Current Affairs Quiz 26 August 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

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Q1
With reference to the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council (DGHC) and the Gorkha Territorial Administration (GTA), consider the following statements:
  • The DGHC was established in 1988 as a result of agitation led by Subhas Ghising's Gorkha National Liberation Front.
  • The GTA was set up in 2011 through a constitutional amendment to replace the DGHC.
  • The committee constituted by the MHA in August 2026 for a 'permanent political solution' is chaired by former Deputy NSA Pankaj Kumar Singh.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B1 and 3 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is wrong. The DGHC was created in 1988 following agitation by Subhas Ghising's GNLF, who coined the term "Gorkhaland," and the MHA constituted a high-level committee chaired by Pankaj Kumar Singh, former Deputy NSA and current interlocutor, after the Siliguri meeting on 22 August 2026. The GTA was actually established in 2011 through a tripartite Memorandum of Understanding between the Centre, the West Bengal government, and the GJM, not through a constitutional amendment, which means it rests on an executive arrangement rather than a Sixth Schedule or constitutional basis, making it more fragile than a constitutionally entrenched body. Whenever a sub-national body is described as created by "constitutional amendment," it is worth verifying, since many such bodies are actually executive creations.

Q2
Which of the following constitutional provisions is most directly relevant to the formal creation of a separate State of Gorkhaland out of West Bengal?
  • AArticle 3, which requires Parliament to pass a law with the view (not consent) of the concerned state legislature
  • BArticle 371, which grants special provisions and can be invoked to carve out new states in northeastern India
  • CArticle 244A, which allows the creation of an autonomous state within Assam only
  • DThe Sixth Schedule, which enables Parliament to form autonomous districts with legislative powers in tribal areas
Answer: (a)

Article 3 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to form a new state by separation of territory from any existing state, and the procedure requires the President to refer the bill to the concerned state legislature for expressing its views, but the state's consent is not required, since Parliament can override that view. Article 371 provides special provisions for specific northeastern and other states rather than a mechanism to create new ones, Article 244A specifically pertains to an autonomous state within Assam's Sixth Schedule areas, and the Sixth Schedule creates autonomous districts or regions with limited self-governance but does not form full states. Many aspirants confuse "consent," which is not required, with "view," which is required, of the state legislature under Article 3, and this distinction has been tested by UPSC before.

Q3
With reference to the e-Shram Portal, consider the following statements:
  • It was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) and creates the first Aadhaar-authenticated National Database of Unorganised Workers (NDUW).
  • A registered worker is issued a 12-digit Universal Account Number (UAN) that is separate from the EPFO's UAN.
  • Workers who are members of ESIC or EPFO are eligible to register on e-Shram.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is wrong. e-Shram was developed by the NIC and creates the NDUW, the country's first Aadhaar-authenticated national database of unorganised workers, and its UAN is a distinct 12-digit number for unorganised workers, separate from the EPFO's Universal Account Number used in the formal sector. Eligibility actually excludes EPFO or ESIC members, since the portal specifically targets workers outside the formal social security architecture, the opposite of what Statement 3 claims. e-Shram is for the un-organised, so if a worker is already covered under EPFO or ESIC, they fall outside its scope.

Q4
The e-Shram One-Stop Solution, launched in October 2024, integrates which of the following services on a single platform for unorganised workers?
  • AWelfare, employment, skilling and pension services only
  • BWelfare, employment and skilling services, but not pension
  • CPension and insurance services only, excluding employment and skilling
  • DCredit and microfinance services along with welfare and employment
Answer: (a)

The e-Shram One-Stop Solution, launched on 21 October 2024, integrates four streams on one platform: welfare, covering 15 social security and welfare schemes, employment through the National Career Service portal, skilling via the Skill India Digital Hub and apprenticeship, and pension through PM-SYM. Option (b) is wrong because PM-SYM pension access is explicitly included, while options (c) and (d) are incorrect since they omit employment or skilling and add microfinance or credit, which are not part of e-Shram's scope. It helps to memorise the full set together: Welfare, Employment, Skilling, and Pension.

