Current Affairs Quiz 05 October 2026

Statement 1 is correct — Component I covers 1,000 Government ITIs, 200 hubs and 800 spokes, so each hub is linked to about four spokes, sharing infrastructure, trades and placement services. Statement 2 is correct too, since the SPV gives 51% to the Anchor Industry Partner and 24.5% each to the Centre and the State, within a ₹60,000 crore outlay (Centre ₹30,000 cr, States ₹20,000 cr, industry ₹10,000 cr). Statement 3 is incorrect — ITIs are actually under the administrative and financial control of State Governments and UT Administrations; the DGT is only the apex national body for policy, norms, curriculum, affiliation and trade testing.

Pair 1 is correct — NW-1 is the Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly system from Haldia to Prayagraj, developed under the World Bank-assisted Jal Marg Vikas Project. Pair 2 is correct, since NW-2 is the Brahmaputra from Dhubri to Sadiya (about 891 km), which carried the first international cargo from Dibrugarh since Independence — methanol from Bogibeel to Pangaon, Dhaka. Pair 3 is correct too, as NW-3 is the West Coast Canal in Kerala, with the Champakara and Udyogmandal canals. Pair 4 is incorrect — NW-5 is actually the East Coast Canal with the Brahmani river and Mahanadi delta system (Odisha–West Bengal); none of NW-1 to NW-5 runs on the Narmada, and the National Waterways Act, 2016 declared 111 National Waterways.

Statement-I is correct — in QKD, eavesdropping raises the Quantum Bit Error Rate (QBER); the 5.56 km free-space link between BISAG-N and IIT Gandhinagar kept QBER below 5% and generated keys at 230–260 bps. Statement-II is correct too, combining the measurement disturbance principle and the no-cloning theorem, the physics behind protocols such as BB84 (1984). It also explains Statement-I — an interceptor cannot copy the photons undetected, and measuring them introduces errors the communicating parties can see, so QKD security rests on physics rather than on mathematical hardness.

Statement 1 is incorrect — that describes Quantum Key Distribution; post-quantum cryptography instead uses classical mathematical algorithms, run in software, designed to resist attack by quantum computers. BISAG-N's Vedic Kavach is a PQC platform, while QNu Labs' Armos is QKD hardware. Statement 2 is correct, since the National Quantum Mission was approved in April 2023 (2023-24 to 2030-31) and is implemented by the DST, with goals including satellite-based secure quantum communication and inter-city QKD.

Statement 1 is correct — Article 324(5) gives the CEC the same protection as a Supreme Court judge, with removal by Parliament on proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Statement 2 is incorrect — business is transacted unanimously as far as possible, otherwise by majority, and in T.N. Seshan v. Union of India (1995) the Supreme Court upheld majority decision-making, treating the CEC as first among equals; removal safeguards and voting rights are different questions. Statement 3 is correct, since the proviso to Article 324(5) protects other ECs, who can be removed only on the CEC's recommendation, with appointments now made under the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023.

Statement 1 is correct — the RP Act, 1950 covers allocation of seats, delimitation and electoral rolls, while the RP Act, 1951 covers conduct of elections and disputes. Statement 2 is correct too, since Section 21(3) permits a special revision for any constituency or part, for reasons recorded, while periodic revision under Section 21(2) may be intensive, summary or mixed. Statement 3 is correct, as Article 326 provides for adult suffrage — every citizen aged 18 or above, not otherwise disqualified, is entitled to be registered. Statement 4 is incorrect — the Rules were actually made by the Central Government, after consulting the Election Commission, under Section 28 of the RP Act, 1950, not by the ECI under Article 324.

Option (b) is correct — a bound rate is a ceiling written into a member's schedule of commitments; the applied rate can be lower but should not exceed it without negotiation and compensation. Option (a) instead describes the applied tariff, option (c) describes the MFN principle (GATT Article I), which concerns non-discrimination rather than a tariff ceiling, and option (d) describes a balance-of-payments safeguard. In the India–US trade negotiations, a bilateral version of binding has been proposed — a ceiling on US tariffs on Indian goods for the life of the deal.

