Current Affairs Quiz 27 August 2026

Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027

Score: 0 / 0
Q1
Consider the following statements regarding the August 26, 2026 flash flood in Nepal's Rasuwa district:
  • Scientists from ICIMOD suggest the flood may have been triggered by an ice-rock avalanche entering the Lende Khola, a tributary of the Bhote Koshi River.
  • Water levels on the Trishuli river at Galchchi reportedly rose by nine metres within thirty minutes, indicating a dam-burst-type release.
  • The flood affected approximately one-eighth of Nepal's total installed electricity capacity.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. ICIMOD's preliminary assessment based on video footage and field data suggested that a large volume of ice and rock debris may have entered the Lende Khola, a tributary of the Bhote Koshi, hydrological observations showed the Trishuli at Galchchi rose about nine metres in thirty minutes, a signature of dam-burst flooding rather than gradual rainfall runoff, and Nepal's energy ministry reported roughly 430 MW of electricity supply disrupted, about one-eighth of the country's installed capacity. A nine-metre rise within half an hour sounds implausible for rainfall-driven floods but is characteristic of ice-dam or landslide-dam burst events, which is the key discriminator between this type of event and an ordinary monsoon flood.

Q2
The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) is headquartered in which city, and how many Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) countries does it serve?
  • ANew Delhi; 6 countries
  • BKathmandu; 8 countries
  • CThimphu; 7 countries
  • DBeijing; 9 countries
Answer: (b)

ICIMOD is headquartered in Kathmandu, Nepal, and serves eight Hindu Kush Himalaya countries — Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan — as an intergovernmental body and regional knowledge-development centre for the HKH region. Its 8-country membership is frequently confused with SAARC, which also has 8 members but a different composition; the HKH 8 comprises the 6 SAARC members minus Sri Lanka and Maldives, plus Myanmar and China. The "6 countries" distractor is plausible if one forgets Afghanistan and Myanmar, while "9 countries" is a straightforward fabrication.

Q3
With reference to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs), which of the following statements is/are correct?
  • A GLOF requires the prior formation of a glacial lake — created when meltwater is impounded by ice, moraine, or bedrock — before the dam failure.
  • An ice-rock avalanche that directly blocks a river and then fails constitutes a GLOF.
  • The Poiqu watershed (Bhote Koshi–Sun Koshi) has been identified by ICIMOD as highly prone to GLOFs.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while Statement 2 is a definition-substitution trap. A GLOF specifically involves a pre-existing glacial lake whose natural dam, made of ice, moraine, or bedrock, fails suddenly, and ICIMOD has specifically identified the Poiqu watershed, covering the Bhote Koshi-Sun Koshi system, as highly prone to GLOFs. An ice-rock avalanche that directly blocks a river and then fails is instead classified as an "ice-avalanche-triggered flood" or "landslide dam burst," which does not require a pre-existing glacial lake and is technically distinct from a GLOF, with the August 2026 Nepal event suspected to be of this type rather than a classic GLOF, though it shares GLOF-like features. A GLOF requires a glacial lake to exist first — no lake means it is not a classic GLOF, however similar the flooding pattern may look.

Q4
Consider the following statements regarding the OBC creamy layer policy in India:
  • The 1993 Office Memorandum on creamy layer excluded income from salary and agricultural sources from the income/wealth test.
  • The 2004 DoPT clarification extended the income test to include salary income of employees in PSUs and the private sector.
  • The Supreme Court's March 2026 judgment held that income alone can be the sole criterion for determining OBC creamy layer status.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The 1993 OM excluded salary and agricultural income from the creamy layer test, meaning government servants' and farmers' children were not subjected to the income criterion, and the 2004 DoPT clarification added PSU and private sector salary income to the test, creating an asymmetry. Statement 3 directly reverses the Supreme Court's position, since the Court's judgment of 11 March 2026 actually ruled that income cannot be the sole criterion for determining OBC creamy layer status and struck down the income-only approach. Whenever a Supreme Court judgment question uses words like "sole," "only," or "exclusive," it is worth reading them carefully, since the 2026 ruling held that income alone is insufficient and social advancement must also be considered.

