Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027
- The Rules have been framed under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024, which replaced the Aircraft Act, 1934.
- The Directorate General of Civil Aviation acquired statutory status for the first time under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024.
- The Rules recognise fractional ownership of an aircraft, provided responsibility for its operation and maintenance is clearly assigned.
Statement 1 is correct — the Bharatiya Vayuyan Niyam, 2026 are framed under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Adhiniyam, 2024, which replaced the Aircraft Act, 1934 from 1 January 2025, and the new Rules replace the Aircraft Rules, 1937 from 1 January 2027. Statement 2 is incorrect — the DGCA, together with BCAS and AAIB, became a statutory body through the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020, and the 2024 Act only retained that status. Statement 3 is correct — the Rules recognise fractional ownership, where several owners share one aircraft, provided responsibility for operation and maintenance rests with an identified entity.
- The Cape Town Convention, which protects the interests of lessors and financiers of aircraft, was adopted under the joint auspices of UNIDROIT and ICAO.
- India became a party to the Cape Town Convention only after enacting the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Act, 2025.
Statement 1 is correct — the Convention on International Interests in Mobile Equipment and its Aircraft Protocol were adopted at Cape Town in 2001, at a diplomatic conference held jointly by UNIDROIT and ICAO. Statement 2 is incorrect — India acceded in 2008, and the Protection of Interests in Aircraft Objects Act, 2025 only gave the Convention force in domestic law; under India’s dualist approach, accession can precede the implementing Act by years. The new aviation Rules require eligible IDERA deregistration requests to be processed within five working days.
- Cobalt is produced mostly as a by-product of copper and nickel mining rather than from standalone cobalt mines.
- The list of 30 critical minerals identified by India’s Ministry of Mines in 2023 includes the fertiliser minerals phosphorus and potash.
- Lithium iron phosphate (LFP) batteries use neither nickel nor cobalt in their cathodes.
- Indonesia has banned the export of raw nickel ore to promote domestic processing.
All four statements are correct. Most cobalt is recovered as a by-product of copper and nickel, which is why the new ₹2,814 crore capex scheme expects cobalt from its nickel plants, and the Ministry of Mines’ June 2023 list of 30 critical minerals includes phosphorus and potash alongside lithium, nickel, cobalt, graphite and rare earths. The LFP cathode is lithium iron phosphate, with no nickel or cobalt, unlike NMC (nickel-manganese-cobalt) cathodes. Indonesia’s nickel-ore export ban took effect in 2020, and the country now mines more than half the world’s nickel.
- Statement-I: The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 empowered the Central Government to auction mineral concessions for specified critical and strategic minerals.
- Statement-II: The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 removed lithium from the list of atomic minerals.
Statement-I is correct — the 2023 amendment created Part D of the First Schedule, listing 24 critical and strategic minerals for which the Centre conducts auctions, with auction revenue going to the States. Statement-II is correct — it removed six minerals (lithium, beryllium, niobium, titanium, tantalum and zirconium) from the atomic-minerals list, opening them to private exploration and mining. However, the Centre’s auction power flows from the new Part D category, most of whose minerals were never atomic minerals, so Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
- Double-fortified salt, fortified with iodine and iron, was developed by the ICMR–National Institute of Nutrition, Hyderabad.
- Absorption of non-haem iron is inhibited by phytates and polyphenols but enhanced by vitamin C.
- Hepcidin, a hormone produced by the liver, reduces iron absorption during infection or inflammation.
All three statements are correct. DFS was developed by ICMR–NIN, Hyderabad, building on India’s iodised-salt programme (National Goitre Control Programme, 1962). Phytates (cereals, millets, pulses), polyphenols (tea, coffee) and calcium inhibit non-haem iron absorption while vitamin C enhances it, and haem iron from meat and fish is absorbed far better. Hepcidin, made in the liver, rises during infection and inflammation and blocks iron uptake, which is why fortification works least well where infection burdens are highest.
- The Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy follows a ‘6×6×6’ framework of six target groups, six interventions and six institutional mechanisms.
- According to NFHS-5 (2019–21), anaemia prevalence among children aged 6–59 months was lower than that recorded in NFHS-4 (2015–16).
Statement 1 is correct — Anaemia Mukt Bharat (2018, under POSHAN Abhiyaan) uses the 6×6×6 design, and the op-ed refers to a revised 7×7×7 approach. Statement 2 is incorrect — child anaemia rose from 58.6% in NFHS-4 to 67.1% in NFHS-5, and among women aged 15–49 it rose from 53.1% to 57.0%, which is why the op-ed questions single-nutrient solutions.
- Article 6.2 of the Paris Agreement allows countries to transfer mitigation outcomes bilaterally as Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs).
- The Clean Development Mechanism was established under the Paris Agreement.
- India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme derives its legal basis from the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022.
- A corresponding adjustment requires the host country to add a transferred emission reduction to its own NDC achievement.
Statement 1 is correct — Article 6.2 covers cooperative approaches involving ITMOs, while Article 6.4 sets up a UN-supervised crediting mechanism and 6.8 covers non-market approaches. Statement 2 is incorrect — the CDM was created under the Kyoto Protocol (1997), alongside Joint Implementation and international emissions trading. Statement 3 is correct — the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022 empowered the Centre to specify a carbon credit trading scheme, and the CCTS was notified in 2023 and is administered by the BEE. Statement 4 is incorrect — the host country must subtract, not add, the transferred reduction from its own NDC accounting to prevent double counting.
