UPSC Prelims Environment PYQs 2013–2025 — Solved

UPSC Prelims Environment PYQs 2013–2025 | Solved | Legacy IAS
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Topic Colour Guide
Ecology Basics
Biodiversity
Climate Change
Pollution & Waste
Protected Areas
Int’l Conventions
Water & Wetlands
Species & Wildlife
Agriculture/Forestry
Year:
2025
UPSC Prelims 2025 — Environment & Ecology
15 questions · Strong emphasis on climate, ecology fundamentals, species, and international law
15 Qs
2025 · Q1EcologyEasy
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (b) II onlyStatement I ❌ WRONG: Oceans — not rainforests — produce more oxygen. Marine phytoplankton, cyanobacteria, and other aquatic photosynthesizers collectively produce far more oxygen than terrestrial forests. This is because oceans cover 71% of Earth’s surface and phytoplankton have very high photosynthetic rates.

Statement II ✅ CORRECT: Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce approximately 50–60% of Earth’s oxygen. This is the key UPSC fact — oceans are Earth’s primary oxygen generators, not rainforests (though rainforests are critical for other reasons: biodiversity, carbon storage, water cycles).

Statement III ❌ WRONG: Well-oxygenated surface water actually has MUCH LESS dissolved oxygen concentration than atmospheric air. Air contains about 21% oxygen by volume (~209,000 ppm), while well-saturated water contains only about 8–12 mg/L of dissolved oxygen — far less than what’s in air. The statement is completely inverted.
2025 · Q2Climate ChangeModerate
With reference to Paris Agreement Article 6, consider the following statements:
I. It establishes a framework for international carbon markets allowing countries to trade emission reductions.
II. Article 6.4 creates a UN-supervised carbon credit mechanism, similar to the Clean Development Mechanism under the Kyoto Protocol.
III. “Corresponding adjustments” are required to prevent double counting of emission reductions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (d) I, II and III — all correctArticle 6 of Paris Agreement creates the international carbon market framework to help countries meet their NDC targets cooperatively. Article 6.2 (cooperative approaches) allows bilateral/multilateral trading of ITMOs (Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes). Article 6.4 establishes a UN-supervised centralized mechanism (like Kyoto’s CDM but with improvements) where projects generate carbon credits traded globally. “Corresponding adjustments” are a critical safeguard — when Country A sells emission reductions to Country B, Country A must “adjust” (remove) those reductions from its own NDC accounting to prevent the same reduction being counted twice. This prevents double counting. All three statements are correct — the final rules for Article 6 were operationalized at COP28 (Dubai, 2023).
2025 · Q3PollutionModerate
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct?
✅ Answer: (d) All three correctActivated carbon (also called activated charcoal) is a highly porous form of carbon with an enormous surface area (500–1500 m²/g). All three statements are correct: (I) It is widely used in effluent treatment to adsorb organic pollutants, dyes, pharmaceuticals, heavy metals. (II) Its huge surface area and strong adsorption potential make it effective for heavy metals (mercury, lead, cadmium, arsenic). (III) It can be synthesized from any organic carbon-rich waste — coconut shells (major source in India, including recent Kerala research from coconut rachis), wood chips, bamboo, agricultural waste, sewage sludge — through controlled pyrolysis and activation. Kerala researchers recently developed activated carbon from coconut rachis, which was the news item that motivated this UPSC question.
2025 · Q4Climate ChangeModerate
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct?
✅ Answer: (d) All three correctA Circular Economy contrasts with the linear “take-make-dispose” model. It keeps materials in use as long as possible through repair, reuse, recycling, and remanufacturing. (I) ✅ By reducing need for virgin material extraction and processing (which are energy-intensive and GHG-emitting), circular economy reduces GHG emissions. (II) ✅ Recycled/reused materials replace virgin raw material inputs — core definition. (III) ✅ Circular design eliminates waste by design — materials become feedstock for other processes. All three statements correctly describe circular economy principles. India launched a National Resource Efficiency Policy (NREP) in 2019 promoting circular economy principles.
2025 · Q5Climate ChangeHard
Consider the following statements:
I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (d) II and III onlyStatement I ❌ WRONG: India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 1.9–2.0 t CO₂/capita (as per IEA data) — significantly more than 0.5 t/capita. India is still relatively low globally (world average ~4.5 t/capita; USA ~15 t/capita) but certainly not as low as 0.5 t/capita. Statement II ✅ CORRECT: India ranks 2nd in the Asia-Pacific region after China in terms of CO₂ from fuel combustion (IEA data). Statement III ✅ CORRECT: Electricity and heat producers (power plants burning coal and gas) are the single largest sectoral source of CO₂ emissions in India — accounting for approximately 45–50% of India’s total energy-sector CO₂. Coal-based power plants are the dominant contributor. Transport and industry are next.
2025 · Q6SpeciesHard
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) II and III onlyThe Peacock Tarantula (Gooty Tarantula) — scientific name Poecilotheria metallica — is a critically endangered spider, NOT a crustacean. Statement I ❌ WRONG: It is an arachnid (spider), not a crustacean. Crustaceans include crabs, lobsters, shrimp. Also, tarantulas are carnivorous (eat insects, small lizards), not omnivorous in the conventional sense. Statement II ✅ CORRECT: Its natural habitat in India is extremely limited — found only in some forest areas near Nandyal/Gooty in Andhra Pradesh (Nallamala Hills). It is one of the world’s rarest spiders, found ONLY in the Gooty region. Now also found in Seshachalam Hills and some adjoining forests. Critically Endangered (IUCN). Statement III ✅ CORRECT: It is an arboreal species — lives in trees and woody vegetation. It constructs silk retreats in tree cavities and bark. This is a key ecological fact: it nests high in trees, not in burrows (unlike many other tarantulas).
2025 · Q7Int’l ConventionModerate
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
✅ Answer: (a) The European UnionThe Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is an EU legislative initiative adopted in 2024. It sets legally binding targets to restore at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems needing restoration by 2050. It is a landmark piece of European environmental legislation under the EU Biodiversity Strategy 2030 (part of the European Green Deal). No other option — World Bank, OECD (economic cooperation body), or FAO (UN food/agriculture agency) — has the legislative power to enact binding environmental laws. This was an important current affairs question from 2024.
2025 · Q8Climate ChangeModerate
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of this report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The human body cannot cool itself when wet-bulb temperature exceeds 35°C, making outdoor survival impossible.
III. Such heat conditions would primarily affect coastal cities due to sea breeze moderation.
✅ Answer: (b) II onlyWet-bulb temperature measures heat + humidity combined — it’s the lowest temperature achievable through evaporative cooling (sweating). The human body cools itself primarily through sweat evaporation. When wet-bulb temperature exceeds 35°C, the air is so hot AND humid that sweat cannot evaporate effectively — the body cannot lose heat. This makes outdoor activity physiologically impossible for even healthy adults within hours. Statement I is partially correct (climate change does cause all these) but doesn’t specifically reflect the “wet-bulb temperature” implication. Statement III is wrong — inland regions are actually MORE vulnerable (coastal areas have some sea-breeze moderation). Statement II correctly describes the deadly physiological implication of 35°C wet-bulb temperature.
2025 · Q9PollutionEasy
Which of the following substances is/are used for artificial rainfall (cloud seeding) to reduce air pollution?
1. Silver iodide
2. Potassium iodide
3. Liquid nitrogen
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
✅ Answer: (a) 1 and 2 onlyCloud seeding (artificial rainfall) uses substances that act as cloud condensation nuclei to promote precipitation. Silver iodide (AgI) is the most commonly used seeding agent — its crystal structure resembles ice and promotes ice nucleation. Potassium iodide is also used. Dry ice (solid CO₂) and Sodium chloride (NaCl) are also used. Liquid nitrogen (option 3) is NOT typically used as a cloud seeding agent. It’s used in industrial refrigeration and cryogenic applications. When rainfall washes air, it removes particulate matter (PM2.5, PM10), SO₂, NOₓ from the atmosphere — reducing pollution. Delhi’s authorities considered artificial rainfall for this purpose.
2025 · Q10EcologyModerate
Consider the following statements about coal gasification:
Statement I: Underground coal gasification (UCG) converts coal into syngas (synthesis gas) without mining the coal.
Statement II: Syngas produced from coal gasification consists mainly of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.
Which of the following is correct?
✅ Answer: (b) Both correct; II does not explain IUnderground Coal Gasification (UCG): Steam, oxygen, or air is injected into an unworked coal seam underground. Chemical reactions in situ convert coal to syngas (synthesis gas) — a mixture of H₂, CO, CO₂, CH₄. The syngas is extracted to the surface through production wells. This avoids traditional coal mining (no miners underground, no transportation of coal). Both statements are correct: UCG does convert in-situ coal to syngas (I ✅), and syngas is primarily H₂ + CO with some CO₂ and CH₄ (II ✅). However, II (composition of syngas) doesn’t explain I (the process of UCG) — they’re independent facts. India approved UCG projects in West Bengal and Odisha (2024-25). Motivation for this UPSC question.
2025 · Q11Climate ChangeModerate
Consider the following statements about cement industry emissions:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from the cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct?
✅ Answer: (d) All three correctAll statements about cement are correct: (I) ✅ Cement industry accounts for ~7–8% of global CO₂ emissions — more than 5%. CO₂ comes from two sources: burning fuel to heat kilns (40%) AND calcination of limestone CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ (60%). The chemical reaction itself is unavoidable without CCUS. (II) ✅ Portland cement uses a mixture of limestone (mainly CaCO₃), silica-bearing clay/shale (SiO₂, Al₂O₃, Fe₂O₃) — this is the raw feed for clinker production. (III) ✅ During clinker production in rotary kilns at ~1450°C, limestone (CaCO₃) is converted to lime (CaO) + CO₂ — the calcination reaction. CaO then reacts with silica, alumina, and iron oxide to form calcium silicates and aluminates (the clinker minerals).
2025 · Q12Int’l ConventionModerate
The ‘Global Biodiversity Framework’ (GBF), adopted at COP15 of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), sets which of the following as a key target?
✅ Answer: (b) 30×30 targetThe Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) was adopted at CBD COP15 in Montreal, December 2022. The landmark “30×30 target” (Target 3) requires parties to effectively conserve and manage at least 30% of Earth’s land areas, inland waters, and coastal and marine areas by 2030. This is compared to ~17% of land and ~8% of ocean currently protected. Other key GBF targets: 4 targets to reduce threats to biodiversity (pesticides, pollution, invasive species, climate change); 4 targets for sustainable use; 4 targets for implementation tools (finance, capacity, technology).
2025 · Q13SpeciesModerate
Which of the following statements about Giant Robber Crab is/are correct?
1. It is the world’s largest land-dwelling invertebrate.
2. It is found in India only in the Great Nicobar Island.
3. It can climb trees and cut coconuts with its claws.
Select the correct answer using the code:
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 — all correctThe Giant Robber Crab (Coconut Crab)Birgus latro — is among the most fascinating species in India’s protected areas. All statements are correct: (1) ✅ It is the world’s largest land-living arthropod (and invertebrate), weighing up to 4 kg and spanning up to 1m leg-to-leg. (2) ✅ In India, it is found ONLY on Great Nicobar Island, within the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve (UNESCO 2013). (3) ✅ It has enormously powerful claws that can lift up to 29 kg — it uses them to climb coconut palms and crack open coconuts for food (giving it the “coconut crab” common name). The Great Nicobar Development Project (2024-25) is considered a threat to this species.
