4 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement 1 is correct, as Article 22(1) guarantees the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest as soon as possible and to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner, and Statement 3 is correct because Articles 22(3)–(7) on preventive detention explicitly exclude those safeguards. Statement 2 fails on the number — the limit under Article 22(2) and Section 58 of the BNSS is 24 hours, not 48, which is the figure used in some other systems such as the UK PACE Act. Statement 4 inverts the actual holding: in Vihaan Kumar v. State of Haryana (2025) the Supreme Court ruled that communicating grounds to relatives does NOT satisfy Article 22(1), since the grounds must reach the arrested person directly and meaningfully.
- CMAS was announced in Union Budget 2026–27 with an outlay of ₹10,000 crore over five years and aims to expand India's container manufacturing capacity to 7.5 lakh TEUs per year.
- The Bharat Container Shipping Line (BCSL), formed through an MoU among SCI, CONCOR, JNPA, VOCPA and SFMCL, envisages an investment of approximately ₹70,000 crore for fleet development.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct — CMAS was announced in Union Budget 2026–27 with a ₹10,000 crore outlay over five years, targeting 7.5 lakh TEUs of domestic container manufacturing capacity annually, roughly ten times current capacity, against imports of nearly two million empty containers each year. Statement 2 is incorrect because the BCSL MoU envisages about ₹99,149 crore for the development of 51 container vessels. The ₹70,000 crore figure belongs to the separate Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Package — a number-swap between two closely related maritime schemes, which is a favourite UPSC device.
- Article 105 of the Constitution deals with powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members, while Article 194 deals with the corresponding provisions for State Legislatures.
- Article 194(3) provides that powers, privileges and immunities of a State Legislature shall be those of the UK House of Commons as they stood at the commencement of the Constitution, until Parliament by law defines them.
- The Supreme Court, in a series of cases, has definitively held that legislative privileges under Article 194(3) cannot in any circumstance override the fundamental right to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a).
- A seven-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court is scheduled to hear petitions seeking an authoritative settlement of the interplay between Articles 194(3), 19(1)(a) and 21.
- A2 and 4 only
- B1 and 3 only
- C1, 2, 3 and 4
- D1, 2 and 4 only
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct — Article 105 covers Parliament while Article 194 covers State Legislatures; Article 194(3) imports UK House of Commons privileges by reference until Parliament enacts a defining law, which no Parliament has ever done; and a seven-judge Constitution Bench is scheduled to hear the matter from 6 October 2026. Statement 3 is the false-certainty trap, since the law is not settled at all — the 1959 ruling in M.S.M. Sharma v. Krishna Sharma and the 1964 Presidential Reference point in contradictory directions and have never been authoritatively reconciled. That unresolved conflict is precisely why the seven-judge referral was made.
- AThey must be deposited in the Consolidated Fund of the State and used as per the Finance Commission's devolution formula.
- BThey must be used for conservation-linked activities as specified under Section 32 of the Act, including People's Biodiversity Register documentation, in-situ and ex-situ conservation, ecosystem restoration, and community livelihood improvement.
- CThey must be transferred directly to identified source communities in proportion to their contribution to the biological resource, with the SBB acting only as a conduit.
- DThey must be used exclusively for strengthening the enforcement capacity of the State Forest Department and wildlife crime investigation.
Section 32 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 mandates that ABS proceeds received by State Biodiversity Boards fund documentation and updating of People's Biodiversity Registers, in-situ and ex-situ conservation, restoration of degraded ecosystems, strengthening of Biodiversity Heritage Sites, capacity-building of Biodiversity Management Committees, and improvement of community livelihoods. Option (a) is the "generalise to a known mechanism" trap — the Consolidated Fund and Finance Commission route sounds credible because most state revenues flow that way, but ABS proceeds do not. Option (c) conflates the NBA's general duty to share benefits with communities and the SBB's distinct statutory duty under Section 32, and the SBB is never a mere conduit. Option (d) is far too narrow, confining the funds to forest enforcement alone.
- SraVaani was developed at IISc's SPIRE Lab in collaboration with ARTPARK and Google, and covers 20 scheduled languages and 45 regional languages and dialects.
- The model has been released under a proprietary licence and is available only to research institutions, with commercial use prohibited.
