Indian Polity Probable Questions for UPSC Prelims 2026 — 101 Current Affairs Based Questions Across 32 Topics
Legacy IAS faculty has curated 101 high-probability Indian Polity questions directly from current affairs developments — covering Emergency provisions, Anti-Defection Law, Waqf Amendment, DPDP Act, Collegium System, CAG, Lokpal, and 25 more critical topics. Download the full PPT below.
UPSC Polity Current Affairs — Probable Questions for Prelims 2026
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⚡ About This Resource
This resource contains 101 UPSC-style MCQs on Indian Polity, each grounded in a current affairs event or development from 2024–2025. Every question comes with the correct answer and a detailed explanation covering the constitutional provision, relevant case law, and exam-specific concept reinforcement. All questions are curated by Legacy IAS faculty for UPSC Prelims 2026.
Why This Matters
Why Current Affairs-Based Polity Questions Are Critical for UPSC Prelims 2026
Indian Polity is the joint highest-weightage subject in UPSC Prelims — contributing 12–15 questions out of 100. But here is what many aspirants miss: over the last five years, 50–60% of Polity questions in UPSC Prelims are anchored to current developments — recent legislation, new constitutional controversies, landmark judgments, and governance reforms.
Studying Laxmikant alone is no longer sufficient. A candidate who has mastered the static provisions but is unaware of the Waqf Amendment Act 2025, the 130th Constitutional Amendment Bill, the Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023, or the controversy over the CEC appointment will miss 4–6 questions that a current-affairs-prepared candidate will score easily.
At Legacy IAS, Bangalore, our faculty has identified 32 Polity current affairs topics with the highest probability of appearing in UPSC Prelims 2026 — and crafted 101 MCQs in UPSC’s exact style, complete with explanations and concept reinforcement.
101
Probable Questions
32
Current Affairs Topics
12–15
Polity Qs in Prelims
Free
PPT Download
Complete Coverage
32 Current Affairs Topics Covered in This PPT
The Legacy IAS UPSC Polity PPT covers the following 32 topics — each selected because of its direct current affairs relevance and historical UPSC testing pattern:
🔴 50 Years of National Emergency
🔴 Assent to State Bills (16th Presidential Reference)
🔴 Anti-Defection Law (Tenth Schedule)
🔴 130th Constitutional Amendment (One Nation One Election)
🔴 Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025
🔴 Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
🔴 Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner
🔴 Chief Justice of India & Collegium System
Office of the Vice President
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Lokpal
National Human Rights Commission
Preventive Detention
Constitutional Validity of Narco Tests
Article 21 — Inclusive Digital Access
Tribunals in India
Fiscal Federalism
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG)
Attorney General of India
Article 311 — Civil Servants’ Protections
Online Gaming Regulation
Inter-State Water Disputes
Parliamentary Motions & Procedures
Parliamentary Committees
Legal Aid in India
Phone Tapping
Personality Rights
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
National Medical Commission (NMC)
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)
Article 21 — Recent Judicial Expansions
📌 Hot topics for 2026: The 50th anniversary of the 1975 Emergency, the One Nation One Election Bill, Waqf Amendment Act 2025, and the controversy over the CEC appointment process are guaranteed high-probability areas for UPSC Prelims 2026 — each has generated significant constitutional debate and judicial activity in the past 12 months.
Sample Questions
Preview — 6 Sample Questions from the PPT
Here is a representative sample of the type and quality of questions in the Legacy IAS Polity PPT. The full set of 101 questions with all answers and explanations is available in the free PPT download above.
Q1
Topic: 50 Years of National Emergency · Article 352
Consider the following statements regarding the National Emergency under Article 352:
1. The President can proclaim Emergency only on the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
2. Once proclaimed, it must be approved by both Houses by a special majority within one month.
3. Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a National Emergency.
4. Article 19 stands automatically suspended only when Emergency is on grounds of war or external aggression.
Which of the above are correct?
1. The President can proclaim Emergency only on the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
2. Once proclaimed, it must be approved by both Houses by a special majority within one month.
3. Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a National Emergency.
4. Article 19 stands automatically suspended only when Emergency is on grounds of war or external aggression.
Which of the above are correct?
