The UPSC Prelims Exam for 2026 is set to take place on May 24th, 2026 (Sunday). Given that the official answer key is only published by UPSC after the final results are announced, aspirants are in need of a trustworthy and accurate source to evaluate their performance in the IAS Prelims exam.
UPSC IAS Question Paper Pattern 2026
The UPSC Question Paper is conducted in offline mode. The paper carries a maximum of 400 marks, with each worth 200 marks. It is an objective test containing 180 multiple-choice questions. The medium of the paper is English and Hindi. The CSAT paper will be a qualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%.
Those who qualify in the prelims exam will be called for the Civil Services (Main) Examination. The marks obtained in the prelim exam will not be counted for final selection. Check the table below for the UPSC question paper pattern.
Subject | Nature Of Paper | No. of Questions | Exam Duration | Marks |
Paper I – General Studies | Merit Ranking (Marks will be counted in Final merit) | 100 | 2 Hours | 200 |
Paper II – General Studies (CSAT) | Qualifying in nature | 80 | 2 Hours | 200 |
Legacy IAS — Test Booklet
Series
D
General Studies — Paper I
UPSC Civil Services Examination Preparation
Score
0
✔ Correct
0
✘ Wrong
0
— Skipped
100
+2 Correct | −⅓ Wrong
History, Art & Culture
1
Consider the following assertion:
In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.
Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?
- 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
- 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
- 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems
Select the answer using the code given below:
2
What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?
3
Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?
- 1. Vitasta : Chenab
- 2. Asikni : Jhelum
- 3. Parushni : Ravi
- 4. Yavyavati : Beas
Select the answer using the code given below:
4
Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?
- 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
- 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
- 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.
Select the answer using the code given below:
5
Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?
- 1. Senguttuvan : Chera
- 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
- 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya
Select the answer using the code given below:
6
Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?
- 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
- 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
- 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
- 4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.
Select the answer using the code given below:
7
Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:
- 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
- 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
- 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.
8
Consider the following assertion:
The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.
Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?
- 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
- 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
- 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.
Select the answer using the code given below:
9
Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:
10
In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?
11
Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?
12
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?
13
Consider the following statements:
- I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.
- II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.
- 1. Emergence of urban life
- 2. Transition to money economy
Select the answer using the code given below:
14
Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?
- 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
- 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
- 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
- 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal
Select the answer using the code given below:
15
Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?
16
The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:
17
Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:
- 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596).
- 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
- 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.
18
Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:
- I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
- II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
- III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.
- 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
- 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
- 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.
Select the answer using the code given below:
19
Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?
20
Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:
- I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
- II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.
- 1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
- 2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
- 3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Geography & Environment
21
Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?
22
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
- 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
- 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
Select the answer using the code given below:
23
With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
- 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
- 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.
Select the answer using the code given below:
24
Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?
- 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
- 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
- 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers
Select the answer using the code given below:
25
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:
- I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
- II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
- III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
- 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in Statement I.
- 2. Statement III extends the objectives of Statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
- 3. Statement I contradicts Statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
Select the answer using the code given below:
26
Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):
- 1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
- 2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
- 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
27
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?
- 1. They acted as army fortresses.
- 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
- 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
- 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.
Select the answer using the code given below:
28
At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June 2025 in France, the FAO demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and 'Blue Transformation'. Which of the following combinations about the 'Four Betters' proposed by FAO for 'Blue Transformation' is correct?
29
Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?
- 1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
- 2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
- 3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.
Select the answer using the code given below:
30
Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India?
31
Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change:
- I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
- II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
- III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.
- 1. Statement I is empirically supported by Statement II.
- 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I.
- 3. Statement I and Statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.
Select the answer using the code given below:
32
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List.
- 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
- 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.
Select the answer using the code given below:
33
Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?
- 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
- 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
- 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.
Select the answer using the code given below:
34
In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?
- 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
- 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
- 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.
Select the answer using the code given below:
35
Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:
- 1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
- 2. It flows through three countries.
- 3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
- 4. It does not form distributaries.
36
Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?
- 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
- 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
- 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.
Select the answer using the code given below:
37
Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
- 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
- 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
- 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
Select the answer using the code given below:
38
Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?
- 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
- 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
- 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)
Select the answer using the code given below:
39
Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
- 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
- 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
Select the answer using the code given below:
40
Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?