2025 · Q14BiodiversityHard
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of biological organization from the smallest to the largest unit?
✅ Answer: (a/c) Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome → BiosphereThe standard hierarchy of biological organization from smallest to largest: Organism (individual living unit) → Population (group of same species in an area) → Community (all populations of different species in an area) → Ecosystem (community + abiotic environment) → Biome (group of similar ecosystems characterized by climate and dominant vegetation — e.g., tropical rainforest biome, tundra biome) → Biosphere (all ecosystems on Earth — the zone of life). This is a fundamental NCERT-based question on levels of ecological organization.
2025 · Q15SpeciesHard
The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:
(These are arthropods known for specific locomotion/sound characteristics)
✅ Answer: (c) InsectsAll three are insects (Class Insecta, Phylum Arthropoda): Cicada — famous for their loud mating calls (produced by tymbals, not wings); some species emerge after 13 or 17 years (periodical cicadas). Froghopper — also called spittle bugs; hold the record for the highest jump of any animal relative to body size (outperforming fleas). Pond skater (Water strider) — walks/runs on water surface using surface tension; their legs are hydrophobic (water-repellent) and distribute their body weight widely. This type of question tests awareness of animal species’ identities — a trend in recent UPSC papers (2023 onwards: Cicada, Froghopper, Pond skater from UPSC 2024 too).
2024
UPSC Prelims 2024 — Environment & Ecology
~15 questions · Species-heavy year · GM foods · SO₂ sources · Greenwashing · Wildlife laws
15 Qs
2024 · Q1PollutionEasy
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
✅ Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuelsAccording to the US EPA (and globally), power plants burning fossil fuels — particularly coal — are the largest single source of SO₂ emissions. Coal naturally contains significant sulphur (0.5–4%), which oxidizes to SO₂ when burned. India’s coal-fired power plants are a massive source of SO₂ — India is the world’s largest SO₂ emitter from coal power. SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃ (sulfurous acid) / H₂SO₄ (sulfuric acid) = acid rain. Metal smelting is significant (particularly copper smelting) but not the LARGEST source globally. Ships use high-sulphur fuel oil but represent a smaller share.
2024 · Q2AgricultureModerate
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct?
✅ Answer: (d) Statement I incorrect; Statement II correctStatement I ❌ WRONG: India DOES import apples from the USA. US Gala apples are imported to India. In fact, the US has repeatedly pushed India to lower import duties on apples (a key trade negotiation point in 2023-25 India-US trade talks). So the statement that India does NOT import apples from USA is incorrect. Statement II ✅ CORRECT: India’s Environment (Protection) Act 1986 + Rules 1989 + FSSAI regulations require approval from the competent authority (GEAC — Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee under MoEFCC) before any GMO food can be imported, manufactured, or used in India. The import of GM food is regulated and requires specific approval. US apples are NOT GM — they are conventional varieties. So India imports US apples. The GM restriction exists but doesn’t prevent apple imports.
2024 · Q3SpeciesHard
The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” belong to which of the following groups?
✅ Answer: (c) InsectsThis question was repeated from 2024 into analysis discussions. All three — Cicada (sound-producing), Froghopper (highest-jumping), Pond skater (walks on water) — are insects. See detailed explanation in 2025 Q15 above. This type of species identity question has become a UPSC trend.
2024 · Q4Protected AreasModerate
Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
✅ Answer: (c) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger ReserveNagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh/Telangana is India’s largest Tiger Reserve by area at ~3,296 sq km — and consequently has the largest Critical Tiger Habitat (core zone). It spans the Nallamala Hills. Despite being India’s largest TR, it has a relatively low tiger density (smaller visible population than Corbett). It straddles 5 districts across AP and Telangana. Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) = the inviolate core zone of a Tiger Reserve, notified under WPA 1972 Section 38V, from which all human activity and settlements must be excluded. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam’s CTH is the largest in India because of its enormous total area.
2024 · Q5PollutionEasy
Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
✅ Answer: (a) False impression of being eco-friendlyGreenwashing is a deceptive marketing practice where companies mislead consumers about the environmental benefits of their products, services, or practices — creating a false “green” image without meaningful environmental action. Examples: claiming products are “100% natural” when they contain harmful chemicals; using green imagery without substantive environmental claims; misleading recyclability claims. The term originated in the 1980s (Jay Westerveld). SEBI has issued guidelines on ESG (Environmental, Social, Governance) disclosures in India to combat greenwashing. The EU has passed the Green Claims Directive (2023) to combat greenwashing in Europe.
2024 · Q6EcologyModerate
Consider the following statements:
1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (a) 1 onlyClouds and Climate: Different cloud types have opposite effects on Earth’s temperature: High clouds (cirrus, cirrostratus — ice crystals, thin, high altitude) have two effects: (1) Reflect some solar radiation (cooling), (2) Trap outgoing infrared radiation (warming). Net effect: HIGH CLOUDS cause WARMING (greenhouse effect dominates). Statement 1 is partially correct about reflection but INCOMPLETE — it misses that high clouds also trap IR and their net effect is WARMING. However in UPSC context, the conventional statement that high clouds cool (by reflection) and low clouds warm (by trapping IR) has been tested with Statement 1 considered correct. Low clouds (cumulus, stratus — water droplets, thick, low altitude) primarily REFLECT solar radiation effectively (cooling Earth) — their net effect is COOLING, NOT warming. Statement 2 is WRONG. The correct answer per UPSC official key was (a) 1 only.
2024 · Q7Protected AreasEasy
If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
✅ Answer: National Chambal Sanctuary (Chambal River)The Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) is Critically Endangered (IUCN) — one of the world’s most endangered crocodilians. Its primary natural habitat in India is the National Chambal Sanctuary which spans MP, UP, and Rajasthan along the Chambal River. The Chambal has the largest wild population of gharials. Also present: Ken River (Panna TR), Girwa River (UP), Mahanadi (Odisha — smaller population). Bhitarkanika (Odisha) is famous for saltwater crocodiles (not gharials). The Chambal Sanctuary is the answer — it’s the most important site. Gharials are the most critically endangered of India’s three crocodilian species (saltwater crocodile — LC, mugger crocodile — VU, gharial — CR).
2024 · Q8BiodiversityModerate
From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
✅ Answer: (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger ReserveSathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu is ecologically vital as a corridor between the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats. It connects: Nilgiri (Western Ghats) with the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) hills (Eastern Ghats edge) — forming part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve’s extended corridor. Wildlife moves through Sathyamangalam between the two Ghat systems. This enables gene flow between elephant, tiger, and other wildlife populations — critical for long-term species survival. The Nallamala Hills are in the Eastern Ghats of AP/Telangana — they don’t bridge between the two Ghat systems. Papikonda is in AP Eastern Ghats, not a bridge between the two systems.
2024 · Q9Int’l ConventionModerate
Consider the following statements about TRAFFIC:
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (b) 2 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: TRAFFIC is NOT a bureau under UNEP. TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in Commerce) is a leading wildlife trade monitoring NGO — a joint programme of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). It’s not a UN body or UNEP bureau. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: TRAFFIC’s mission is precisely: “To ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.” It monitors, analyzes, and reports on wildlife trade globally, working with CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) to identify illegal wildlife trade patterns. TRAFFIC India works with the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) to combat trafficking.
2024 · Q10PollutionModerate
In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 1 and 3 onlyBioremediation uses living organisms (bacteria, fungi, algae) to clean up contaminated environments. Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: Bioremediation enhances natural biodegradation processes already occurring in nature — it accelerates what microbes naturally do (break down organic pollutants). Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: Heavy metals (cadmium, lead, mercury, arsenic) CANNOT be degraded/destroyed by bioremediation. Metals don’t break down like organic molecules. Bioremediation can only sequester or transform metals (change valence state, bind them) — but cannot “completely treat” them. Bioaccumulation can concentrate metals in biomass which then needs disposal. “Completely treated” is too strong a claim. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: Genetic engineering has been used to create specialized microorganisms for bioremediation — e.g., Pseudomonas bacteria engineered to degrade PCBs, or yeast modified to accumulate mercury.
2023
UPSC Prelims 2023 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · Green hydrogen · Invasive species · Earth Hour · Wildlife laws · Carbon sequestration
18 Qs
2023 · Q1AgricultureModerate
Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?
✅ Answer: (b) RiceRice paddy cultivation is the single most important agricultural source of BOTH greenhouse gases: Methane (CH₄): Flooded paddy fields create anaerobic (oxygen-free) conditions. Methanogenic archaea in waterlogged soil decompose organic matter anaerobically, producing methane. Rice paddies account for ~10–12% of global methane emissions. Methane escapes through rice plant stems (aerenchyma) and by ebullition (bubbles). Nitrous oxide (N₂O): Application of nitrogen fertilizers to rice fields leads to N₂O production through denitrification (anaerobic) and nitrification processes. N₂O is 298 times more potent as a GHG than CO₂. Rice paddy is unique as an agricultural source of BOTH these major non-CO₂ GHGs simultaneously — making it the answer.
2023 · Q2Int’l ConventionEasy
“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:
✅ Answer: (a) Database by coalition of research organisationsThe Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis produced by a coalition of research organizations (Climate Analytics and the NewClimate Institute). It tracks individual country climate actions and measures them against the global Paris Agreement goal of limiting warming to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. CAT rates country NDCs as: “Critically Insufficient,” “Insufficient,” “Highly Insufficient,” “Almost Sufficient,” or “Compatible.” It is NOT part of IPCC, UNFCCC, UNEP, or World Bank. Launched in 2009. India’s NDC was rated “Highly Insufficient” in early assessments — though India’s renewable energy ambitions are noted.
2023 · Q3Water & WetlandsEasy
“If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
✅ Answer: (d) Filtering pollutants and purifying waterThe “kidneys” analogy perfectly describes wetlands’ water filtration function. Kidneys filter blood, removing waste products and maintaining chemical balance. Similarly, wetlands: (1) Filter pollutants — they trap sediments, absorb excess nutrients (nitrogen, phosphorus — which cause eutrophication), and break down harmful chemicals. (2) Purify water — wetland vegetation, soil microbes, and physical processes transform and remove contaminants before water enters rivers, lakes, or groundwater. (3) Maintain water quality — acting as natural water treatment systems. This is why wetlands adjacent to agricultural areas are crucial — they absorb fertilizer runoff (nitrates, phosphates) that would otherwise cause algal blooms. Carbon sequestration is an important wetland function but doesn’t reflect the “kidneys” analogy.
2023 · Q4PollutionModerate
The ‘R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of:
✅ Answer: (a) Environmentally responsible practices in electronics recyclingThe R2 (Responsible Recycling) Code of Practices is a certification standard for the electronics recycling industry — established to promote environmentally responsible recycling of electronic waste (e-waste). R2-certified recyclers follow strict standards for: safe handling of hazardous materials (lead, mercury, cadmium in e-waste), data security (proper data destruction), worker health and safety, downstream vendor accountability. This is relevant to India’s growing e-waste challenge — the E-Waste (Management) Rules 2022 and global concerns about informal e-waste recycling that exposes workers to toxic materials. R2 is a US-origin standard with global adoption.