📘 Key Explanation
All four statements are correct. Statement 1: 44th CAA, 1978 made written Cabinet advice mandatory. Statement 2: Both Houses must approve by special majority within 1 month. Statement 3: Post-44th CAA, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during Emergency (Article 359). Statement 4: Article 358 suspends Article 19 only on grounds of war/external aggression — not on grounds of armed rebellion.
Q2
Topic: President’s Rule · Article 356 · S.R. Bommai Case
Consider the following statements regarding President’s Rule under Article 356:
1. The State Legislative Assembly stands automatically dissolved when President’s Rule is imposed.
2. The proclamation requires approval by both Houses within 2 months by a simple majority.
3. President’s Rule can continue for a maximum of 3 years if certain conditions are met.
4. The S.R. Bommai judgment (1994) held that imposition of President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
Which of the above are correct?
1. The State Legislative Assembly stands automatically dissolved when President’s Rule is imposed.
2. The proclamation requires approval by both Houses within 2 months by a simple majority.
3. President’s Rule can continue for a maximum of 3 years if certain conditions are met.
4. The S.R. Bommai judgment (1994) held that imposition of President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
Which of the above are correct?
📘 Key Explanation
Statement 1 is Wrong — the Assembly is suspended (not automatically dissolved) when President’s Rule is imposed; dissolution requires a separate Presidential order. Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. S.R. Bommai (1994) is the most important ruling on federalism — it made Article 356 justiciable and mandated a floor test before dismissal of a state government.
Q3
Topic: Constitutional Amendments Matching · 42nd, 44th, 52nd, 91st CAA
Match the following Constitutional Amendment Acts with their major contributions:
1. 42nd CAA, 1976 — i. Restored Lok Sabha term to 5 years; written Cabinet advice for Emergency
2. 44th CAA, 1978 — ii. Inserted Articles 323A and 323B (tribunals)
3. 52nd CAA, 1985 — iii. Size of Council of Ministers capped at 15% of LS
4. 91st CAA, 2003 — iv. Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law)
Select the correct match:
1. 42nd CAA, 1976 — i. Restored Lok Sabha term to 5 years; written Cabinet advice for Emergency
2. 44th CAA, 1978 — ii. Inserted Articles 323A and 323B (tribunals)
3. 52nd CAA, 1985 — iii. Size of Council of Ministers capped at 15% of LS
4. 91st CAA, 2003 — iv. Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law)
Select the correct match:
📘 Key Explanation
42nd CAA (1976): Inserted Articles 323A & 323B (tribunals), transferred Education to Concurrent List. 44th CAA (1978): Restored 5-year LS term; mandated written Cabinet advice for Emergency. 52nd CAA (1985): Inserted Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law). 91st CAA (2003): Capped size of Council of Ministers at 15% of Lok Sabha. The 42nd is called the ‘Mini Constitution’; the 44th rolled back many of its excesses.
Q4
Topic: 16th Presidential Reference · Articles 200 & 201
With reference to the Supreme Court’s advisory opinion in the 16th Presidential Reference (under Article 143), consider the following statements:
1. Courts can prescribe a fixed timeline within which the Governor must decide on a Bill under Article 200.
2. The doctrine of ‘deemed assent’ to a State Bill is constitutionally untenable.
3. The Governor’s inaction on a Bill can be challenged through a writ of mandamus.
Which of the above are correct?
1. Courts can prescribe a fixed timeline within which the Governor must decide on a Bill under Article 200.
2. The doctrine of ‘deemed assent’ to a State Bill is constitutionally untenable.
3. The Governor’s inaction on a Bill can be challenged through a writ of mandamus.
Which of the above are correct?
📘 Key Explanation
Statement 1 is Wrong — the Supreme Court categorically held that the judiciary cannot impose timelines on the President or Governor. Statement 2 is Correct — ‘deemed assent’ violates constitutional powers and the federal scheme. Statement 3 is Correct — while assent itself is not justiciable, prolonged inaction can be challenged via mandamus. Article 361 grants personal immunity to the Governor, but governmental actions remain open to judicial review.