- 1. Bahrain
- 2. Syria
- 3. Qatar
- 4. Egypt
Select the answer using the code given below:
Current Affairs, IR & Security
41
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
| List I (INTERPOL Notice) | List II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. Silver Notice | 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies |
| B. Blue Notice | 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation |
| C. Black Notice | 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety |
| D. Green Notice | 4. To identify and trace criminal assets |
42
Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?
- 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
- 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
- 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
Select the answer using the code given below:
43
The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?
- 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
- 2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
- 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
- 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow
Select the answer using the code given below:
44
Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?
- 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
- 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.
Select the answer using the code given below:
45
The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal systems. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?
- 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
- 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
- 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
Select the answer using the code given below:
46
'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':
47
Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?
- 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
- 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
- 3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.
Select the answer using the code given below:
48
Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?
49
Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?
- 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
- 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.
Select the answer using the code given below:
50
Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong':
- 1. The film has recently won the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category.
- 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
- 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.
Economy, Science & Technology
51
Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?
- 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
- 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
- 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
- 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.
Select the answer using the code given below:
52
An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:
53
Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
54
Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?
55
Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?
56
Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?
- 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
- 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
- 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
57
A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:
58
Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in MSME financing is/are correct?
- 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
- 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
- 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.
Select the answer using the code given below:
59
Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?
60
Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?
- 1. Modern technological innovations including AI, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
- 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
- 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
- 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.
Select the answer using the code given below:
61
Which of the following statements about insurance in the aviation sector is/are correct?
- 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
- 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.
Select the answer using the code given below:
62
Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?
- 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
- 2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.
Select the answer using the code given below:
63
With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:
In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?
| # | Committee | Objective | Organisation |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India |
| 2 | L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India |
| 3 | Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India |
| 4 | Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India |
64
Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:
- 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
- 2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
- 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
- 4. Deposit insurance facility of DICGC is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.
65
Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
- 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
- 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
- 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of UNDP.
66
Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?
- 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
- 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
- 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
Select the answer using the code given below:
67
Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?
- 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
- 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
- 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.
Select the answer using the code given below:
68
Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?
- 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
- 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
- 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.
Select the answer using the code given below:
69
Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?
- 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
- 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
- 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.
Select the answer using the code given below:
70
Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?
- 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
- 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
- 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
Select the answer using the code given below:
71
Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:
- 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
- 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
- 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.
72
Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?
- 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
- 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
- 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.
Select the answer using the code given below:
73
Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?
- 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
- 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
- 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.
Select the answer using the code given below:
74
Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?
- 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits.
- 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.
Select the answer using the code given below:
75
Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?
- 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
- 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
- 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Ethics, Polity & International Relations
76
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure due to vested interests, he raised his voice, reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority, and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
77
[Case Study] In a multi-ethnic district a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet has sparked protests. As a responsible Government official tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, which of the following statements would contribute to the resolution process?
- 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
- 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
- 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
- 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
78
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department. She received confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption. Her HoD advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
- 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
- 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
- 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below:
79
'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive, including ordinances, orders, rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion:
80
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
- 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
- 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
- 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
81
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
- 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment.
- 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and ICT.
- 3. The NDFDC is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among PwDs.
Select the answer using the code given below:
82
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
- 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
- 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
83
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
- 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
- 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
84
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
- 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
- 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
- 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
85
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:
- 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
- 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.
- 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.
86
Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:
- 1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
- 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
- 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.
87
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the BNSS, 2023 is/are correct?
- 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
- 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
88
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?
| # | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2 | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |
| 3 | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |
89
Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?
- 1. Employment Policy Convention
- 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
- 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
- 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
- 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness
Select the answer using the code given below:
90
Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:
- 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.
- 2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework.
- 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Impact Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.
91
Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?
- 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
- 2. IMT Trilateral Highway
- 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line
Select the answer using the code given below:
92
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
| List I (Project Supported by India) | List II (Country) |
|---|---|
| A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project | 1. Maldives |
| B. Restoration of Stor Palace | 2. Afghanistan |
| C. District Hospital at Dickoya | 3. Bhutan |
| D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies | 4. Sri Lanka |
93
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?
- 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
- 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
- 3. Akula Class Submarine
Select the answer using the code given below:
94
Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:
- 1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
- 2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
- 3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.
95
Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:
- 1. World Food Programme
- 2. United Nations Children's Fund
- 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
- 4. International Labour Organisation
96
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
| List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) | List II (Period of Operation) |
|---|---|
| A. UNMIL | 1. 2007–2010 |
| B. MINURCAT | 2. 2002–2005 |
| C. MINUSTAH | 3. 2003–2018 |
| D. UNMISET | 4. 2004–2017 |
97
Match List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) with List II (Location):
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. NOIDA |
| B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. Bengaluru |
| C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. Colombo |
| D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. Thimphu |
98
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps — Headquarters)
99
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
- 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
- 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the SDGs.