2023 · Q5PollutionModerate
Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 — all concerns are validCopper smelting involves high-temperature processing of copper ore concentrates: (1) ✅ Carbon monoxide: Smelting involves roasting copper sulfide ores with limited oxygen — producing CO as a byproduct (incomplete combustion). CO is lethal even at low concentrations (200 ppm). (2) ✅ Copper slag heavy metal leaching: The solid waste (slag) from copper smelting contains heavy metals — arsenic, cadmium, lead, zinc — that can leach into soil and groundwater if not properly managed. (3) ✅ Sulphur dioxide: This is the BIGGEST concern. Copper occurs naturally as copper sulfide ores (CuFeS₂ — chalcopyrite). When smelted, sulphur is released as SO₂ — a major acid rain precursor. Copper smelting is historically a significant local SO₂ pollution source. All three are genuine environmental concerns.
2023 · Q6EcologyModerate
In the nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only (Lichen and Moss)Lichens (2) ✅ are the CLASSIC pioneer species on bare rock with no soil — they can grow on bare rock surfaces, glass, tree bark, and concrete. Lichens are a symbiotic association of fungi + algae/cyanobacteria. They attach via root-like structures (rhizines) and absorb minerals directly from rock surface. They initiate primary ecological succession — they break down rock chemically, creating the first soil layer. Moss (3) ✅ can grow on bare rock, concrete walls, stone, and damp non-soil surfaces. Moss attaches via rhizoids (not true roots) and can absorb moisture and nutrients without soil. Fern (1) ❌: Most ferns require soil for establishment. They grow in damp forests with soil. Mushroom (4) ❌: Mushrooms are the fruiting bodies of fungi — they need organic substrate (decaying wood, leaf litter, soil) with organic matter to decompose.
2023 · Q7AgricultureModerate
With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as a fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) All three — see detailed explanation in Hydrogen Economy PYQ sectionAll three uses of green hydrogen are valid. (1) Modified ICE engines can burn hydrogen directly — NTPC and Oil India have demonstrated this. (2) Hydrogen can be blended (5-20% by volume) into natural gas pipelines — GAIL’s Indore project and NTPC’s Surat PNG blending demonstrate this. (3) Hydrogen fuel cells electrochemically generate electricity (H₂ + O₂ → H₂O + electricity) — NTPC’s Leh FCEV buses run on this technology. All three statements are correct.
2023 · Q8Agriculture/IndustryModerate
Consider the following heavy industries:
1. Cement industry
2. Fertilizer industry
3. Iron and steel industry
How many of the above can be significantly decarbonised by the use of green hydrogen as a source of energy?
✅ Answer: (c) All three — see Hydrogen Economy PYQ section for full explanationAll three “hard-to-abate” industries can be significantly decarbonised using green hydrogen. Cement: H₂ replaces fossil fuels for kiln heating (energy part of emissions). Fertilizer: Green ammonia (H₂ + N₂ using renewable energy) replaces grey ammonia from fossil gas — decarbonizing urea production. Iron and Steel: Hydrogen-based Direct Reduced Iron (H-DRI) uses H₂ instead of coke (carbon) to reduce iron ore → Fe + H₂O (no CO₂), replacing traditional blast furnace coking coal.
2023 · Q9Int’l ConventionEasy
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 2 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: Earth Hour is NOT an initiative of UNEP or UNESCO. It was started by WWF (World Wildlife Fund) in 2007 in Sydney, Australia. Now organized annually by WWF International — not a UN body. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Earth Hour involves participants switching off non-essential lights for exactly one hour — typically 8:30 PM to 9:30 PM on the last Saturday of March. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The core purpose is to raise awareness about climate change, energy conservation, and environmental issues globally — encouraging individuals, businesses, and governments to take action on sustainability.
2023 · Q10Water & WetlandsModerate
If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?
✅ Answer: (a) Ecological character changes due to human interferenceThe Montreux Record is a register of Ramsar Sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. It’s essentially a “danger list” for Ramsar wetlands. Countries request listing when their Ramsar Sites are under severe threat. India’s Ramsar Sites previously on Montreux Record: Keoladeo National Park (Bharatpur, Rajasthan) — removed in 2011 after improved water management; Loktak Lake (Manipur) — was on the list (due to Ithai Barrage impacts). Being on Montreux Record triggers international attention and technical assistance but does NOT automatically impose legal prohibitions or require specific legal measures.
2022
UPSC Prelims 2022 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · National Biodiversity Authority · Water Mission · Biorock technology · Climate bodies · Wildlife laws
18 Qs
2022 · Q1Climate ChangeEasy
Consider the following statements:
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (b) 2 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: The CCAC is NOT a G20 initiative. It was launched in 2012 as a voluntary global partnership — initially by 6 countries (USA, Canada, Mexico, Bangladesh, Ghana, Sweden) + UNEP. It is open to ALL countries (not just G20) and currently has 70+ country partners. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: The CCAC focuses specifically on Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (SLCPs): methane (CH₄), black carbon (soot), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), and tropospheric ozone (O₃). These are powerful GHGs with relatively short atmospheric lifetimes (days to decades vs CO₂’s centuries). Reducing SLCPs can have near-term climate benefits while CO₂ reductions have longer-term effects. India is a party to the CCAC.
2022 · Q2BiodiversityModerate
How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyThe National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established under the Biological Diversity Act 2002. Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: NBA regulates access to biological resources, checks biopiracy, and ensures benefit-sharing with local communities for traditional knowledge. It protects India’s indigenous genetic heritage. Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: NBA does NOT directly monitor or supervise GM crop research. That is the role of the GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) under MoEFCC and the RCGM (Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation) under DBT. NBA has a different mandate. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: Under the BD Act 2002, any person seeking a patent or IPR involving biological resources from India must get prior approval from NBA. This prevents foreign companies from patenting Indian biological resources without consent and benefit-sharing.
2022 · Q3WaterModerate
If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of the Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of Peninsular India.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 1 and 2 onlyThe National Water Mission (NWM) is one of the 8 missions under India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC, 2008). Goals: 20% improvement in water use efficiency; conserving water through pricing, regulation; building capacity. Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: NWM includes provisions for treated wastewater reuse — specifically for non-potable urban uses (industrial, construction, groundwater recharge). Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: NWM recognizes desalination as appropriate technology for water-scarce coastal cities (Chennai has been a major case — its desalination plants contribute to urban water supply). Statement 3 ❌ WRONG: River interlinking is a separate initiative (National Perspective Plan for Interlinking of Rivers) — NOT a goal of NWM. NWM focuses on water conservation, efficiency, and recycling — not inter-basin transfers.
2022 · Q4EcologyEasy
“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
✅ Answer: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefsBiorock (Mineral Accretion Technology) is an innovative coral reef restoration technique developed by Wolf Hilbertz and Thomas Goreau. How it works: Low-voltage electrical current (6-12 V DC) is passed through a steel mesh structure placed underwater. This causes electrolysis of seawater, precipitating limestone (CaCO₃) and other minerals onto the mesh — creating an artificial substrate. Coral fragments are then attached to the structure. The electrical current accelerates coral growth rates by 2–6 times compared to natural rates, improves coral survival, and enhances resistance to bleaching. It has been successfully used in Indonesia (Bali), the Maldives, and India (Lakshadweep and Andaman Islands). The “bio” refers to biological coral growth; “rock” refers to the mineral accretion (rock formation).
2022 · Q5EcologyEasy
The term “Miyawaki method” is sometimes seen in the news in the context of:
✅ Answer: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areasThe Miyawaki method (also called “Potential Natural Vegetation” method) was developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki. It involves: planting native tree species in dense clusters (20,000 plants/ha vs normal 2,000–3,000), in mixed layers (ground cover, shrub, tree, canopy), on properly prepared soil with organic matter. Results: forests grow 10× faster than natural regeneration, become self-sustaining in 2-3 years, 30× denser than conventional plantations, and support 100× more biodiversity. In India: Municipal corporations in Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bengaluru are using Miyawaki to create “urban mini forests” on small plots of land — improving urban biodiversity, reducing urban heat island effect, and improving air quality. It gained international attention after being used across Japan, Belgium, France, and India.
2022 · Q6Pollution/GovernanceModerate
Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
✅ Answer: (b) Central Ground Water AuthorityImportant regulatory bodies and their enabling legislation: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA): Constituted under EPA 1986, Section 3(3) — regulates groundwater development and usage. ✅ National Green Tribunal (NGT): Established under the NGT Act 2010 (separate dedicated legislation). ❌ National Biodiversity Authority (NBA): Under Biological Diversity Act 2002. ❌ Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB): Under Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 (Section 38(1)). ❌ So only CGWA is constituted under EPA 1986. GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) is also constituted under EPA 1986 Rules 1989.
2022 · Q7Protected Areas/LawModerate
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (b) 2 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: Under the WPA 1972, wild animals are property of the government — but NOT “sole property.” State governments co-own wild animals within their territories. Also, the legal framework vests jurisdiction differently (Central List vs State List). The absolute “sole property of government” language is inaccurate. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Schedule I animals (tigers, elephants, etc.) are protected with the same legal provisions whether inside or outside PAs. Protection doesn’t end at NP boundaries — poaching or harm is illegal everywhere. This is explicitly stated in WPA 1972. Statement 3 ❌ WRONG: Mere “apprehension” of an animal becoming dangerous is NOT sufficient for killing/capture. WPA 1972 requires specific procedures: a permit from the Chief Wildlife Warden (not any officer) is needed, and the threat must be clear and immediate, not merely feared. “Apprehension” alone is legally insufficient.
2022 · Q8Species in NewsModerate
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition following its commitment to grow and maintain urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct?
✅ Answer: (b) Both correct; S2 does not explain S1The Tree Cities of the World programme is jointly run by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) — NOT UNCDF. Statement 1 is correct on Hyderabad’s recognition. Statement 2 correctly describes the criteria (urban forest commitment). However, Statement 2 (criteria for selection) does not explain WHY the UNCDF was involved (it wasn’t — it’s FAO). So both facts are correct but S2 describing selection criteria doesn’t explain S1’s attribution issue. Per UPSC official key: both are correct, S2 does not explain S1.
2022 · Q9Species / Wildlife LawModerate
With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 1 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ✅ CORRECT: Dugong (Dugong dugon) — the “Sea Cow” — is entirely herbivorous, grazing exclusively on seagrasses. It is the only strictly marine herbivorous mammal (manatees live in freshwater/estuaries too). Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: Dugongs are NOT found along the entire Indian coast. They are restricted to specific seagrass-rich areas: Gulf of Mannar (primary habitat), Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. India’s total dugong population is estimated at only ~200 individuals. The coasts of Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal etc. have no dugong population. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: Dugong is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 — the highest protection category, equivalent to the protection given to tigers and elephants. India has also designated the Gulf of Mannar as a Dugong Conservation Reserve. IUCN status: Vulnerable.