- India's Eighth Schedule to the Constitution currently recognises 22 languages, with Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali being the most recently added through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment.
- ARTPARK (AI and Robotics Technology Park) at IISc Bengaluru is established under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS).
- A1 and 2 only
- B1, 3 and 4 only
- C2, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct — SraVaani comes from IISc's SPIRE Lab with ARTPARK and Google and covers 20 scheduled plus 45 regional languages and dialects, or 65 in all; the Eighth Schedule has 22 languages with Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003; and ARTPARK at IISc Bengaluru operates under the DST's NM-ICPS. Statement 2 is a direct factual inversion, since SraVaani was released on Hugging Face under the MIT licence, one of the most permissive open-source licences, expressly allowing commercial as well as non-commercial use. Worth carrying into the exam hall: the model achieved 9.5% Word Error Rate on Garo against 69.4% for the next-best system.
Reason (R): Asian elephants have large home ranges, extraordinary spatial memory and complex social structures; translocated individuals may attempt to return to their original range, creating new conflict along unfamiliar routes, and may fail to integrate into resident herds at the release site.
- ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
- BBoth A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- CA is true, but R is false.
- DA is false, but R is true.
Both statements are true and the Reason supplies exactly the mechanism behind the Assertion. Asian elephants maintain mental maps of water sources, food patches and movement routes over decades, and research from the Western Ghats shows translocated individuals frequently attempt to return to their original ranges, passing through unfamiliar human-use landscapes and generating fresh conflict while also disrupting social hierarchies among resident herds at the release site. The deeper ecological logic is that removing the animal does not remove the reason it entered human landscapes — blocked corridors, seasonal food scarcity or crop habituation. Note the distinction from Sariska-style conservation translocation, which succeeds because its purpose is population restoration in suitable habitat rather than conflict removal.
- Regional parties collectively polled approximately one-third of total votes cast in the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, broadly consistent with their vote share in 2014 and 2009.
- Under India's First-Past-the-Post electoral system, a decline in the number of state governments headed by regional parties necessarily implies a proportional decline in their aggregate voter support.
- A2 only
- BBoth 1 and 2
- C1 only
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct — regional parties polled 35.85% in 2014, 28.09% in 2019 in an exceptional dip linked to the Balakot backdrop, and 33.53% in 2024, hovering around one-third across three of four elections and indicating a stable underlying support base. Statement 2 is the conceptual trap, because First-Past-the-Post systematically magnifies small vote-share swings into large seat swings; a party can shed two or three percentage points and lose a fifth to a third of its seats. The fall in regional-party-led state governments from nine in 2015–20 to four today reflects this amplification effect rather than any proportional collapse in popular support, which is the analytical core of the Lokniti-CSDS analysis.
- AIndian IT firms must register every AI system they develop for EU clients with the European AI Office before deployment, which requires a lengthy pre-approval process incompatible with agile software delivery timelines.
- BIf an Indian IT firm substantially modifies a high-risk AI system for a European client — through a change not contemplated in the original conformity assessment — it may be treated as the system's provider and inherit all compliance obligations, while routine bespoke adaptation is the core of India's IT service model.
- CThe Act prohibits third-country firms from maintaining or updating high-risk AI systems used in the EU unless they establish a physical legal entity within an EU member state, requiring Indian IT majors to restructure their corporate presence in Europe.
- DUnder the Act's extraterritorial provisions, all AI systems developed by Indian companies anywhere in the world must comply with EU conformity standards if the company has annual revenue exceeding €100 million from EU clients.
Option (b) correctly captures the problem: Article 43 of the EU AI Act requires high-risk AI systems to undergo conformity assessment before market entry, and a substantial modification — one affecting compliance or altering intended purpose that was not contemplated during the original assessment — forces the full assessment to be repeated, with the modifying firm liable to be treated as the system's provider and to inherit all original obligations. India's IT services model, built on continuous bespoke adaptation to client needs, is structurally exposed to that trigger. Options (a), (c) and (d) each invent a plausible-sounding mechanism the Act does not contain — blanket pre-registration, a physical EU presence requirement, and a €100 million revenue threshold respectively. Worth noting alongside this: the India–EU FTA of January 2026 opens a treaty pathway for Indian conformity assessment bodies to be recognised under the Act, turning a compliance burden into a services export opportunity.