Q5
With reference to Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India, consider the following statements:
  • RRBs were established under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee.
  • The ownership of an RRB is shared between the Central Government (50%), Sponsor Bank (35%) and State Government (15%).
  • As of FY 2025-26, RRBs posted a record aggregate net profit of ₹10,176 crore with total business exceeding ₹13.5 lakh crore.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. RRBs were established under the RRB Act, 1976, recommended by the Narasimham Working Group on Rural Credit, the 50:35:15 ownership pattern between the Centre, Sponsor Bank, and State is the statutory formula, and PIB confirmed a record net profit of ₹10,176 crore with total business crossing ₹13.5 lakh crore in FY 2025-26. RRBs have also been progressively consolidated from 196 at their peak to 43 currently. UPSC occasionally places all-correct questions to catch aspirants who assume "all three" is a default wrong answer, so it is worth verifying each statement independently before dismissing such an option.

Q6
The National Shipping Board's five-point roadmap discussed at 'Sagar Samvad' aims to add 100 vessels to India's merchant fleet. Which of the following is NOT one of the five elements of this roadmap?
  • AAccess to competitive financing for fleet acquisition
  • BAssured cargo support including right of first refusal on government cargo
  • CMandatory flag-of-origin requirement for all bilateral trade
  • DRegulatory streamlining and improved ease of doing business
Answer: (c)

The five elements of the NSB roadmap are fiscal reforms, assured cargo support such as right of first refusal on government cargo like fertilisers, coal, and food, access to competitive financing, regulatory streamlining, and ease of doing business. "Mandatory flag-of-origin requirement for all bilateral trade" is not part of the roadmap and is a fabricated element, since such mandates are extremely rare in modern trade law and would violate WTO principles, with the roadmap instead relying on incentives like assured cargo preference rather than mandatory requirements. For "which is NOT" questions, it helps to eliminate the three options that can be confirmed and treat the remainder as the answer.

Q7
With reference to India's macroeconomic indicators in July 2026 as reported in the RBI August Bulletin, consider the following statements:
  • Headline CPI inflation increased to 4.45% year-on-year, driven primarily by food and beverages.
  • Core inflation increased sharply, confirming broad demand-side price pressures.
  • Merchandise exports grew at a four-month high in July 2026.
  • A1 and 3 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 2 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is wrong. CPI inflation rose to 4.45% year-on-year in July 2026, up from 4.38% in June, driven by food and beverages including meat, eggs, and spices, and merchandise exports grew at a four-month high within FY 2026-27. The RBI Bulletin actually stated that core inflation remained unchanged, confirming supply-side rather than demand-side price pressures, the opposite of Statement 2's claim. Rising headline inflation alongside stable core inflation signals a supply shock rather than demand overheating, a crucial monetary policy distinction, since it limits the RBI's ability to address the problem through rate hikes.

Q8
With reference to the H1N1 influenza virus and India's influenza surveillance system, consider the following statements:
  • The H1N1 pdm09 strain that caused the 2009 pandemic has since become a seasonal influenza virus.
  • India's influenza sentinel surveillance system currently operates through a network of 73 hospitals tracking multiple respiratory viruses.
  • H1N1 and H3N2 are subtypes of Influenza B virus, classified by their surface proteins.
  • A1 and 3 only
  • B1 and 2 only
  • C2 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is wrong. H1N1 pdm09 emerged in 2009, caused the pandemic WHO declared that June, and has since become endemic as a seasonal influenza virus, and ICMR confirmed India operates 73 sentinel hospitals tracking Influenza A (H1N1, H3N2), Influenza B, SARS-CoV-2, human metapneumovirus, adenovirus, and parainfluenza. H1N1 and H3N2 are actually subtypes of Influenza A, not Influenza B, since "H" and "N" stand for Haemagglutinin and Neuraminidase, the surface proteins that classify Influenza A subtypes, while Influenza B instead has lineages, Yamagata and Victoria, rather than H/N subtypes. Only Influenza A has subtypes ranging from H1-H18 and N1-N11, while Influenza B is classified by lineage instead.