2022 · Q10IUCN / CITESModerate
With reference to IUCN and CITES, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 2 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) is NOT a UN organ. It is an independent international organization — a membership union with 1,400+ government and NGO members. It was founded in 1948. Though it collaborates closely with UN bodies, it is NOT a UN agency or organ. CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) is correctly described as an international agreement between governments. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: IUCN does run thousands of field conservation and restoration projects globally through its members and commissions. It also maintains the Red List, manages the World Conservation Congress, and publishes conservation guidelines. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: CITES is legally binding on its 183 signatory parties — trade in CITES-listed species violates international law. However, it works through national implementing legislation — countries must enact their own national laws to implement CITES provisions. It does not replace or override national wildlife laws.
2021
UPSC Prelims 2021 — Environment & Ecology
~19 questions · Algae biofuels · Butterfly population · Carbon sequestration · Permaculture · Community reserves
19 Qs
2021 · Q1Agriculture/EnergyModerate
It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering algae-based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) 2 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: Algae can be grown in inland ponds, tanks, photobioreactors, and on-land facilities — NOT only in seas. Many algae biofuel projects are inland. Freshwater and brackish water algae can be cultivated. India’s TERI and CSIR have conducted inland algae biofuel research. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Algae cultivation and oil extraction require sophisticated technology — closed photobioreactors (to maximize yield), harvesting equipment (algae are tiny and costly to collect), lipid extraction methods (pressurized solvents, supercritical CO₂), and conversion to biodiesel. This represents a technological barrier for developing countries. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: For economic viability, large-scale algae ponds need vast land areas, potentially displacing ecosystems or agricultural land. Competition with food/water uses and ecosystem disruption are real concerns. Current algae biofuel costs are 3-10× higher than fossil fuels — only large-scale operations could theoretically achieve parity.
2021 · Q2EcologyModerate
Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ✅ CORRECT: Butterflies are important pollinators of many wild plants and some crops. They have long proboscises and can access deep flowers. Significant butterfly decline would affect pollination of certain plant species (particularly those evolved alongside butterflies). Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: Butterflies do not primarily control fungal infections in plants. Butterflies are not predators of fungi, and there’s no established ecological link between butterfly populations and fungal plant infections. Fungal infections are controlled by climate, soil health, natural fungicides, and other organisms. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: Butterflies (in their caterpillar/larval stage) are important prey for many species: parasitic wasps lay eggs in caterpillars (important food chain link), spiders capture adult butterflies, birds eat both caterpillars and adult butterflies. A massive butterfly decline would reduce food availability for these predators, cascading through the food web.
2021 · Q3Climate ChangeModerate
In the context of mitigating global warming due to anthropogenic CO₂ emissions, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 — all are viable carbon storage sitesGeological Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) involves injecting captured CO₂ into underground geological formations: (1) ✅ Abandoned coal seams: CO₂ can displace methane already adsorbed in coal seams (Enhanced Coal Bed Methane recovery) and CO₂ remains trapped in the coal matrix. (2) ✅ Depleted oil/gas reservoirs: These have proven geological integrity (they held hydrocarbons for millions of years). CO₂ can be injected to enhance oil recovery (EOR) and remain stored. Most mature global CCS projects use depleted oil reservoirs. (3) ✅ Subterranean saline formations (deep saline aquifers): Porous rock formations filled with salt water at depth (1,000–3,000 m). Global largest CCS capacity — estimated 10,000 Gt CO₂ storage potential. The Sleipner project (Norway) has stored 1 Mt CO₂/year since 1996 in saline aquifer.
2021 · Q4AgricultureEasy
How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
✅ Answer: (a) Permaculture discourages monoculture; conventional promotes monoculturePermaculture (permanent agriculture) mimics natural ecosystem diversity — it incorporates polycultures, food forests, companion planting, and integrated systems. It specifically DISCOURAGES monocultures because: (1) Monocultures are ecologically vulnerable to pest and disease outbreaks, (2) Diversity creates natural pest control and nutrient cycling. Conventional chemical farming depends on monocultures because: uniform crops enable mechanization, predictable yields, and standardized inputs. Chemical inputs (pesticides, fertilizers) compensate for the ecological fragility of monocultures. Options B, C are factually incorrect — permaculture is practiced globally on various farm sizes.
2021 · Q5Protected AreasModerate
Consider the following statements about Community Reserves in India:
1. Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest.
2. ‘Community Reserve’ is a type of ‘Protected Area’ that gives more decision-making power to local communities compared to ‘National Park’.
Which of the above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (b) 2 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: Community Reserves are notified by STATE Governments (not Central Government) under WPA 1972. Also, it’s the Community Reserve Management Committee (CRMC) — a community body — that manages them, NOT the Chief Wildlife Warden exclusively. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Community Reserves (added by WPA Amendment 2002) are the most community-friendly protected area type. Local communities can continue traditional uses and participate in management through CRMCs. In contrast, National Parks are the most restrictive — no human habitation, no traditional rights, no grazing. The PA hierarchy from most to least restrictive: National Park → Wildlife Sanctuary → Conservation Reserve → Community Reserve. Community Reserves empower local communities most among all PA types.
2021 · Q6Species in NewsModerate
Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
✅ Answer: (c) Gangetic Dolphin (River Dolphin)The Gangetic River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was declared India’s National Aquatic Animal in October 2009. It is also called Susu. It is blind (vestigial eyes — no lens) and navigates entirely using echolocation. It is found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems. IUCN status: Endangered. Schedule I of WPA 1972. Project Dolphin was launched by the Indian government (announced 2020). Threats: sand dredging, fishing nets (bycatch), dam construction, water pollution, boat traffic. It is also the state animal of Assam. The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (Bihar) on the Ganga is a key protected site.
2021 · Q7Species / Wildlife LawModerate
Consider the following statements:
1. The definition of ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights.
3. Union Government has the power to notify an area as ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ under Forest Rights Act 2006.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 2 onlyStatement 1 ✅ CORRECT: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) 2006 does define and incorporate “Critical Wildlife Habitat” (CWH) — Section 2(b) defines it as areas of National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries specifically identified for wildlife conservation where co-existence of humans with wildlife is not possible. CWH = inviolate core from which people may be relocated only with consent. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh was the first community to receive habitat rights (community forest habitat rights) under FRA 2006 — in 2019. Habitat rights (Section 3(1)(e)) recognize the right of particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) to their ancestral territories beyond just forest rights. Statement 3 ❌ WRONG: CWH is notified by State Governments (not Union Government) under FRA 2006, with the approval of the gram sabha and after an expert committee assessment. Central government does NOT have the power to notify CWH under FRA.
2021 · Q8Species in NewsModerate
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Ganges River Dolphins’:
1. Other than poaching, use of synthetic fertilizers and agricultural chemicals in crop-fields near rivers is a reason for decline in Ganges River Dolphins.
2. They are freshwater dolphins that are found only in India.
3. They are listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ✅ CORRECT: Agricultural chemical runoff (fertilizers, pesticides) entering rivers causes: eutrophication (algal blooms depleting oxygen), bioaccumulation of toxic chemicals in dolphins (they are top predators in river food chains), and degradation of habitat and prey species. This is a genuine additional threat beyond direct poaching. Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: Gangetic Dolphins are NOT found only in India. They are found in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna river system spanning India, Nepal, and Bangladesh, and in the Karnaphuli-Sangu system in Bangladesh and Myanmar. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The Gangetic Dolphin is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. (Note: The subspecies Platanista gangetica gangetica — Ganges subspecies, and P. g. minor — Indus subspecies — are both Endangered.)
2020
UPSC Prelims 2020 — Environment & Ecology
~17 questions · Benzene pollution · Coral reefs · BOD · Wetlands · Protected areas · International agreements
17 Qs
2020 · Q1PollutionModerate
Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 onlyBenzene is a Group 1 human carcinogen (IARC). Key exposure sources: (1) ✅ Automobile exhaust — petrol combustion releases benzene; vehicles are major source in urban areas. (2) ✅ Tobacco smoke — cigarettes contain and release benzene; indoor smoking is a significant exposure route. (3) ✅ Wood burning — incomplete combustion of wood releases benzene (and other aromatics). (4) ✅ Varnished wooden furniture — many wood finishes/varnishes contain aromatic solvents including benzene or benzene-releasing compounds that off-gas indoors. (5) ❌ Polyurethane products — polyurethane is a polymer made from isocyanates and polyols — it does NOT release benzene. Benzene is an aromatic compound; polyurethane chemistry is different. Products made from polyurethane (foam mattresses, insulation) don’t significantly off-gas benzene. This is the incorrect option.
2020 · Q2BiodiversityEasy
Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (a/d) 1, 2 and 3 only (Sunderbans has NO coral reefs)India’s four major coral reef regions: (1) ✅ Andaman and Nicobar Islands — India’s largest coral reef ecosystem; mostly fringing reefs with high diversity. (2) ✅ Gulf of Kachchh (Kutch), Gujarat — National Marine Park (India’s first marine NP, 1982); patchy reef systems. (3) ✅ Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu — biosphere reserve with 21 islands; coral reefs, seagrass, mangroves. Also India’s first Marine BR. (4) ❌ Sunderbans — this is a MANGROVE ecosystem (world’s largest mangrove delta), NOT coral reefs. Coral reefs need clear, warm, nutrient-poor water. Sunderbans has sediment-laden estuarine water — completely unsuitable for corals. Sunderbans has mangroves, tigers, estuaries — NOT corals. Also: Lakshadweep Islands (atoll reefs — though not in this list).
2020 · Q3PollutionEasy
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for:
✅ Answer: (c) Estimating pollution level in water bodiesBiological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by biological organisms when decomposing organic matter in water at a given temperature over a specific time period. It measures: how much organic pollution is in water. High BOD = heavily polluted water (lots of organic waste for microbes to decompose). Low BOD = clean water. Standard BOD test: BOD₅ (5-day BOD at 20°C). Clean river water: BOD < 1 mg/L. Slightly polluted: 1–2 mg/L. Moderately: 3–5 mg/L. Heavily: >10 mg/L. India’s CPCB uses BOD as a key parameter for monitoring river water quality (Ganga, Yamuna BOD monitoring). Related: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) — measures ALL organic material (even non-biodegradable); Dissolved Oxygen (DO) — directly measures oxygen in water.
2020 · Q4Ramsar / WetlandsModerate
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 3 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: Ramsar Convention does NOT mandate India to protect ALL wetlands in its territory. It only requires parties to designate at least one Ramsar Site and manage it wisely. India must protect designated Ramsar Sites — not every wetland in the country. The commitment is voluntary and site-specific. Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: India’s Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules 2010 were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 — NOT based on Ramsar Convention recommendations. India independently developed these rules through MoEFCC. The Ramsar Convention does not directly dictate national legislation. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The WCM Rules 2010 do encompass “drainage area or catchment region” of wetlands as determined by the authority — recognizing that wetland health depends on activities in the catchment, not just the wetland itself. This is a key provision ensuring holistic wetland protection.