CBAM charges importers for the emissions embedded in goods such as iron and steel, aluminium, cement, fertilisers and hydrogen; a carbon price already paid at origin is credited only if verified, otherwise default values apply, and the UK CBAM follows in January 2027. Option (b) describes the Article 6.4 crediting mechanism and (d) the Loss and Damage Fund agreed at COP27 (2022), while (a) describes no existing mechanism.
- Article 243F empowers State legislatures to prescribe disqualifications for membership of panchayats.
- ‘Population control and family planning’ is an entry in the State List of the Seventh Schedule.
- In Javed v. State of Haryana (2003), the Supreme Court upheld a law disqualifying persons with more than two living children from panchayat office.
Statement 1 is correct — Article 243F, inserted by the 73rd Amendment (1992), allows disqualification by or under a State law, the basis for two-child rules. Statement 2 is incorrect — it is Entry 20A of the Concurrent List, inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976). Statement 3 is correct — a three-judge Bench upheld Section 175(1)(q) of the Haryana Panchayati Raj Act, 1994; on 4 November 2026 the Court said such laws have lost relevance as TFR has fallen to 1.9 and referred Javed to a larger Bench.
- Statement-I: The UN Mission for the Referendum in Western Sahara (MINURSO) ceased operations in November 2026 without its mandate being renewed.
- Statement-II: The mandate of a UN peacekeeping mission lapses unless renewed by the Security Council, where any permanent member can block a resolution.
Statement-I is correct — MINURSO, set up in 1991 to organise a self-determination referendum, ceased operations on 1 November 2026 after 35 years. Statement-II is correct — peacekeeping mandates are time-bound Security Council decisions, and any of the P5 can block renewal with a veto. The mission ended precisely because no renewal could be adopted — Russia vetoed a US draft and a rival Russian draft was voted down — so Statement-II explains Statement-I.
- Under the POCSO Act, 2012, Special Courts are to complete the trial, as far as possible, within one year of taking cognizance of the offence.
- The scheme for Fast-Track Special Courts for rape and POCSO cases is a Central Sector Scheme fully funded by the Union Government.
Statement 1 is correct — Section 35 of the POCSO Act requires the child’s evidence to be recorded within 30 days and the trial to be completed, as far as possible, within one year, while Section 28 provides for Special Courts. Statement 2 is incorrect — it is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme: of the ₹3,788.04 crore outlay to 2031, the Centre bears ₹2,353.15 crore from the Nirbhaya Fund and States/UTs ₹1,434.89 crore.
- The World Bank’s international extreme-poverty line, as revised in 2025, is $4.20 per person per day in 2021 PPP terms.
- The World Bank’s prosperity gap measures the average factor by which individual incomes must rise to reach a benchmark of $28 per day.
- The Rangarajan Committee estimated the share of India’s population below the poverty line in 2011-12 at 29.5%.
Statement 1 is incorrect — the extreme-poverty line is $3.00/day (2021 PPP), while $4.20 is the lower-middle-income line and $8.30 the upper-middle-income line. Statement 2 is correct — the prosperity gap averages $28 divided by each person’s income, and India’s score of 4.9 means incomes must rise almost fivefold on average. Statement 3 is correct — Rangarajan (2014) estimated 29.5% for 2011-12, against 21.9% under the Tendulkar method.
- Rio Negro — Left (northern) bank
- Madeira — Right (southern) bank
- Xingu — Left (northern) bank
Pair 1 is correct — the Rio Negro drains the north-west and joins the main stream near Manaus, at the “Meeting of Waters”. Pair 2 is correct — the Madeira, the Amazon’s largest tributary, flows from the Bolivian Andes past Porto Velho and joins from the south. Pair 3 is incorrect — the Xingu rises on the Brazilian Highlands (Mato Grosso) and joins from the south, near the river’s mouth; rivers from the Guiana Highlands or northern Andes join from the north, while those draining the Brazilian Shield or Bolivian Andes join from the south.
- CERT-In functions as the national nodal agency for cyber incident response under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- Protection of critical information infrastructure is entrusted to CERT-In under Section 70A of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
- CERT-In functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
- CERT-In’s 2022 directions required specified cyber incidents to be reported within six hours of being noticed.
Statement 1 is correct — Section 70B (inserted in 2008) designates CERT-In for incident response. Statement 2 is incorrect — Section 70A designates the National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC), under the NTRO, for critical information infrastructure. Statement 3 is correct — CERT-In has functioned under MeitY since 2004. Statement 4 is correct — the April 2022 directions set a six-hour reporting window and 180-day log retention, and the November 2026 AI security audit guidelines build on them.
- Statement-I: Under the revised Agnipath framework approved in November 2026, all Agniveers will be automatically absorbed as regular soldiers after six years of service.
- Statement-II: Under the original Agnipath scheme, up to 25% of each batch of Agniveers was eligible for retention in the regular cadre after four years.
Statement-I is incorrect — the 25% retained on merit continue as before, while the remaining 75% get a two-year extension (higher pay, enhanced Seva Nidhi, seniority benefits) after which they become eligible for consideration, subject to willingness and selection criteria, so absorption is not automatic. Statement-II is correct — the June 2022 scheme provided entry at 17.5–21 years, a four-year term, retention of up to 25%, and a tax-free Seva Nidhi for those exiting.