Q5
The 'rules of the game' doctrine in Indian service law, as reaffirmed by the Supreme Court in Tej Prakash Pathak v. Rajasthan High Court (2024), holds that:
  • AThe government may revise selection criteria at any stage of the recruitment process to improve diversity and equity.
  • BCriteria governing a selection process cannot be altered by authorities in the middle of or after the process has commenced.
  • CCourts may retrospectively apply new selection criteria to completed examinations to correct constitutional discrimination.
  • DOnly the Union Public Service Commission has the power to modify examination criteria once results are declared.
Answer: (b)

The "rules of the game" doctrine holds that once a selection or recruitment process begins, the criteria governing it cannot be changed midway or after it concludes, protecting candidates who participated on the basis of rules in force at the time. In Tej Prakash Pathak v. Rajasthan HC (2024), the Supreme Court held that the criteria for selection cannot be altered by the authorities concerned in the middle of or after the selection process has commenced, while options (a), (c), and (d) are all incorrect. Option (c) sounds like a plausible fairness argument for retrospective application of corrective verdicts, precisely the tension the Centre raised in the CSE-2025 case, but the doctrine actually protects process integrity rather than outcome correctness — once the game starts, the rules are frozen.

Q6
Consider the following statements regarding India's disaster finance framework after the August 2026 notification adding heatwaves to the list of notified natural calamities:
  • States can now use the full State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) allocation for heatwave response without the earlier 10% ceiling.
  • The State Disaster Mitigation Fund (SDMF) can be used for longer-term risk reduction measures such as cooling shelters and early warning systems.
  • The 16th Finance Commission recommended ₹2.04 lakh crore for State disaster funds for the period 2026-27 to 2030-31.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. Before the notification, states could declare heatwaves a "local disaster" but were limited to 10% of their annual SDRF allocation, and the new MHA notification removes this ceiling entirely, while the SDMF is specifically designed for longer-term mitigation investments such as cooling shelters and heat early warning systems, distinct from the SDRF's role covering immediate response and relief. The 16th Finance Commission recommended ₹2.04 lakh crore for State disaster funds over 2026-27 to 2030-31, approximately 28% more than the previous Finance Commission's allocation. Before August 2026, heatwave relief was capped at 10% of SDRF; after the notification, the full pool became available, putting heatwaves on the same footing as floods and cyclones.

Q7
Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the Finance Commission recommend arrangements for disaster management funds?
  • AArticle 275
  • BArticle 282
  • CArticle 280
  • DArticle 293
Answer: (c)

Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the Finance Commission, which is appointed by the President every five years, or earlier, to make recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States, grants-in-aid, and other financial matters including disaster management fund allocations. Article 275 deals with grants from the Union to certain states, Article 282 covers discretionary grants, and Article 293 relates to borrowing by states, and since Articles 275, 280, and 282 are all Finance Commission-adjacent, they are frequently confused with one another. Article 280 is best remembered as the Finance Commission's constitutional home — 280 equals FC.

Q8
Consider the following statements about the Arctic tundra ecosystem and climate change:
  • The Arctic is warming approximately four times faster than the global average, particularly during winter months.
  • Shrubification refers to the process by which taller, darker shrubs move into previously tundra-dominated areas, absorbing more solar radiation than snow-covered ground.
  • The spread of shrubs in the Arctic reduces methane emissions by insulating the permafrost and inhibiting microbial activity during winter.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 reverses the actual mechanism. Arctic amplification, the disproportionate warming of the Arctic, occurs at roughly four times the global average rate, especially in winter, and shrubification is the process by which taller, darker shrubs encroach on tundra, replacing low-lying snow-covered vegetation and absorbing more solar energy due to lower albedo. Shrubs actually trap more snow around their bases, which insulates the ground and warms the permafrost, increasing rather than reducing microbial activity and methane release during winter, since the additional methane release is a positive feedback mechanism accelerating warming. The word "insulating" in Statement 3 is technically accurate, but insulation keeps the ground warmer, not colder, so more snow trapped by shrubs means a warmer ground, more active microbes in winter, and more methane rather than less.