2020 · Q5Species in NewsModerate
Consider the following pairs: Wildlife nationally / internationally known for — Location
1. Musk Deer — Greater Himalayas and Trans-Himalayan region
2. Snow Leopard — Siachen Glacier region only
3. Hump-backed Mahseer — Cauvery River
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only — Snow Leopard is NOT limited to Siachen onlyPair 1 ✅ CORRECT: Musk Deer (Moschus chrysogaster) is found in the Greater Himalayas and Trans-Himalayan region — Uttarakhand, HP, J&K, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh. The musk gland of male musk deer is heavily poached. Schedule I, WPA 1972. Endangered (IUCN). Pair 2 ❌ WRONG: Snow Leopard is NOT restricted to Siachen Glacier only. It is found across the high-altitude zones of: Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh — at altitudes of 3,000–5,400 m. Siachen is one location but far from the only one. IUCN: Vulnerable. India has ~718 snow leopards (SPAI 2019-23). Pair 3 ✅ CORRECT: The Hump-backed Mahseer (Tor remadevii) is endemic to the Cauvery River basin (Karnataka, Tamil Nadu). It is Critically Endangered — extremely rare, found nowhere else.
2020 · Q6Species in NewsModerate
Which of the following is/are the correct description/descriptions of the ecological term ‘Lithops’?
1. A plant species found in Mediterranean scrub ecosystems
2. A group of flowering plants resembling stones
3. Bioluminescent fungi found in the Western Ghats
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 2 only — Lithops are stone-mimicking plantsLithops (commonly known as “Living Stones” or “Pebble Plants”) are a genus of succulent plants native to southern Africa (Namibia, South Africa). They have evolved to mimic the surrounding rocks and pebbles as camouflage against herbivores — an extraordinary example of mimicry/crypsis in plants. They are flowering plants (family Aizoaceae) that grow almost entirely underground with only their top surface exposed. They are NOT Mediterranean, NOT bioluminescent fungi. Lithops are popular in succulent collections globally. This question tests general ecological/botanical awareness about unusual species adaptations.
2019
UPSC Prelims 2019 — Environment & Ecology
~20 questions · Zika virus · Drip irrigation · Blue Flag · Carbon Metric · Symbiotic species · Eco-Sensitive Zones
20 Qs
2019 · Q1Pollution/EcologyEasy
The ‘Common Carbon Metric’ supported by UNEP has been developed for:
✅ Answer: (a) Carbon footprint of building operationsThe Common Carbon Metric (CCM) is an initiative by UNEP’s Sustainable Buildings and Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI). It provides a standardized method for measuring and reporting the operational carbon footprint of buildings globally. Buildings account for ~30-40% of global energy use and CO₂ emissions (energy for heating, cooling, lighting). CCM enables comparisons of building energy performance across different countries/building types — essential for setting reduction targets for the construction sector. It covers “operational” carbon (energy use during building operation) rather than “embodied” carbon (construction process).
2019 · Q2BiodiversityModerate
Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
1. Cnidaria
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 — all have symbiotic speciesAll three groups have classic symbiotic relationships: (1) ✅ Cnidaria: Coral polyps (Class Anthozoa) have symbiotic zooxanthellae algae (dinoflagellates) living within their tissues — the algae photosynthesize and provide nutrients to corals; corals provide protected habitat and CO₂ to algae. Sea anemones have symbiotic relationships with clownfish (mutualism). (2) ✅ Fungi: Classic symbiotic relationships: Lichens (fungi + algae/cyanobacteria), Mycorrhizae (fungi + plant roots — most important symbiosis in plant kingdom — ~90% of plants depend on it), Endophytic fungi within plant tissues. (3) ✅ Protozoa: Flagellate protozoa in termite guts help digest cellulose (mutualism); Plasmodium in red blood cells (parasitism); nitrogen-fixing bacteria + protozoa in termites; coral reef protozoa with photosynthetic symbionts.
2019 · Q3WaterEasy
Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?
1. Reduction in weed infestation
2. Reduction in soil salinity
3. Absence of seepage loss of water
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only — Statement 3 is wrong (“absence” is incorrect)(1) ✅ Drip irrigation wets only the root zone, leaving inter-row spaces dry — weeds can’t germinate without water. Significant weed REDUCTION. (2) ✅ Drip irrigation keeps soil consistently moist preventing salt accumulation through continuous gentle leaching — reduces salt build-up that occurs when soils dry between flood irrigations. (3) ❌ “Absence of seepage loss” is WRONG. Drip irrigation still has seepage (deep percolation below root zone), especially in sandy soils or with excessive irrigation. Drip REDUCES (not eliminates) seepage compared to flood/furrow irrigation. “Absence” = zero = incorrect. UPSC key word trap: “reduction” = correct; “absence” = incorrect. The correct advantage is significant water savings (30-50%) but seepage is not completely absent.
2019 · Q4Int’l ConventionModerate
Consider the following international agreements:
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
Which of the above are legally binding agreements?
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 — all are legally binding treatiesAll three are legally binding international agreements (treaties): (1) ✅ International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA / Plant Treaty): A binding FAO treaty (2004) on conservation and sustainable use of plant genetic resources. Sets up a multilateral system for access and benefit-sharing of 64 crop species. (2) ✅ UNCCD (UN Convention to Combat Desertification): A binding treaty (1994, entered into force 1996). India is a party. Sets obligations for dryland protection and land degradation neutrality. COP16 was held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, December 2024. (3) ✅ UNFCCC: The foundational binding climate treaty (1992). It established the framework for all subsequent climate agreements. All three are “treaties” (not mere declarations) — they carry legal obligations under international law.
2019 · Q5Ramsar / WetlandsModerate
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands.
Which of the above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 3 onlyThis is a recurring UPSC favourite on Ramsar Convention. Statement 1 ❌: Not mandatory to protect ALL wetlands — only designated Ramsar Sites. Statement 2 ❌: WCM Rules 2010 framed under EPA 1986, not based on Ramsar recommendations. Statement 3 ✅: WCM Rules 2010 does encompass catchment/drainage areas. See 2020 Q4 for full explanation — same question asked across years.
2019 · Q6Species in NewsModerate
Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news?
✅ Answer: (d) Spreads in grazing lands reducing livestock biomassProsopis juliflora (Mesquite/Vilayati Kikar) is an invasive alien plant species originally from Central America and Mexico, introduced to India in the 1960s for afforestation in arid areas. Why it’s in the news: It is now a major ecological pest — it spreads aggressively in degraded lands, grasslands, and wastelands, forming dense monocultures. It depletes groundwater (deep taproots), leaves toxic compounds (allelopathy) that inhibit native plants, and its thorny growth makes grazing impossible — severely reducing pasture available to livestock. Extremely difficult to eradicate. The Wildlife Institute of India identifies it as one of India’s worst invasive species. It is invading habitats of the Great Indian Bustard in Rajasthan and Gujarat grasslands. UPSC questions on invasive species are common.
2019 · Q7Protected Areas / WPAModerate
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some specific provisions provided by law?
1. Gharial
2. Indian Wild Ass
3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 — all are Schedule I animalsAll three are listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 — which provides the highest level of protection. Hunting Schedule I animals is absolutely prohibited under Section 9 of WPA 1972, except under special provisions (if an animal becomes a danger to human life — with a permit from Chief Wildlife Warden). Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus): Schedule I, IUCN Critically Endangered. Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur): Schedule I, found only in Little Rann of Kutch, Gujarat. IUCN Near Threatened. Wild Buffalo (Bubalus arnee): Schedule I, found in Assam (Manas), Chhattisgarh, Odisha. IUCN Endangered. All three are Schedule I — cannot be hunted by any person.
2018
UPSC Prelims 2018 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · IPM · Grassland succession · Biodiversity hotspots · Eco-sensitive zones · Steel industry pollutants
18 Qs
2018 · Q1AgricultureEasy
What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘Integrated Pest Management’ strategy?
1. It helps in the judicious use of pesticides along with other crop protection methods.
2. It is an effective method of preventing crop loss due to migratory pests.
3. It results in significant savings in the cost of cultivation.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only(1) ✅ IPM’s core principle is JUDICIOUS use of pesticides — using them as a last resort when pest populations exceed economic threshold, combined with biological control, resistant varieties, and cultural practices. (2) ❌ IPM is NOT particularly effective against MIGRATORY pests. Migratory insects (locusts, armyworm, whitefly) arrive in massive numbers from distant areas — local farm-level IPM cannot prevent this. Migratory pest management requires coordinated regional/national/international response. (3) ✅ By reducing pesticide use (which can be 20-30% of input costs) and preventing crop loss through integrated strategies, IPM significantly reduces cultivation costs. Studies show 30-60% reduction in pesticide expenses with IPM.
2018 · Q2EcologyModerate
In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of:
✅ Answer: (d) Grazing animalsIn normal ecological succession, pioneer vegetation (grasses) should eventually be replaced by shrubs and then trees (secondary succession toward a forest climax). In grasslands, this doesn’t happen primarily because of grazing animals: Large herbivores (cattle, deer, bison, wildebeest) browse tree seedlings before they can establish. Grasses regrow from roots after grazing; trees cannot regrow their shoots as easily. Grazing creates a “disturbance regime” that maintains the grassland state — preventing succession to forest. Also important but secondary: fire (also prevents tree establishment). Natural fires alone would not fully explain the grassland persistence — grazing is the primary biological factor. The UPSC answer key specifies “grazing” as the key answer.
2018 · Q3PollutionModerate
Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 — all are pollutants from steel industrySteel manufacturing involves multiple emission sources: (1) ✅ SO₂: From burning sulphur-containing coke and coal in blast furnaces; also from sintering iron ore which contains sulfur compounds. (2) ✅ NOₓ: From high-temperature combustion processes (blast furnaces, steel converters) — high temperatures cause atmospheric N₂ + O₂ → NO, NO₂. (3) ✅ CO: Iron ore reduction in blast furnaces: Fe₂O₃ + CO → Fe + CO₂. Incomplete combustion also produces CO. CO is a significant concern in steelplant worker safety. Also blast furnace gas is rich in CO (25-28%) — used as fuel. (4) ✅ CO₂: Steel is one of the most CO₂-intensive industries — ~8% of global CO₂. Coking coal combustion + calcination of limestone (flux) in blast furnace both produce CO₂. All four pollutants are genuinely emitted.
2018 · Q4Species in NewsModerate
Which one of the following is the correct description of the ‘Asiatic Lion’?
Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (a) 1 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ✅ CORRECT: Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo persica) is found naturally ONLY in India — specifically the Gir Forest and surrounding areas of Saurashtra, Gujarat. Once widespread from Greece to India, they were hunted to near extinction. India’s Gir population (~700 lions, 2023 census) is the ONLY wild Asiatic Lion population in the world. IUCN: Endangered. Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: Double-humped (Bactrian) Camel (Camelus bactrianus) is found naturally across Central Asia — Mongolia, China, Russia, Kazakhstan. It is NOT found naturally in India. India has single-humped camels (dromedary) in Rajasthan, but not double-humped. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is found naturally only in the Indian subcontinent — in India (Assam — Kaziranga, Pobitora, Manas; West Bengal — Jaldapara) and Nepal (Chitwan, Bardia). Not found anywhere else.
2018 · Q5Protected AreasEasy
In which one of the following states is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
✅ Answer: (a) Arunachal PradeshPakhui (Pakke) Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the East Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is also known as the Pakke Tiger Reserve — a Project Tiger reserve in Arunachal Pradesh’s foothills. Key facts: Part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve. Famous for the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival — conservation of the endangered Hornbill. It is contiguous with Namdapha National Park and forms part of the Kameng-Sonitpur landscape. The Nyishi tribe lives in and around this sanctuary and has been involved in hornbill conservation. This question appeared in UPSC 2018 — testing map-based knowledge of NE India protected areas.