Q9
With reference to India's CSIR-NAL and its recent development of micro and small gas turbine engines for unmanned aerial systems, which of the following statements is correct?
  • ACSIR-NAL is located in Pune and operates under the Ministry of Science and Technology
  • BCSIR-NAL is located in Bengaluru and is known for developing the Saras light transport aircraft
  • CCSIR-NAL is located in Hyderabad and operates under the Ministry of Defence
  • DCSIR-NAL is located in Bengaluru and operates under the Department of Space
Answer: (b)

CSIR-NAL, the National Aerospace Laboratories, is located in Bengaluru and operates under the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, which falls under the Ministry of Science and Technology, and it is best known for developing the Saras light transport aircraft, India's first domestically developed civil aircraft. It is not under the Ministry of Defence or the Department of Space, and is not located in Pune or Hyderabad. It helps to fix the full chain: NAL equals National Aerospace Laboratories equals Bengaluru equals CSIR equals the Ministry of Science and Technology, distinct from DRDO labs under the Ministry of Defence or ISRO centres under the Department of Space.

Q10
With reference to the 2026 monsoon season and climate modelling, consider the following statements:
  • Climate models predicted the 2026 El Niño during early spring and the prediction has broadly held true.
  • Models' ability to predict the all-India monsoon rainfall (AIMR) at the seasonal level is approximately 60%, lower than El Niño predictability at ~80%.
  • The 2026 monsoon recorded a June rainfall that was 40% above the long-period average, followed by a July recovery.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 flips the actual direction. Models predicted the 2026 El Niño during early spring and it evolved robustly by summer, broadly validating the forecasts, and El Niño predictability stands at roughly 80% while AIMR seasonal prediction accuracy is lower, at approximately 60%. June 2026 rainfall was actually 40% below normal, a deficit rather than a surplus, with July instead recovering to about 1% above normal, the key sub-seasonal volatility the source article analyses. The 2026 monsoon pattern worth remembering is a June collapse of roughly -40% followed by a July recovery of about +1%, showing that models struggled with the sub-seasonal test even though they got the broader El Niño call right.

Q11
With reference to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), which of the following statements is correct?
  • AUNCCD is one of the three 'Rio Conventions', along with UNFCCC and the Convention on Biological Diversity, and its secretariat is in Bonn, Germany
  • BUNCCD was adopted in 1992 at the Rio Earth Summit and its secretariat is in Geneva, Switzerland
  • CIndia has not yet ratified UNCCD and participates only as an observer at its Conferences of Parties
  • DUNCCD's CoP17 was held in 2026 in Nairobi, Kenya, at the UNEP headquarters
Answer: (a)

UNCCD, adopted in 1994, is one of the three Rio Conventions alongside UNFCCC and the CBD, and its secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany, with India having ratified it in 1996. UNCCD was not adopted directly at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, as it was actually adopted separately in Paris in 1994 as an outcome of Rio, making the secretariat location in Geneva in option (b) also incorrect. CoP17 was actually held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia in 2026, not Nairobi. A useful mnemonic for the Rio Conventions is UNFCCC for climate, CBD for biodiversity, and UNCCD for desertification, all linked to the 1992 Rio Summit conceptually but adopted or signed on different specific dates.

Q12
With reference to ICGS Ajit, handed over to the Indian Coast Guard by Goa Shipyard Limited in August 2026, consider the following statements:
  • ICGS Ajit is a Fast Patrol Vessel with more than 65% indigenous content, built by Goa Shipyard Limited.
  • The vessel is powered by twin marine diesel engines with Controllable Pitch Propellers (CPP), a first for this class of vessel.
  • Goa Shipyard Limited is a Schedule B Defence Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Defence.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 uses an outdated classification. ICGS Ajit is a 51.43 m Fast Patrol Vessel with over 65% indigenous content, and it uses Controllable Pitch Propellers driven by twin marine diesel engines, explicitly described as a first-of-its-kind feature in this FPV class. Goa Shipyard Limited was actually upgraded from Schedule B to Schedule A Defence PSU status in early 2026, so it is no longer a Schedule B DPSU as Statement 3 claims. It is worth remembering that GSL is now a Schedule A DPSU following its 2026 upgrade, since UPSC tests current facts and outdated institutional classifications are a common trap in defence and PSU questions.