Q5
Topic: Article 21 Landmark Judgments Matching
Match the following landmark judgments with the rights they recognised:
1. ADM Jabalpur (1976) — i. Procedure must be just and fair
2. Maneka Gandhi (1978) — ii. Right to Privacy
3. Puttaswamy (2017) — iii. Internet Access (under 19(1)(a) & (g))
4. Anuradha Bhasin (2020) — iv. Right to life suspendable during Emergency
Select the correct match:
1. ADM Jabalpur (1976) — i. Procedure must be just and fair
2. Maneka Gandhi (1978) — ii. Right to Privacy
3. Puttaswamy (2017) — iii. Internet Access (under 19(1)(a) & (g))
4. Anuradha Bhasin (2020) — iv. Right to life suspendable during Emergency
Select the correct match:
📘 Key Explanation
ADM Jabalpur (1976): Held Right to Life suspendable during Emergency — this was overruled by Puttaswamy (2017). Maneka Gandhi (1978): Procedure for deprivation of liberty must be ‘just, fair and reasonable’. Puttaswamy (2017): Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right under Articles 14, 19, 21. Anuradha Bhasin (2020): Internet access as fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(g).
Q6
Topic: Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) · Mediation Act 2023
Consider the following statements about Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) in India:
1. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law.
2. The Mediation Act, 2023 establishes a dedicated framework for mediation.
3. Lok Adalat awards are subject to appeal in High Courts.
4. India is a signatory to the Singapore Convention on Mediation.
Which of the above are correct?
1. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is based on the UNCITRAL Model Law.
2. The Mediation Act, 2023 establishes a dedicated framework for mediation.
3. Lok Adalat awards are subject to appeal in High Courts.
4. India is a signatory to the Singapore Convention on Mediation.
Which of the above are correct?
📘 Key Explanation
Statement 3 is Wrong — Lok Adalat awards have the status of a civil court decree and no appeal lies against them. This is a key fact UPSC frequently tests. Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. The Mediation Act, 2023 is India’s first dedicated legislation for mediation. Section 89 of the CPC, 1908 also mandates courts to refer matters to ADR where appropriate.
💡 95 more questions covering all 32 topics — with full explanations, concept reinforcement, and PYQ linkages — are available in the free PPT download. Download Now →
Complete Topic List
All 32 Topics with Question Count and Priority
| # | Topic | Questions | Priority |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 50 Years of National Emergency (Articles 352–360) | Q1–Q6 | 🔴 Very High |
| 2 | Assent to State Bills — 16th Presidential Reference (Art. 200, 201) | Q7–Q10 | 🔴 Very High |
| 3 | Office of the Vice President | Q11–Q14 | 🟠 High |
| 4 | Speaker of Lok Sabha | Q15–Q19 | 🟠 High |
| 5 | Anti-Defection Law — Tenth Schedule (52nd CAA) | Q20–Q24 | 🔴 Very High |
| 6 | 130th Constitutional Amendment Bill 2025 (One Nation One Election) | Q25–Q28 | 🔴 Very High |
| 7 | Lokpal | Q29–Q32 | 🟠 High |
| 8 | National Human Rights Commission | Q33–Q35 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 9 | Preventive Detention (Articles 22, 33, 35) | Q36–Q38 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 10 | Constitutional Validity of Narco Tests (Selvi v. Karnataka) | Q39–Q41 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 11 | Article 21 — Inclusive Digital Access (Amar Jain v. UoI) | Q42–Q44 | 🔴 Very High |
| 12 | Tribunals in India (Articles 323A, 323B) | Q45–Q47 | 🟠 High |
| 13 | Appointment & Removal of Chief Election Commissioner | Q48–Q51 | 🔴 Very High |
| 14 | Fiscal Federalism — Finance Commission, GST Council | Q52–Q55 | 🟠 High |
| 15 | Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 | Q56–Q59 | 🔴 Very High |
| 16 | Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 | Q60–Q63 | 🔴 Very High |
| 17 | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | Q64–Q66 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 18 | Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG — Articles 148–151) | Q67–Q69 | 🟠 High |