2018 · Q6Species in NewsModerate
Which of the following are found in the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
✅ Answer: (a) Neyyar, Peppara, Shendurney + Kalakad-Mundanthurai TRAgasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (Kerala + Tamil Nadu, UNESCO-recognized 2016) is in the southernmost Western Ghats. Its core and buffer areas include: Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala, Thiruvananthapuram), Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala, Thiruvananthapuram), Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala, Kollam), and Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu, Tirunelveli/Kanyakumari). This is the smallest Biosphere Reserve in India (by some accounts). Rich in medicinal plants. Option B describes the Nilgiri BR region. Option C is wrong (Chinnar, Eravikulam are in the Nilgiri-Anamudi landscape). Option D is Anamalai/Parambikulam in middle Western Ghats.
2017
UPSC Prelims 2017 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · Paris Agreement · Wildlife corridors · Himalayan plants · GEF · Blue Carbon · Cluster bean
18 Qs
2017 · Q1Climate ChangeModerate
With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It serves as financial mechanism for Convention on Biological Diversity and UNFCCC.
2. It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.
3. It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with the aim to protect their environment.
✅ Answer: (a) 1 onlyThe Global Environment Facility (GEF): Statement 1 ✅ CORRECT: GEF serves as the financial mechanism for multiple UN environmental conventions: CBD (biodiversity), UNFCCC (climate), UNCCD (desertification), Stockholm Convention (POPs), Minamata Convention (mercury). This is its primary role — channeling developed-country funds to developing nations for global environmental protection. Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: GEF does NOT conduct scientific research. It is a funding mechanism — it provides grants and supports projects in recipient countries. Scientific research on environment is done by IPCC, UNEP, national research agencies. Statement 3 ❌ WRONG: GEF is NOT an OECD agency. It is an independent organization with 186+ member countries — created at the Rio Earth Summit (1992). Administered by World Bank but governed independently. OECD is a separate economic cooperation organization. GEF’s implementing agencies include UNDP, UNEP, World Bank, ADB, and others.
2017 · Q2BiodiversityModerate
If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only — Sandalwood is NOT Himalayan(1) ✅ Oak (Quercus): Several oak species grow naturally in Himalayas — Himalayan Oak (Quercus leucotrichophora), Green Oak, Banj Oak — they form temperate forests at 1,500–3,000m altitude in Uttarakhand, HP, J&K. Oak forests are ecologically crucial for springs and water retention. (2) ✅ Rhododendron: Abundant in Himalayas at 2,500–4,500m altitude. Sikkim is famous for rhododendrons — Sikkim’s state tree. Uttarakhand has 32 species. Buruns (Himalayan rhododendron) forms entire forests. (3) ❌ Sandalwood (Santalum album): NOT a Himalayan species. Sandalwood grows in tropical and subtropical regions — naturally in Karnataka (especially Mysore region), Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh. It requires specific dry deciduous forest conditions — NOT Himalayan conditions.
2017 · Q3Climate ChangeModerate
With reference to the Paris Agreement, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It covers climate change, biodiversity and desertification.
2. The commitments made therein will be binding on all the parties.
3. It talks about ‘Climate Justice’.
✅ Answer: (c) 3 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: Paris Agreement covers ONLY climate change (under UNFCCC). Biodiversity is covered by CBD; desertification by UNCCD. These are three separate conventions. Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: The NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions — emission reduction pledges) under Paris Agreement are NOT legally binding. Countries are legally obligated to SUBMIT NDCs and REPORT on progress, but the specific emission targets within NDCs are self-determined and not legally enforceable. This was the key compromise that allowed universal participation (190+ parties). The overall 1.5/2°C goal is aspirational, not enforceable. Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The Paris Agreement Preamble explicitly acknowledges “climate justice” — recognizing that climate change is an issue of equity: developed nations historically responsible must support developing nations’ transitions. India specifically championed climate justice language in Paris negotiations.
2016
UPSC Prelims 2016 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · Carbon credits · Species in news · International conventions · Himalayan ecosystem · Tiger reserves
18 Qs
2016 · Q1Climate ChangeModerate
With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Agreement is binding on all the parties and each party will set its own target for emission reduction and the target will be binding on it.
2. The Agreement will have dedicated section for adaptation and will provide finance to developing countries for adaptation.
3. The Agreement recognises the common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities, in the light of different national circumstances.
✅ Answer: (c) 2 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: NDC targets set by parties are NOT binding (as explained in 2017 Q3). Countries are obligated to make targets and report — but the specific numbers in NDCs are not internationally enforceable. Statement 2 ✅ CORRECT: Paris Agreement has a dedicated Article 7 on adaptation — recognizing adaptation as a key priority. It supports developing countries’ adaptation efforts through climate finance (the $100 billion/year commitment). The Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA) was a major outcome of COP28 (Dubai). Statement 3 ✅ CORRECT: The Paris Agreement explicitly uses the “CBDR-RC” (Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities) principle — though it adds “in the light of different national circumstances” (a modification that India and developing countries secured, acknowledging that responsibilities differ based on development level and historical emissions).
2016 · Q2Protected AreasModerate
Which National Park has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
✅ Answer: (d) Namdapha National ParkNamdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh is famous for having the most diverse climate range of any National Park in India — from tropical (foothills ~200m altitude) → subtropical → temperate → alpine/arctic (high Himalayan peaks ~4,500m altitude). This results in extraordinary biodiversity. Namdapha is home to 4 big cat species (Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Clouded Leopard) — possibly the only NP with all four. It contains species from tropical elephants to cold-adapted Snow Leopard in the same park. Khangchendzonga NP (Sikkim) is primarily temperate-alpine. Nanda Devi NP is high-altitude only. Neora Valley NP (WB) has range from subtropical to alpine but not the full tropical-to-arctic range of Namdapha.
2016 · Q3BiodiversityModerate
The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of:
✅ Answer: (a) Biosphere ReservesOnly Biosphere Reserves are explicitly designed to conserve biodiversity TOGETHER WITH traditional human life in the Transition/Cooperation zone. National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries prohibit or severely restrict human habitation and traditional activities. Botanical gardens conserve plant species ex-situ (outside natural habitat) — not with human communities. Biosphere Reserves under UNESCO’s MAB programme have three zones: Core (strict protection), Buffer (limited research/tourism), Transition (human settlements, traditional practices). Local communities in the transition zone practice traditional livelihoods — farming, herding, fishing, traditional medicine — as partners in conservation, not obstacles to it. This is the unique feature that makes Biosphere Reserves the correct answer for “conservation TOGETHER WITH traditional human life.”
2015
UPSC Prelims 2015 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · Khangchendzonga · Eco-Sensitive Zones · Wildlife Protection Act · Forest rights · Green buildings
18 Qs
2015 · Q1Protected Areas/LawModerate
Consider the following statements about Eco-Sensitive Zones:
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.
Which of the above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 — both statements are wrongStatement 1 ❌ WRONG: Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (EPA) — NOT the Wildlife Protection Act 1972. MoEFCC notifies ESZs as buffer zones around NPs and WLS under EPA 1986. Statement 2 ❌ WRONG: ESZs do NOT prohibit all human activities. Instead, they REGULATE activities based on three categories: (a) Prohibited activities (e.g., mining, sand quarrying, new industrial plants); (b) Regulated activities (requiring permission — e.g., felling trees, establishment of hotels, hydro projects); (c) Permitted activities (e.g., ongoing agriculture, grazing, non-mechanized fishing, existing roads). Agriculture is generally allowed — so prohibiting “all activities except agriculture” is completely wrong. ESZs are meant to minimize harmful impacts on the PA while allowing sustainable traditional activities.
2014
UPSC Prelims 2014 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · Biodiversity conservation · Food chains · GEF · Biosphere reserves · Lake ecology
18 Qs
2014 · Q1EcologyModerate
Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of:
✅ Answer: (b) Algae and FungiLichens are a classic example of mutualistic symbiosis between: Fungi (mycobiont — the dominant partner, 90% of the lichen mass) and Algae or cyanobacteria (photobiont — provides photosynthates/food to the fungus). The fungi provide: structure, moisture retention, mineral absorption from rock. The algae/cyanobacteria provide: photosynthetic products (glucose), and in cyanobacteria’s case — also nitrogen fixation. Lichens are primary succession pioneers: they grow on bare rock with NO soil, break down rock surface chemically (through acid secretion) and physically, accumulating organic matter that allows mosses then ferns then higher plants to establish. Over geological time, they contribute to soil formation. The question specifically mentions “bare rock succession” to hint at lichens’ ecological role.
2013
UPSC Prelims 2013 — Environment & Ecology
~18 questions · Food chains · Ecological succession · Niche · Decomposers · E-waste · Coral reefs · Freshwater · Mycorrhiza
18 Qs
2013 · Q1EcologyEasy
With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
A. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
B. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
C. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (a) A onlyA ✅ CORRECT: A food chain shows the SEQUENCE of organisms feeding on each other — who eats whom — from producers (plants) through various consumer levels to top predators. Example: Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle. B ❌ WRONG: Food chains are found between DIFFERENT SPECIES at different trophic levels — NOT within a single species population. Animals of the same species generally don’t eat each other (cannibalism exists but is not a food chain). Food chains connect different species. C ❌ WRONG: Food chains illustrate the SEQUENCE (order of who eats whom) — NOT the NUMBERS of organisms. Numbers of organisms are shown by ecological pyramids of numbers (Pyramid of Numbers). Food chain ≠ numerical abundance. This is a conceptual distinction often tested.
2013 · Q2EcologyEasy
Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
✅ Answer: (d) Ecological NicheClassic ecology definitions to distinguish: Habitat: The PHYSICAL PLACE where an organism lives (e.g., “a pond” is the habitat of a frog). Habitat = address. Ecological Niche: The niche includes BOTH the physical space (habitat) AND the organism’s functional role — what it eats, when it’s active, how it interacts with other organisms, its position in the food web. Niche = profession. “No two species can occupy the same niche” — Competitive Exclusion Principle (Gause). Ecotone: The transition/boundary zone between two ecosystems (e.g., the edge between forest and grassland). Ecosystem: A community of organisms + their abiotic environment functioning together. The question specifically asks for the term that covers BOTH physical space AND functional role — answer = Ecological Niche.
2013 · Q3EcologyEasy
With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organisms is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b/d) 2 and 3 only — Fungi and BacteriaDecomposers (Saprotrophes/Saprotrophs) are organisms that break down dead organic matter into simpler inorganic substances (nutrients) — completing the nutrient cycle. Fungi ✅: Major decomposers — secrete enzymes (cellulases, lignases, proteases) that break down complex organic polymers (cellulose, lignin, proteins) externally. Particularly important for wood decomposition. Bacteria ✅: The other major group of decomposers — break down dead matter in soil and water. Nitrifying bacteria, putrefying bacteria are key examples. Virus ❌: Viruses are NOT decomposers. They are intracellular parasites — they can only replicate inside living host cells. They do not break down dead organic matter. Viruses have no metabolic enzymes of their own to decompose substances. They are neither producers, consumers, nor decomposers in the conventional ecological sense.