Q13
Based on Lokniti-CSDS survey data analysed in the context of the 2026 elections, which of the following statements best describes the nature of youth voter behaviour in India?
  • AYouth turnout is uniformly lower than the state average across all states, reflecting widespread political apathy among 18–25-year-olds
  • BYouth voters consistently support the winning party or alliance, making them a reliable indicator of electoral outcomes
  • CYouth turnout and party preferences vary sharply by state and age sub-group, and young voters do not always vote for the winning party
  • DThe preferences of 18–21-year-olds and 22–25-year-olds are always identical, making 'youth' a reliable single demographic category
Answer: (c)

The Lokniti-CSDS data explicitly establishes that youth turnout varies sharply across states, low in Bihar at 41% and Uttar Pradesh at 51% among 18-21-year-olds, but high in West Bengal at 93% and Tamil Nadu at 90%, and young voters backed the losing Congress in Uttarakhand 2022 even though the BJP still won, showing that youth do not reliably back winners. The preferences of 18-21-year-olds and 22-25-year-olds often differ, as seen in Tamil Nadu 2026 where the TVK secured 69% support among 18-21-year-olds but noticeably less among older cohorts, meaning there is explicitly no uniform "youth vote." India's youth vote is diverse, volatile, and state-specific rather than a single monolithic category, and options (a), (b), and (d) each make sweeping generalisations the underlying data explicitly refutes.

Q14
With reference to the PRAGATI platform, consider the following statements:
  • PRAGATI stands for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation and was first launched in March 2015.
  • The 53rd PRAGATI meeting reviewed six infrastructure projects across nine states with a cumulative investment of more than ₹30,000 crore.
  • PRAGATI integrates data from CPGRAMS and the Project Monitoring Group to enable real-time project review.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. PRAGATI, Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation, was launched in March 2015 and is chaired by the Prime Minister, the 53rd meeting reviewed six infrastructure projects in the Railway, Road, and Power sectors across nine states with a cumulative cost exceeding ₹30,000 crore, and PRAGATI integrates data from CPGRAMS, the grievance redressal system, and the Project Monitoring Group for real-time review. UPSC uses the all-correct pattern to penalise aspirants who assume such combinations must be traps, so each statement is worth verifying independently. It helps to fix PRAGATI's core facts together: launched March 2015, integrates CPGRAMS and PMG, and is a PM-chaired ICT review platform.

Q15
A peer-reviewed study found that India's cost to launch one kilogram of payload to low earth orbit (LEO) in 2025 was approximately $13,302. Which of the following comparisons correctly reflects the relative launch costs cited in the study?
  • AIndia's cost was higher than China ($5,809/kg) but lower than the United States ($3,225/kg) and the global average ($3,868/kg)
  • BIndia's cost was higher than China ($5,809/kg), higher than the global average ($3,868/kg), and higher than the United States ($3,225/kg)
  • CIndia's cost was lower than China but higher than the global average and the United States
  • DIndia's cost was the highest globally, exceeding all major space-faring nations including Japan and Russia
Answer: (b)

The Economics Letters study by Terzi and Nicoli found India's LEO launch cost at $13,302/kg in 2025, higher than China's $5,809/kg, higher than Japan, Russia, and Europe, higher than the United States' $3,225/kg, and well above the global average of $3,868/kg, making India costlier than every comparator listed. Option (a) wrongly states India is lower than the US when the opposite is true, by nearly four times, option (c) is likewise incorrect on direction, and option (d) overstates the claim, since the study compares specific nations rather than all spacefaring nations globally. The full ranking worth remembering is India at $13,302, then China at $5,809, then the global average at $3,868, then the USA at $3,225, with India's high cost partly explained by only 5 launches in 2025 against a projected 30.

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