| 19 | Attorney General of India (Article 76) | Q70–Q72 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 20 | Article 311 — Civil Servants’ Protections | Q73–Q75 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 21 | Online Gaming Regulation | Q76–Q77 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 22 | Inter-State Water Disputes (Article 262) | Q78–Q79 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 23 | Parliamentary Motions & Procedures | Q80–Q82 | 🟠 High |
| 24 | Parliamentary Committees (PAC, Estimates, Public Undertakings) | Q83–Q86 | 🟠 High |
| 25 | Chief Justice of India & Collegium System | Q87–Q88 | 🔴 Very High |
| 26 | Legal Aid in India (Article 39A) | Q89 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 27 | Phone Tapping (Right to Privacy) | Q90 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 28 | Personality Rights (Emblems & Names Act 1950) | Q91 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 29 | Union Public Service Commission (Articles 315–323) | Q92–Q94 | 🟠 High |
| 30 | National Medical Commission (NMC Act 2019) | Q95–Q97 | 🟡 Moderate |
| 31 | Alternative Dispute Resolution (Mediation Act 2023) | Q98–Q100 | 🟠 High |
| 32 | Article 21 — Recent Judicial Expansions (Puttaswamy, Anuradha Bhasin) | Q101 | 🔴 Very High |
How to Use This PPT for Maximum Exam Benefit
- Attempt each question before reading the answer — treat it as a mock test, not a reading exercise
- Study the explanation carefully — each answer explanation links the question to the constitutional provision, relevant case law, and adjacent concepts
- Mark questions you got wrong — revisit them after 1 week. If you get them wrong again, that topic needs deeper study in Laxmikant
- Note the “Concept link” in each explanation — this is the exact provision or case that UPSC typically tests, and it will guide you on what to revise
- Complete all 101 questions in 3 sittings — 35 questions per sitting, timed at 40 minutes each, to simulate the pace of GS Paper 1
- Combine with standard Polity preparation — this PPT covers current affairs dimensions; ensure your Laxmikant foundation is solid before using this as a revision tool
Frequently Asked Questions
Polity Probable Questions UPSC Prelims 2026 — Top 10 FAQs
Most searched questions about Indian Polity for UPSC Prelims 2026. Tap any question to expand.
The most important Indian Polity current affairs topics for UPSC Prelims 2026 are:
🔴 50th Anniversary of the 1975 Emergency — expect 2–3 questions on Articles 352–360, 44th CAA reforms
🔴 Waqf Amendment Act, 2025 — composition of Waqf Boards, District Collector’s role, Waqf by user
🔴 130th Constitutional Amendment — One Nation One Election, Articles 82A, 83, 172
🔴 Appointment of CEC — new statutory process vs. SC direction in Anoop Baranwal
🔴 Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 — Data Protection Board, data principal rights
🔴 Collegium System — reforms, transparency, memorandum of procedure
🔴 Anti-Defection Law — perennially tested, always relevant
🔴 50th Anniversary of the 1975 Emergency — expect 2–3 questions on Articles 352–360, 44th CAA reforms
🔴 Waqf Amendment Act, 2025 — composition of Waqf Boards, District Collector’s role, Waqf by user
🔴 130th Constitutional Amendment — One Nation One Election, Articles 82A, 83, 172
🔴 Appointment of CEC — new statutory process vs. SC direction in Anoop Baranwal
🔴 Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 — Data Protection Board, data principal rights
🔴 Collegium System — reforms, transparency, memorandum of procedure
🔴 Anti-Defection Law — perennially tested, always relevant
Indian Polity and Governance typically contributes 12–15 questions in UPSC Prelims GS Paper 1 — making it the joint highest-weightage subject along with Environment and Ecology.
Questions are predominantly:
✔ Statement-based (Which of the above is/are correct?)
✔ Direct constitutional provision recall
✔ Current affairs + static integration
✔ Matching constitutional amendments or judgments
The shift towards current-affairs-based Polity questions has been notable from 2019 onwards — making this PPT’s approach directly aligned with the evolving UPSC pattern.
Questions are predominantly:
✔ Statement-based (Which of the above is/are correct?)
✔ Direct constitutional provision recall
✔ Current affairs + static integration
✔ Matching constitutional amendments or judgments
The shift towards current-affairs-based Polity questions has been notable from 2019 onwards — making this PPT’s approach directly aligned with the evolving UPSC pattern.