2013 · Q4EcologyEasy
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
✅ Answer: (c) Mangroves → Grasslands → Lakes → OceansNet Primary Productivity (NPP) in g C/m²/year (approximate): Mangroves: ~1,000–3,500 (most productive coastal/tropical ecosystem — nutrient-rich, year-round warmth, tidal input) → Grasslands: ~600–1,500 (tropical savannas highest; temperate grasslands lower) → Lakes: ~400–700 (depends on nutrients/eutrophication; nutrient-limited otherwise) → Open Oceans: ~100–150 (nutrient-limited; only surface photic zone productive; vast low-productivity areas). The key insight: OPEN OCEANS have the LOWEST productivity per unit area (despite being largest ecosystems by total area). Mangroves and coral reefs are highly productive despite small area.
2013 · Q5PollutionEasy
Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1. Beryllium
2. Cadmium
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Lead
7. Plutonium
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only (not Heptachlor and not Plutonium)Common toxic materials in computers/electronics: (1) ✅ Beryllium: Found in motherboards, connectors, relays — a carcinogen. (2) ✅ Cadmium: In rechargeable batteries (NiCd), semiconductors, chip resistors. (3) ✅ Chromium: Hexavalent chromium used in metal plating on circuit boards — carcinogen. (5) ✅ Mercury: In LCD backlights (CCFL lamps), switches, relays. (6) ✅ Lead: Historically in solder (now Pb-free solder exists); CRT glass contains high lead. (4) ❌ Heptachlor: A pesticide/insecticide (organochlorine) — NOT an electronics component. Not found in computer e-waste. (7) ❌ Plutonium: A radioactive element used in nuclear weapons/reactors — absolutely NOT found in consumer electronics like computers. This is clearly wrong.
2013 · Q6WaterEasy
On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion:
✅ Answer: (c) GroundwaterEarth’s water distribution: Total water: 97.5% saltwater (oceans), 2.5% freshwater. Of the 2.5% freshwater: ~69% exists as ice caps/glaciers. Of the remaining freshwater (non-frozen): ~30% is groundwater (underground aquifers — the largest reservoir of liquid freshwater) → ~0.9% surface water (lakes, rivers, swamps) → ~0.04% atmosphere (moisture, clouds) → ~0.04% soil moisture. Groundwater is by far the largest liquid freshwater reservoir. India’s over-extraction of groundwater is a critical environmental challenge (CGWA data shows declining water tables across Punjab, Haryana, UP, Rajasthan). This fundamental hydrological fact is important for UPSC.
2013 · Q7BiodiversityModerate
Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to:
✅ Answer: (a) Resist drought and increase absorptive areaMycorrhizae (Greek: “fungus-root”) are symbiotic associations between plant roots and soil fungi. Two main types: Ectomycorrhizae (mantle on root surface) and Endomycorrhizae (AM fungi — most common, fungal hyphae penetrate root cells). Key functions in degraded site rehabilitation: (a) ✅ Resist drought: Fungal hyphae extend far beyond roots, accessing soil water unavailable to roots. Also improve soil aggregation reducing evaporation. Increase absorptive area: Hyphae can extend 10-100× the absorptive area of roots — massive increase in nutrient and water uptake. Phosphorus absorption is a key specific benefit (phosphorus moves slowly in soil; hyphae help immensely). Note: While “absorb phosphorus” is a true specific benefit, the UPSC answer here is (a) based on the broader context of drought resistance AND absorptive area. This question has some ambiguity — the official key marked (a).
2013 · Q8PollutionEasy
Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by:
✅ Answer: (c) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphurAcid rain forms when SO₂ and NOₓ react with water vapour in atmosphere: SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃ (weak) → further → H₂SO₄ (sulfuric acid — main acid rain component). NOₓ + H₂O → HNO₃ (nitric acid — second major component). Normal rain pH = 5.6 (slightly acidic due to CO₂ dissolving). Acid rain = pH < 5.6. Sources: Coal power plants (SO₂ + NOₓ), automobile exhaust (NOₓ), industrial smelters (SO₂). Effects: Forest destruction (especially conifers), lake acidification (kills fish), soil nutrient leaching, monument damage (Taj Mahal damage from Mathura refinery). Note: CO₂ does form carbonic acid (CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃) making normal rain slightly acidic — but acid rain specifically refers to pollution from SO₂ and NOₓ reducing pH much further.
SPL
Species in News · Ramsar Convention · Wildlife Legislation
Topic-wise compilation of all PYQs on these 3 high-yield categories (2013–2025)
35+ Qs
🦁 A. Species in News
2022Species in NewsModerate
With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 1 and 3 onlyDugong (Dugong dugon) — the “Sea Cow” — is the world’s only strictly marine herbivorous mammal, grazing exclusively on seagrasses. Statement 1 ✅: Entirely herbivorous. Statement 2 ❌: NOT found along the entire coast. Restricted to: Gulf of Mannar (primary habitat), Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands. India’s dugong population is estimated at only ~200. Statement 3 ✅: Schedule I of WPA 1972 — highest protection, same as tiger and elephant. India designated a Dugong Conservation Reserve in Gulf of Mannar. IUCN: Vulnerable.
2021Species in NewsEasy
Which one of the following is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
✅ Answer: (c) Gangetic River DolphinThe Gangetic River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) / Susu was declared India’s National Aquatic Animal in October 2009. Completely blind (vestigial eyes, no lens) — navigates by echolocation. Found in Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna river system (India, Nepal, Bangladesh). IUCN: Endangered. Schedule I, WPA 1972. Project Dolphin announced 2020. Key threats: sand dredging, net bycatch, dams, river pollution, boat propellers. Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary (Bihar) = key protected site. State animal of Assam.
2021Species in NewsModerate
Regarding Ganges River Dolphins, consider the following:
1. Other than poaching, use of synthetic fertilizers and agricultural chemicals near rivers also contributes to their decline.
2. Ganges River Dolphins are found only in India.
3. They are listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Which is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ✅: Agricultural chemical runoff causes eutrophication, bioaccumulates in dolphins (top predators), and degrades prey habitat — a genuine documented threat. Statement 2 ❌: NOT found only in India — also found in Nepal and Bangladesh. Statement 3 ✅: IUCN status = Endangered.
2020Species in NewsModerate
Consider the following pairs — Wildlife : Location
1. Musk Deer — Greater Himalayas and Trans-Himalayan region
2. Snow Leopard — Siachen Glacier region only
3. Hump-backed Mahseer — Cauvery River
Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 3 onlyPair 1 ✅: Musk Deer — Greater Himalayas and Trans-Himalayan region (Uttarakhand, HP, J&K, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh). Schedule I. IUCN: Endangered. Heavily poached for musk pods. Pair 2 ❌: Snow Leopard is NOT restricted to Siachen Glacier only — found across J&K, Ladakh, HP, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh at 3,000–5,400m. IUCN: Vulnerable. India has ~718 snow leopards (SPAI 2019–23). Pair 3 ✅: Hump-backed Mahseer (Tor remadevii) — Critically Endangered, endemic ONLY to the Cauvery River basin (Karnataka, Tamil Nadu).
2020Species in NewsModerate
‘Lithops’ is correctly described as which of the following?
✅ Answer: (b) Succulent plants resembling stonesLithops (“Living Stones” / “Pebble Plants”) are succulent plants native to southern Africa (Namibia, South Africa). They mimic surrounding rocks and pebbles as camouflage against herbivores — growing almost entirely underground with only the flat top surface exposed. Extraordinary example of plant mimicry/crypsis. Family: Aizoaceae. Not Mediterranean, not bioluminescent, not marine.
2019Species in NewsModerate
Why is the plant Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news?
✅ Answer: (d) Reduces biomass available to livestockProsopis juliflora (Mesquite / Vilayati Kikar) — invasive alien species from Central America, introduced in India in the 1960s for arid afforestation. Now a serious ecological pest: spreads aggressively in degraded lands, grasslands, and wastelands; forms dense thorny monocultures; depletes groundwater (deep taproots); allelopathic chemicals inhibit native plants; thorns make grazing impossible — drastically reducing livestock pasture. Invading Great Indian Bustard habitat in Rajasthan. One of India’s worst invasive species.
2018Species in NewsModerate
Consider the following:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (a) 1 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ✅: Asiatic Lion — naturally found ONLY in India’s Gir Forest, Gujarat (~700 lions, 2023 census). IUCN: Endangered. Statement 2 ❌: Double-humped (Bactrian) Camel — found naturally in Central Asia (Mongolia, China, Kazakhstan), NOT India. India has only single-humped dromedary camels in Rajasthan. Statement 3 ✅: Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros — found only in the Indian subcontinent: India (Kaziranga, Pobitora, Manas, Jaldapara) and Nepal (Chitwan, Bardia). IUCN: Vulnerable. Population ~4,000.
2018Protected Areas / SpeciesModerate
Which of the following are found in the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
✅ Answer: (a) Neyyar + Peppara + Shendurney + Kalakad-Mundanthurai TRAgasthyamala Biosphere Reserve (Kerala + Tamil Nadu, UNESCO-recognised 2016) — southernmost Western Ghats. Contains: Neyyar WLS, Peppara WLS, Shendurney WLS (all Kerala, Thiruvananthapuram/Kollam districts) and Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu). Rich in rare medicinal plants; home to lion-tailed macaque and Nilgiri tahr. Option B describes the Nilgiri BR landscape. Options C and D describe different Western Ghats areas.
2018Protected AreasEasy
In which state is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
✅ Answer: (a) Arunachal PradeshPakhui / Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary (also Pakke Tiger Reserve) — East Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh. Part of Kameng Elephant Reserve. Famous for the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival (Great Hornbill conservation by the Nyishi tribe). Contiguous with Namdapha NP; forms the Kameng-Sonitpur wildlife landscape. Tests map-based knowledge of NE India protected areas.
2017Species in NewsModerate
If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside cattle to seize insects disturbed by their movement. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork   2. Common Myna   3. Black-necked Crane
✅ Answer: (b) 2 only — Common MynaCommon Myna ✅: Follows cattle and farm equipment to catch insects flushed from grass. Highly adaptable, opportunistic forager. Painted Stork ❌: Wetland bird — wades in shallow water to tactile-forage for fish. Does NOT follow cattle. Black-necked Crane ❌: High-altitude wetland bird (Ladakh, Arunachal Pradesh) feeding on plant tubers and aquatic invertebrates — not in cattle-grazed grasslands. Note: Cattle Egret (Bubulcus ibis) is the most famous cattle-following bird but was not in the options.
2016Species / AgricultureModerate
With reference to ‘Guar’ (Cluster Bean), which of the following is/are correct?
1. Guar gum is used in the food processing industry.
2. Guar gum is used in the shale gas extraction industry.
3. Guar gum is used as an alternative to gelatin in the pharmaceutical industry.
✅ Answer: (d) All three correctCluster Bean / Guar (Cyamopsis tetragonoloba) — drought-tolerant legume. Rajasthan produces ~80% of world’s guar gum supply. Uses of Guar Gum: (1) ✅ Food: Thickener/stabilizer in ice cream, baked goods, salad dressings. (2) ✅ Shale gas fracking: Gives hydraulic fracturing fluid the right viscosity to carry sand into rock fractures — the US shale boom caused a global guar price surge massively benefitting Rajasthan farmers. (3) ✅ Pharma: Tablet binder; plant-based vegetarian/vegan alternative to animal-derived gelatin. All three correct.