Q9
The Arctic region is scientifically defined as the area where the average temperature for the warmest month (July) is below 10°C. This boundary is known as the:
  • AArctic Circle (66.5°N latitude line)
  • B10°C July isotherm
  • CPermafrost boundary
  • DTreeline
Answer: (b)

The scientific definition of the Arctic region uses the 10°C July isotherm, the line connecting all points where the warmest month averages below 10°C, which corresponds roughly to the treeline where trees can no longer grow and serves as a better ecological boundary than the Arctic Circle. The Arctic Circle at 66.5°N is instead an astronomical boundary marking where the sun doesn't set in midsummer, not the scientific or ecological definition of the Arctic, and permafrost and treeline are related but distinct boundaries from the isotherm itself. The Arctic Circle marks an astronomical sun-angle boundary, while the 10°C July isotherm is the ecological or scientific definition of the Arctic — the two are commonly confused.

Q10
Consider the following statements regarding the recently highlighted Saraswati idol (catalogue no. 78) in Ujjain Museum:
  • The idol was found at Manasa town in Neemuch district and dates to the second century CE Malava era.
  • The idol depicts Goddess Saraswati holding a vakra-veena — an arched, harp-like string instrument.
  • It is the oldest Saraswati idol found in Madhya Pradesh with a musical instrument.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. The idol was found at Manasa town in Neemuch district and was dated by a comprehensive iconographic survey of MP museums to the second century CE Malava era, it shows Saraswati holding a vakra-veena, the curved or arched harp-like instrument distinct from the later plucked-lute veena more familiar today, and the MP Archaeology Department's survey confirmed it is the oldest Saraswati idol discovered in the state with a musical instrument. Confusion between "Malava era" (2nd century CE) and "Maurya era" or "Gupta era" is common, but the Malavas were actually a pre-Gupta warrior community of central India whose cultural zone centred on Mandsaur and Neemuch, connecting to Alexander-era sources such as Quintus Curtius Rufus.

Q11
Gold coins of Gupta emperor Samudragupta, held at the British Museum, depict him playing a curved harp-like instrument. The British Museum describes this instrument as:
  • ASitar
  • BSaung-gauk
  • CLyre/veena
  • DMridangam
Answer: (c)

The British Museum describes the instrument on Samudragupta's gold coins, dated roughly 330-376 CE, as a "lyre/veena," a curved, harp-like string instrument, the same vakra-veena tradition evidenced in the second century CE Malava Saraswati idol. The saung-gauk is the living arched harp of Myanmar, descended from this same ancient Indian tradition, but it is not the British Museum's description of Samudragupta's instrument, while the sitar and mridangam are instruments of a much later era with no connection to Samudragupta's coins. The saung-gauk is plausible since it appears in the same news story as part of the harp lineage, but the question specifically asks what the British Museum calls Samudragupta's instrument, and that answer is "lyre/veena," not the modern Myanmar name.

Q12
Bharata's Natyashastra classifies musical instruments into four categories. Which of the following correctly identifies all four?
  • ATata, Avanaddha, Ghana, Sushira
  • BTata, Vata, Ghana, Sushira
  • CTata, Avanaddha, Dhwani, Sushira
  • DVata, Avanaddha, Ghana, Sushira
Answer: (a)

Bharata's Natyashastra classifies instruments into four categories: Tata, chordophones or string instruments such as the veena and harp, Avanaddha, membranophones or membrane-covered instruments such as the mridangam and tabla, Ghana, idiophones or solid-body instruments such as cymbals and bells, and Sushira, aerophones or wind instruments such as the flute and conch. Options (b), (c), and (d) substitute incorrect names, since "Vata" and "Dhwani" are fabrications in this context. "Vata" sounds like a legitimate Sanskrit musical term, meaning "wind" and conceptually mapping to the Sushira category, making option (b) plausible, but the correct Natyashastra term is Sushira, not Vata, and the full set is best remembered as Tata-Avanaddha-Ghana-Sushira, or String-Membrane-Solid-Wind.