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 is one of the most UPSC-tested amendments and is especially relevant in 2025–26 due to the 50th anniversary of the 1975 Emergency. Its key provisions:
✔ Restored Lok Sabha term to 5 years (42nd CAA had extended it to 6)
✔ Substituted ‘armed rebellion’ for ‘internal disturbance’ as a ground for Emergency
✔ Made written Cabinet advice mandatory before Emergency proclamation
✔ Removed Right to Property as a Fundamental Right (moved to Article 300A)
✔ Ensured Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during Emergency
✔ Restored Supreme Court’s power to examine the President’s satisfaction in Emergency proclamation
✔ Restored Lok Sabha term to 5 years (42nd CAA had extended it to 6)
✔ Substituted ‘armed rebellion’ for ‘internal disturbance’ as a ground for Emergency
✔ Made written Cabinet advice mandatory before Emergency proclamation
✔ Removed Right to Property as a Fundamental Right (moved to Article 300A)
✔ Ensured Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during Emergency
✔ Restored Supreme Court’s power to examine the President’s satisfaction in Emergency proclamation
The Anti-Defection Law is in the Tenth Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
Grounds for disqualification:
✔ Voluntarily giving up party membership
✔ Voting against or abstaining from the party whip without prior permission
✔ Independent member joining any party after election
✔ Nominated member joining any party after 6 months
Exception: Merger — if 2/3rd of the legislature party merges with another party
UPSC frequently tests: The Speaker/Chairman’s role in deciding petitions, the Kihoto Hollohan (1992) judgment (upheld Tenth Schedule), and recent controversies over the Speaker delaying disqualification decisions.
Grounds for disqualification:
✔ Voluntarily giving up party membership
✔ Voting against or abstaining from the party whip without prior permission
✔ Independent member joining any party after election
✔ Nominated member joining any party after 6 months
Exception: Merger — if 2/3rd of the legislature party merges with another party
UPSC frequently tests: The Speaker/Chairman’s role in deciding petitions, the Kihoto Hollohan (1992) judgment (upheld Tenth Schedule), and recent controversies over the Speaker delaying disqualification decisions.
The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 amends the Waqf Act, 1995. Key UPSC-relevant provisions:
✔ Non-Muslims may now be included on State Waqf Boards and the Central Waqf Council
✔ ‘Waqf by user’ — property used for religious purposes without formal declaration — has been significantly modified
✔ District Collector now has power to determine whether disputed property is government land or Waqf land
✔ Central Waqf Council membership has been revised with new composition rules
✔ Improved accountability provisions for Waqf properties
This Act has generated significant constitutional controversy regarding federalism, minority rights (Article 26, 29, 30), and separation of powers — making it highly probable for UPSC Prelims 2026.
✔ Non-Muslims may now be included on State Waqf Boards and the Central Waqf Council
✔ ‘Waqf by user’ — property used for religious purposes without formal declaration — has been significantly modified
✔ District Collector now has power to determine whether disputed property is government land or Waqf land
✔ Central Waqf Council membership has been revised with new composition rules
✔ Improved accountability provisions for Waqf properties
This Act has generated significant constitutional controversy regarding federalism, minority rights (Article 26, 29, 30), and separation of powers — making it highly probable for UPSC Prelims 2026.
The 130th Constitutional Amendment Bill, 2025 proposes One Nation One Election — simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
Key provisions for UPSC:
✔ Amends Articles 83, 172, and 327
✔ Introduces a new Article 82A to synchronise the election cycle
✔ Proposes a Single Electoral Roll for Parliamentary, State, and local body elections
✔ Currently referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) for consideration
The bill has been debated for its implications on federalism, Article 1 (union of states), and the practical logistics of simultaneous polling — all testable UPSC angles.
Key provisions for UPSC:
✔ Amends Articles 83, 172, and 327
✔ Introduces a new Article 82A to synchronise the election cycle
✔ Proposes a Single Electoral Roll for Parliamentary, State, and local body elections
✔ Currently referred to a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) for consideration
The bill has been debated for its implications on federalism, Article 1 (union of states), and the practical logistics of simultaneous polling — all testable UPSC angles.