2015Species / Protected AreaEasy
Which of the following is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports rich biodiversity?
✅ Answer: (b) Keibul Lamjao National ParkKeibul Lamjao NP (Manipur) is the world’s only floating national park — on Loktak Lake. Characterised by phumdis (floating biomass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter). Only remaining natural habitat of the Sangai (Brow-antlered Deer, Rucervus eldii eldii) — Manipur’s state animal, IUCN Endangered. Loktak Lake is also a Ramsar Site. Bhitarkanika = mangroves + saltwater crocodiles (Odisha). Keoladeo = Ramsar Site, migratory birds (Rajasthan). Sultanpur = migratory waterbirds near Delhi.
2014Species / Tribal EcologyModerate
Every year a month-long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following is that festival?
✅ Answer: (d) Wangala — Garo tribe harvest festivalWangala is the harvest festival of the Garo tribe of Meghalaya (also Assam, Tripura). Celebrated after paddy harvest; involves planting of fruit-bearing trees, traditional 100-drum dance, and agricultural thanksgiving. UPSC tests tribal ecological traditions regularly. Dhanu Yatra = Odishan drama festival. Navratri = pan-Indian religious festival. Pahiyas = Philippine harvest festival.
2013Coral ReefsEasy
Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans
✅ Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only — Sunderbans has NO coral reefsIndia’s four major coral reef regions: (1) ✅ A&N Islands — largest/most diverse, fringing reefs. (2) ✅ Gulf of Kachchh — India’s first Marine National Park (1982), patchy reefs. (3) ✅ Gulf of Mannar — India’s first Marine Biosphere Reserve, 21 islands. (4) ❌ Sunderbans — World’s largest mangrove DELTA; sediment-laden, turbid estuarine water completely unsuitable for coral growth. Corals need clear, nutrient-poor, well-oxygenated saltwater. Also: Lakshadweep (atoll reefs) = 4th major reef zone, not in options.
🌊 B. Ramsar Convention
2019 & 2020 — repeated!Ramsar ConventionModerate
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules 2010 were framed based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the above is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 3 only — ⚠️ Asked in BOTH 2019 and 2020!Statement 1 ❌: Ramsar does NOT mandate India to protect ALL its wetlands — only designated Ramsar Sites. Parties must designate at least one site and manage it wisely. Statement 2 ❌: WCM Rules 2010 were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 — NOT based on Ramsar recommendations. Independently developed by MoEFCC. Statement 3 ✅: WCM Rules 2010 DO encompass “drainage area or catchment region” — recognising that a wetland’s health depends on its entire catchment, not just the wetland footprint. Key Ramsar facts for UPSC: Signed 2 February 1971 (Ramsar, Iran) | World Wetlands Day = 2 February | India has 93 Ramsar Sites (Sept 2025) | First Indian sites = Chilika Lake (Odisha) + Keoladeo NP (Rajasthan) — both 1981 | Largest = Sundarbans | Smallest = Renuka Wetland (HP).
2023Ramsar ConventionEasy
If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?
✅ Answer: (a) Ecological character changes due to human interferenceThe Montreux Record is the “danger list” within the Ramsar system — a register of Ramsar Sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur due to human interference. Does NOT impose mandatory legal prohibitions or specific restoration requirements — instead triggers international attention and technical assistance. India’s sites on the Record: Keoladeo NP (Bharatpur, Rajasthan — removed 2011 after improved management); Loktak Lake (Manipur — impacted by Ithai Barrage).
2014Ramsar ConventionEasy
India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many Ramsar Sites. Which of the following best describes how we should maintain these sites?
✅ Answer: (d) Ecosystem approach + simultaneous sustainable use = “Wise Use”The Ramsar Convention’s core philosophy is “Wise Use”: “the maintenance of ecological character within the context of sustainable development.” Ramsar explicitly promotes SIMULTANEOUS sustainable use — communities can fish, use water, and practice traditional agriculture alongside conservation. Option D perfectly captures this. Wise use ≠ preservation (no access). It recognises that human well-being and wetland conservation are complementary.
2017Ramsar ConventionEasy
Which one of the following is associated with the issue of wetlands and their conservation?
✅ Answer: (d) Ramsar ConventionThe Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971, Iran) is the only international treaty focused specifically on wetland conservation. Core principle: “Wise Use.” 170+ contracting parties. World Wetlands Day = 2 February. India: 93 Ramsar Sites. First Indian sites (1981): Chilika Lake + Keoladeo NP. Largest: Sundarbans Wetland. Smallest: Renuka Wetland (HP). Other protocols: Cartagena = biosafety/GMOs (under CBD) | Nagoya = access and benefit-sharing (under CBD) | Kyoto = GHG emission cuts (under UNFCCC).
⚖️ C. Wildlife Legislation
2022Wildlife LegislationModerate
With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following:
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (b) 2 onlyStatement 1 ❌: Wild animals are vested in the government — but NOT described as “sole” property with absolute ownership (State and Central governments share jurisdiction). The absolute framing is inaccurate. Statement 2 ✅: Schedule I animals (tigers, elephants, gharials etc.) are protected with identical legal provisions EVERYWHERE — inside or outside protected areas. Protection doesn’t end at NP boundaries; poaching is illegal anywhere in India. Explicitly stated in WPA 1972. Statement 3 ❌: Mere “apprehension” (fear) of danger is NOT legally sufficient. WPA 1972 requires: a specific permit from the Chief Wildlife Warden (not any officer), a clear and immediate (not merely feared) threat. Due process is mandatory — “apprehension” alone is not enough.
2022IUCN / CITESModerate
With reference to IUCN and CITES, which of the following is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (b) 2 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ❌: IUCN is NOT a UN organ. It is an independent international union of government and NGO members (founded 1948). It collaborates with UN but is not part of it. CITES is correctly described as an international agreement between governments. Statement 2 ✅: IUCN runs thousands of field conservation and restoration projects globally through its members and commissions. Also maintains the Red List, World Conservation Congress, and conservation guidelines. Statement 3 ✅: CITES is legally binding on its 183 signatory parties. However, it operates through national implementing legislation — countries must enact their own laws to enforce CITES provisions. It does not replace national wildlife laws.
2021Wildlife LegislationModerate
Consider the following statements about Community Reserves:
1. Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’, the Chief Wildlife Warden becomes the governing authority.
2. ‘Community Reserve’ gives more decision-making power to local communities compared to ‘National Park’.
Which is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (b) 2 onlyStatement 1 ❌: Community Reserves are notified by State Governments (not Central Government) under WPA 1972. Managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee (community body) — not the Chief Wildlife Warden alone. Statement 2 ✅: Community Reserves (added by WPA Amendment 2002) are the most community-friendly PA type. Local communities continue traditional uses and participate in management through CRMCs. PA hierarchy most → least restrictive: National Park → Wildlife Sanctuary → Conservation Reserve → Community Reserve. National Parks = most restrictive (no human habitation, no traditional rights). Community Reserves = most flexible (maximum community power).
2021Forest Rights ActModerate
Consider the following about the Forest Rights Act 2006:
1. The definition of ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights.
3. Union Government has the power to notify an area as ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ under Forest Rights Act 2006.
Which is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (c) 1 and 2 onlyStatement 1 ✅: FRA 2006 Section 2(b) defines “Critical Wildlife Habitat” — inviolate areas of NPs and WLS where co-existence with humans is not possible. Statement 2 ✅: Baiga tribe (MP) was the FIRST community to receive habitat rights under FRA 2006 Section 3(1)(e) — in 2019. Habitat rights recognise particularly vulnerable tribal groups’ rights to their ancestral territories. Statement 3 ❌: CWH is notified by State Governments (not Central Government) under FRA 2006, after gram sabha approval and expert committee assessment.
2019Wildlife LegislationModerate
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under specific provisions?
1. Gharial   2. Indian Wild Ass   3. Wild Buffalo
Select the correct answer:
✅ Answer: (d) All three — all are Schedule I speciesAll three are listed under Schedule I of WPA 1972 — the highest protection level. Hunting absolutely prohibited under Section 9, except under specific permits from the Chief Wildlife Warden (when animal poses clear danger to human life). Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus): Schedule I, IUCN Critically Endangered. Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur): Schedule I, found ONLY in Little Rann of Kutch (Gujarat). IUCN: Near Threatened. Wild Buffalo (Bubalus arnee): Schedule I, found in Assam (Manas), Chhattisgarh, Odisha. IUCN: Endangered.
2015Wildlife LegislationModerate
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of WPA 1972, what does it imply?
1. It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
2. It can be traded within India for scientific purposes.
3. Making its products and its trade is illegal in India.
✅ Answer: (b) 1 and 3 onlyStatement 1 ✅: All Schedule I animals receive identical legal protection — no hierarchy within Schedule I. Tiger, elephant, snow leopard, tortoises — all get the same level of protection under Sections 9, 39, 44, 49 of WPA 1972. Statement 2 ❌: Trade of Schedule I animals even for “scientific purposes” is NOT freely permitted. A specific permit from the Chief Wildlife Warden is required; general scientific trade is not allowed. Statement 3 ✅: All products derived from Schedule I species (tortoise shell items, for example) and all trade in them are illegal under WPA 1972.
2015Eco-Sensitive ZonesModerate
Consider the following about Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ):
1. ESZs are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
2. The purpose of ESZ declaration is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.
Which is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2 — both are wrongStatement 1 ❌: ESZs are declared under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 — NOT WPA 1972. MoEFCC notifies ESZs as buffer zones around NPs and WLS under EPA 1986. Statement 2 ❌: ESZs do NOT prohibit ALL activities — they REGULATE based on three categories: (a) Prohibited: mining, sand quarrying, new industrial plants; (b) Regulated (need permission): felling trees, new hotels, hydro projects; (c) Permitted: ongoing agriculture, grazing, non-mechanized fishing, existing roads. Agriculture is PERMITTED (not the only exception) — so “prohibit all except agriculture” is completely wrong.
2013Wildlife LegislationModerate
Under the Indian Patents Act, consider the following:
1. A biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. A seed created by a biological process can be patented in India.
Which is/are correct?
✅ Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2Under Section 3(j) of the Indian Patents Act 1970 (amended 2005): plants, animals, seeds, varieties, species, and “essentially biological processes” for their production or propagation are NOT patentable in India. So NEITHER a biological process to create seeds NOR seeds created by biological processes can be patented. This is a crucial protection against biopiracy and corporate monopoly over seeds — protecting India’s traditional farming systems. Note: the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act 2001 provides a separate sui generis protection system for plant breeders and farmers — distinct from patents.

Legacy IAS — UPSC Civil Services Coaching, Bangalore  |  Sources: Official UPSC question papers (GS Paper I, 2013–2025) · Official UPSC answer keys (upsc.gov.in) · Legacy IAS Bangalore subject-wise PYQ compilations and classroom notes · PIB, MoEFCC, UNFCCC, UNEP, IUCN official publications for answer explanations · NCERT Biology & Environmental Studies (standard textbooks).

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