Q13
Consider the following statements regarding the India–China boundary talks following the August 2026 Special Representatives' meeting in Beijing:
  • India's Special Representative for the boundary talks is National Security Adviser Ajit Doval, and China's Special Representative is Foreign Minister Wang Yi.
  • The eight-point consensus includes setting up two new meeting points for military commanders and two new hotlines in the Eastern and Middle Sectors.
  • The 2005 Agreement on Political Parameters and Guiding Principles requires that boundary delineation precede the framework for delimitation.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India's Special Representative is NSA Ajit Doval and China's is Foreign Minister Wang Yi, and the August 2026 eight-point consensus included two new military commander meeting points and two new hotlines in the Eastern and Middle Sectors. Statement 3 reverses the sequence specified in Article 10 of the 2005 Agreement, since the agreement actually requires a framework for delimitation to be agreed first, with delineation, the physical marking on the ground, only proceeding on that basis afterward. Delimitation, describing the limits on a map or legal document, comes first, while delineation, putting lines on the land physically, comes second — the two terms are frequently confused, and the 2005 agreement mandates delimitation before delineation.

Q14
Match the following sectors of the India–China Line of Actual Control (LAC) with their approximate lengths:
  • 1. Western Sector (Ladakh/J&K) — 1,570 km
  • 2. Central Sector (Himachal Pradesh/Uttarakhand) — 545 km
  • 3. Eastern Sector (Arunachal Pradesh, excl. Bhutan) — 1,325 km
  • AAll three matches are correct
  • BOnly Western and Central are correctly matched
  • COnly Eastern and Western are correctly matched
  • DNone of the matches is correct
Answer: (a)

All three sector-length matches are correct as per standard reference data on the India-China LAC: the Western Sector, Aksai Chin/Ladakh, spans roughly 1,570 km, the Central Sector, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, spans roughly 545 km, and the Eastern Sector, Arunachal Pradesh excluding the Bhutan trijunction area, spans roughly 1,325 km, with the total LAC approximately 3,440-3,488 km depending on the source, since India claims a slightly longer LAC than China does. The lengths are counterintuitive, since the Western Sector, Aksai Chin, is actually longer than the Eastern Sector, Arunachal Pradesh, even though the Eastern Sector receives more media attention due to China's maximalist territorial claims there — the disputed Aksai Chin area sits in the west, not the east.

Q15
Consider the following statements regarding India's sugar industry as per the PIB Backgrounder released on August 26, 2026:
  • India is the world's second-largest sugarcane producer, with production reaching 500 MMT in 2025-26.
  • The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane for 2026-27 has been set at ₹365 per quintal with a basic recovery rate of 10.25%.
  • The share of sugar diverted for ethanol production has increased from around 9% in 2022-23 to around 12% in 2025-26.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India is the world's second-largest sugarcane producer after Brazil, with production reaching 500 MMT in 2025-26, up 43.5% from 348.44 MMT in 2015-16, and the FRP for 2026-27 has been set at ₹365 per quintal with a basic recovery rate of 10.25%. Statement 3 reverses the actual trend, since the share of sugar diverted for ethanol has actually declined from around 12% in 2022-23 to around 9% in 2025-26, as grain-based ethanol, particularly maize, has taken over nearly three-fourths of ethanol production. The government's ethanol-programme success narrative might suggest sugar diversion grew, but it actually shrank because maize-based ethanol displaced sugar-based ethanol.

Q16
Which of the following factors were cited by the government as contributing to the short-term sugar price hike in August 2026?
  • Crop damage from Red Rot disease and Top Borer pest infestation.
  • Tightening of global sugar supplies with international prices rising by over 16% in under two months.
  • A government decision to divert larger quantities of sugar to ethanol production to meet E20 targets.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Red Rot and Top Borer disease, combined with waterlogging from excess rainfall, reduced 2025-26 production estimates from 343 LMT to about 306 LMT, and international sugar prices rose from $474 per tonne on June 30 to $552 per tonne on August 20, 2026, over 16% in under two months, reflecting a global deficit of roughly 33 lakh MT. Statement 3 is incorrect, since the government did not increase sugar diversion to ethanol; in fact, the sugar-to-ethanol share fell from 12% to 9%, meaning the price hike was caused by supply shortfall and global factors rather than increased ethanol diversion. Statement 3 conflates two separate policy directions — the real E20 blending target and the actual cause of the 2026 price spike, which was crop disease, waterlogging, and a global deficit, not diversion policy.