Statement 1 is incorrect — Article 14 applies to "any person", citizen or foreigner; the Delhi High Court rejected the petitioner's Article 14 claim on facts, as she and her husband were not similarly situated, not because foreigners lack the right. Statement 2 is correct, since Article 19(1)(e), like all of Article 19, is available only to citizens, and Louis De Raedt (1991) held a foreigner's rights are largely confined to Article 21. Statement 3 is correct too — the 2025 Act, in force from 1 September 2025, repealed the Foreigners Act 1946, the Passport (Entry into India) Act 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act 1939 and the Immigration (Carriers' Liability) Act 2000.

Statement 1 is correct — ADMM-Plus, established in 2010, comprises the 10 ASEAN members and 8 Plus countries: Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, Russia and the United States. Statement 2 is correct too, since AIME-2026, themed "Anchored in Trust, United at Sea", concluded on 2 October at Subic Bay with INS Sahyadri and INS Kulish; the likely confusion is the first edition (2023), which was co-hosted with Singapore, not the Philippines.

Statement 1 is correct — the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 inserted Article 279A, creating the GST Council, and GST came into force on 1 July 2017. Statement 2 is correct too, since the Union Finance Minister chairs it, with the Union MoS (Finance) and the Finance/Taxation Ministers of all States as members. Statement 3 is correct as well — the Centre's vote is one-third and all States together two-thirds of votes cast, and a decision needs three-fourths of the weighted votes; the Council takes up Next-Gen GST process reforms on 7 October 2026. All three statements hold, so there is no need to assume one must be false.

Statement-I is correct — about 99.6% of the broad-gauge network is electrified, and Indian Railways aims to be a net-zero carbon emitter by 2030. Statement-II is correct too, since natural gas has a lower carbon content than diesel, which is why Indian Railways' first LNG–diesel dual-fuel DEMU (40% LNG, 60% diesel), flagged off from Sabarmati, cuts emissions. But Statement-II does NOT explain Statement-I — electrification is about replacing diesel with electric traction, not about LNG's emissions, and LNG matters for DEMU trainsets that electric locomotives cannot haul; the two are independent facts that merely appear in the same news story.

Statement 1 is correct — the Ken–Betwa link (Madhya Pradesh–Uttar Pradesh) is the first link under the National Perspective Plan (1980), which identified 30 links, 16 Peninsular and 14 Himalayan. Statement 2 is correct too, since the 2022 amendment added powers for the Centre to regulate or prohibit the import, trade, possession or proliferation of invasive alien species. Statement 3 is incorrect — Target 6 of the GBF (2022) seeks to reduce the introduction and establishment of invasive species by at least 50% by 2030, not eliminate all of them; an ATREE study warns that river links could become "ecological highways" for invasives.

Statement 1 is incorrect — rabies is a viral zoonosis (a lyssavirus), almost always fatal once symptoms appear but fully preventable by prompt post-exposure prophylaxis; India's NAPRE (2021) targets zero dog-mediated human rabies deaths by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect too — WHO estimates India accounts for about 35% of global rabies deaths (about 59,000 a year worldwide), not half; an ICMR-NIE study estimates 5,726 deaths a year in India, far above surveillance counts of 54 in 2024.

Statement 1 is correct — built in 1213 CE under Ganapati Deva by his general Recharla Rudra, the temple is at Palampet, Mulugu district, Telangana, and rests on a sandbox foundation with lightweight "floating bricks". Statement 2 is correct too, since it is dedicated to Rudreshwara (Shiva) but popularly known after its sculptor, Ramappa, which is rare among Indian temples. Statement 3 is incorrect — the 2021 inscription covers only the Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple, not the Thousand Pillar Temple or Warangal Fort; a proposed opencast coal mine about 5 km downstream has raised concerns about the temple and Ramappa Lake.

Option (d) is correct — the Australia–Tuvalu Falepili Union (2023) offers Tuvaluans a pathway to live in Australia, alongside security cooperation, as Tuvalu's low-lying atolls face sea-level rise and a 2024 marine heatwave is estimated to have killed about 99.9% of the coral that built its islands. Options (a), (b), and (c) are NOT the Falepili treaty — New Zealand runs a separate Pacific Access Category visa ballot that includes Tuvalu, but the Falepili treaty is with Australia, and Fiji is merely hosting the Pacific pre-COP meeting before the UN climate conference in Turkey.