Important recent SC judgments for UPSC Prelims 2026 Polity:
✔ 16th Presidential Reference — ‘Deemed assent’ to State Bills is unconstitutional; Governor’s inaction can be challenged via mandamus
✔ Anoop Baranwal (2023) — directed inclusion of CJI in CEC selection committee (not followed in the Act)
✔ K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) — Right to Privacy as Fundamental Right; overruled ADM Jabalpur
✔ Anuradha Bhasin (2020) — Right to Internet under Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(g)
✔ S.R. Bommai (1994) — President’s Rule under Article 356 is justiciable; floor test mandated
✔ Amar Jain v. UoI — Right to Inclusive Digital Access for persons with disabilities
✔ 16th Presidential Reference — ‘Deemed assent’ to State Bills is unconstitutional; Governor’s inaction can be challenged via mandamus
✔ Anoop Baranwal (2023) — directed inclusion of CJI in CEC selection committee (not followed in the Act)
✔ K.S. Puttaswamy (2017) — Right to Privacy as Fundamental Right; overruled ADM Jabalpur
✔ Anuradha Bhasin (2020) — Right to Internet under Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(g)
✔ S.R. Bommai (1994) — President’s Rule under Article 356 is justiciable; floor test mandated
✔ Amar Jain v. UoI — Right to Inclusive Digital Access for persons with disabilities
The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 is India’s first comprehensive data protection legislation. Key UPSC-relevant features:
✔ Data Principals (citizens) — rights to access, correction, erasure, and grievance redressal
✔ Data Fiduciaries (organisations) — obligations of consent, purpose limitation, security safeguards
✔ Data Protection Board of India — adjudicatory body for violations
✔ Significant Data Fiduciaries — higher obligations for organisations processing large volumes of sensitive data
✔ Penalties — up to ₹250 crore for data breaches
✔ Modelled partially on GDPR (EU’s General Data Protection Regulation)
The Act balances privacy rights (Article 21) with legitimate state and commercial interests — a constitutional law angle UPSC loves.
✔ Data Principals (citizens) — rights to access, correction, erasure, and grievance redressal
✔ Data Fiduciaries (organisations) — obligations of consent, purpose limitation, security safeguards
✔ Data Protection Board of India — adjudicatory body for violations
✔ Significant Data Fiduciaries — higher obligations for organisations processing large volumes of sensitive data
✔ Penalties — up to ₹250 crore for data breaches
✔ Modelled partially on GDPR (EU’s General Data Protection Regulation)
The Act balances privacy rights (Article 21) with legitimate state and commercial interests — a constitutional law angle UPSC loves.
The CEC appointment process underwent a major change following the Supreme Court’s judgment in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023). The court directed that a collegium including the Chief Justice of India should be part of the selection.
However, Parliament then enacted the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term) Act, 2023, which created a statutory Selection Committee comprising:
✔ Prime Minister (Chair)
✔ A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM
✔ Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
The Chief Justice of India was NOT included in the statutory committee — creating a significant constitutional controversy between judicial direction and Parliamentary legislation. This tension is highly testable in UPSC Prelims 2026.
However, Parliament then enacted the CEC and Other ECs (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term) Act, 2023, which created a statutory Selection Committee comprising:
✔ Prime Minister (Chair)
✔ A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by PM
✔ Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
The Chief Justice of India was NOT included in the statutory committee — creating a significant constitutional controversy between judicial direction and Parliamentary legislation. This tension is highly testable in UPSC Prelims 2026.
The Legacy IAS UPSC Polity Current Affairs PPT — containing 101 probable questions for UPSC Prelims 2026 with answers and explanations — can be downloaded directly from this page using the download button at the top.
The PPT is completely free and covers all 32 current affairs topics in the UPSC-style MCQ format curated by Legacy IAS faculty in Bangalore.
For comprehensive UPSC coaching — Prelims, Mains, and Interview — you can also take the free UPSC Readiness Test at Legacy IAS to assess your preparation and receive a personalised study plan.
The PPT is completely free and covers all 32 current affairs topics in the UPSC-style MCQ format curated by Legacy IAS faculty in Bangalore.
For comprehensive UPSC coaching — Prelims, Mains, and Interview — you can also take the free UPSC Readiness Test at Legacy IAS to assess your preparation and receive a personalised study plan.
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