Q17
Consider the following statements regarding UNCCD CoP17 held in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia in August 2026:
  • CoP17 is being held under the theme 'Restoring Land. Restoring Hope.' and 2026 is the UN International Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists.
  • India highlighted the Orans of Rajasthan — community-protected sacred groves — as an example of traditional rangeland stewardship, noting approximately 25,000 such groves covering 0.6 million hectares.
  • UNCCD is one of the three Rio Conventions, the other two being the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)

All three statements are correct. CoP17's theme is "Restoring Land. Restoring Hope.," and 2026 is the UN International Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists as declared by the UNGA, and Minister Bhupender Yadav cited the Orans of Rajasthan, roughly 25,000 community-protected sacred groves covering about 0.6 million hectares, as a model of community stewardship that also conserves Great Indian Bustard habitat. UNCCD (1994), UNFCCC (1992), and CBD (1992) are the three Rio Conventions, all emerging from or directly linked to the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, and this trio is sometimes confused with other UN environmental bodies like UNEP or Ramsar. The Rio Conventions can be remembered together: Deserts through UNCCD, Climate through UNFCCC, and Biodiversity through CBD.

Q18
The concept of 'Land Degradation Neutrality' (LDN) under the UNCCD's 2018–2030 Strategic Framework refers to:
  • AAchieving zero net deforestation globally by 2030.
  • BNo net loss of productive and healthy land area by 2030, achieved through avoidance, reduction and restoration of degraded land.
  • CMaintaining all agricultural land in its current state without any further conversion.
  • DRestoring all degraded land to its original natural ecosystem state by 2030.
Answer: (b)

Land Degradation Neutrality is defined under the UNCCD's 2018-2030 Strategic Framework as a state where the amount and quality of land resources remain stable or increase over time, meaning no net loss of healthy productive land, achieved through a three-step hierarchy: avoid new degradation first, then reduce ongoing degradation, and finally restore already-degraded land to compensate for unavoidable losses. Option (a) confuses LDN with zero-deforestation commitments, option (c) freezes land use without allowing restoration, and option (d) sets an impossibly absolute target of complete restoration rather than reflecting LDN's actual net-balance approach. Option (d) sounds aspirational and environmental, but LDN is a balance-sheet concept, allowing new degradation as long as an equivalent area is restored elsewhere, keeping the net loss at zero.

Q19
Consider the following statements regarding the selection process for the UN Secretary-General:
  • A candidate requires nine affirmative votes from the fifteen-member Security Council and must not be vetoed by any of the five permanent members.
  • After the Security Council's recommendation, the candidate is formally appointed by the UN General Assembly.
  • The straw poll is a formal, binding vote in the Security Council to determine the final candidate.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. A candidate needs nine affirmative votes from the 15-member UN Security Council and must not receive a veto from any P5 member, and the UNGA then formally appoints the recommended candidate, with the UNGA's role being confirmatory rather than deliberative. Statement 3 is incorrect, since straw polls are actually informal, secret, and non-binding votes used to gauge preferences and identify likely vetoes before formal proceedings, allowing P5 members to signal preferences privately without committing formally. Straw polls exist precisely because formal votes lock positions in, whereas informal polls allow tactical signalling without commitment — a straw poll is an informal temperature check, while the formal UNSC vote is the binding recommendation.

Q20
Consider the following statements regarding India's food security architecture and climate resilience:
  • India's Public Distribution System (PDS) currently covers approximately 800 million people with legal entitlements under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013.
  • The rice-wheat procurement system, while successful in ensuring production adequacy, is heavily concentrated in states facing serious groundwater stress.
  • The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme has been introduced to restrict food entitlement to the state of original residence, preventing misuse.
  • A1 and 2 only
  • B2 and 3 only
  • C1 and 3 only
  • D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The NFSA, 2013 provides subsidised foodgrains to approximately 800 million people covering Priority Households and Antyodaya Anna Yojana beneficiaries, and rice-wheat procurement is concentrated in Punjab and Haryana, both of which face severe groundwater depletion, making the current procurement pattern ecologically unsustainable at present rates. Statement 3 reverses ONORC's actual purpose, since the scheme does the opposite of restricting entitlement to the home state — it gives migrants portability to access their PDS entitlements from any fair-price shop anywhere in India, expanding reach rather than restricting it. ONORC is fundamentally about portability for migrants, enabling access away from home rather than confining benefits to one state — the word "restrict" in Statement 3 is the giveaway that it misstates the scheme.

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