- 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below:
100
Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?
- 1. Belarus
- 2. Poland
- 3. Germany
- 4. Switzerland
Select the answer using the code given below:
UPSC Question Paper 2026: Key Highlights
The UPSC Prelims Exam 2026 is conducted in two shifts, i.e., GS Paper 1 in the morning shift and GS Paper 2 in the afternoon shift. Candidates will be able to download the UPSC Question Papers 2026 for GS and CSAT from here. Check the table below for UPSC Question Paper 2025 key highlights
Exam Conducting Body | Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) |
Exam Name | Civil Service Preliminary Exam 2026 |
Exam Date | May 24, 2026 |
UPSC Prelims Papers | General Studies Paper I – 9:30 to 11:30 General Studies Paper II – 2:30 to 4:30 |
Mode of Exam | Offline |
Total Marks | 400 (200 Each Paper) |
Negative Marking | 1/3rd for Incorrect Answers |
Language | English and Hindi |
Official Website |
UPSC GS Question Paper 2026: PDF Download
The UPSC GS Question Paper 2026 has 100 questions for 200 marks. The duration of the exam is 2 hours. The questions were asked from different subjects such as polity, geography, history, economy, science and technology, current affairs, etc. Candidates can click on the direct link below to download the UPSC GS Question Paper 2025.
UPSC Question Paper 2026 (Set A) | PDF Download |
UPSC Question Paper 2026 (Set B) | PDF Download |
UPSC Question Paper 2026 (Set C) | PDF Download |
UPSC Question Paper 2026 (Set D) |
UPSC 2026 Expected Cutoff
The UPSC Prelims 2026 cutoff will depend on the following factors:
- Difficulty level of the question paper
- Number of vacancies
Since the number of vacancies is similar to previous years (around 1000), the cutoff will primarily depend on the difficulty level of the question paper. The UPSC expected cutoff will be released in the following format:
Category | Expected UPSC Prelims Cut off 2026 |
|---|---|
General | 85 +/- 2 |
EWS | 83 +/-2 |
OBC | 84 +/-2 |
SC | 76 +/-2 |
ST | 71+/-2 |
Given tougher GS + tougher CSAT, the 2025 General cutoff is most likely 85 marks — a drop of 3 points from 2025.
Anyone scoring 80 or above should start preparing seriously for Mains 2026 without waiting for the official result.
How to Download UPSC Prelims Question Paper?
Candidates preparing for the UPSC CSE Exam 2026 can easily download previous years’ UPSC Prelims Question Papers 2026 (GS 1 and CSAT) from the official UPSC website or follow the Steps to Download UPSC Prelims Question Paper below:
- Step 1: Go to upsc.gov.in, the official website of the Union Public Service Commission.
- Step 2: On the homepage, locate and click on the “Examinations” tab in the main menu.
- Step 3: Under the “Examinations” section, find and click on the “Previous Question Papers” link.
- Step 4: From the list of examinations, select “Civil Services (Preliminary)” to access the relevant papers.
- Step 5: Choose the examination year (e.g., 2026) for which you want to download the question paper.
- Step 6: Click on the links for General Studies Paper 1 (GS 1) and CSAT (Paper 2). The question papers will open in PDF format.
- Step 7: Save the PDFs for digital use or print them out for offline practice.
UPSC Prelims Answer keys will also be available on the following Instagram, Twitter and Telegram channels. For a detailed explanation of Prelims GS Paper 1, follow our YouTube channel.
The “UPSC IAS Answer Key” can be used by candidates to calculate their estimated score. The marking criteria for the UPSC CSE 2026 Prelims are as follows: 2 Marks are awarded for each correct answer in Paper I, and 2.5 Marks are allotted in Paper II for each correct answer. However, for each incorrect answer, 1/3rd of the mark assigned to a question is deducted.
The “UPSC IAS Prelims Answer Key 2026” with explanations will assist students in identifying their correct and incorrect responses, and they can calculate the marks they are likely to score in the Prelims exam.
The final selection of candidates for the IAS post is based on the marks obtained in the UPSC Mains exam and Interview. While the UPSC Prelims Exam is the first step of the selection process, the marks are not considered when preparing the Final Merit List.
