Current Affairs Quiz 11 July 2025
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Current Affairs Quiz 11 July 2025 For UPSC Exam
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- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
With reference to the Maharashtra Special Public Security Bill, 2024, consider the following statements:
1. The Bill empowers authorities to prosecute any individual suspected of supporting unlawful organisations, even without proven membership.
2. The Bill draws parallels with the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) but is restricted to state jurisdiction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectCorrect Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bill specifically states that only those proven to be members of banned organisations can be prosecuted, not mere suspects or supporters.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Bill indeed draws parallels with UAPA in addressing extremist activities but is applicable only within Maharashtra’s jurisdiction as a state-level law.IncorrectCorrect Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bill specifically states that only those proven to be members of banned organisations can be prosecuted, not mere suspects or supporters.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Bill indeed draws parallels with UAPA in addressing extremist activities but is applicable only within Maharashtra’s jurisdiction as a state-level law. - Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to custodial violence in India, consider the following statements:
1. India has enacted a standalone anti-torture law in compliance with the UN Convention Against Torture.
2. Evidence obtained through custodial confessions is inadmissible under Indian law.
3. The Supreme Court in Prakash Singh v. Union of India mandated the establishment of Police Complaints Authorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?CorrectCorrect Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Incorrect: India has not enacted a standalone anti-torture law. Though it signed the UN Convention Against Torture, it has not ratified it.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act allows admissibility of evidence obtained through custodial confessions under certain conditions, indirectly legitimizing torture.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The Supreme Court in Prakash Singh (2006) mandated the creation of Police Complaints Authorities at the state and district levels to address police misconduct.IncorrectCorrect Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Incorrect: India has not enacted a standalone anti-torture law. Though it signed the UN Convention Against Torture, it has not ratified it.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act allows admissibility of evidence obtained through custodial confessions under certain conditions, indirectly legitimizing torture.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The Supreme Court in Prakash Singh (2006) mandated the creation of Police Complaints Authorities at the state and district levels to address police misconduct. - Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the legal framework governing the right to vote in India:
1. The right to vote in India is a constitutional right under Article 19 of the Constitution.
2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1950, only an ordinary resident aged 18 or above can be registered as a voter.
3. The Election Commission of India derives its authority to revise electoral rolls from Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?CorrectCorrect Answer: (b) Only 2
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Incorrect: The right to vote in India is not a constitutional or fundamental right. It is a statutory right under Section 62 of the RPA, 1951, as upheld in Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006).
• Statement 2 – Correct: Section 19 of RPA, 1950 clearly states that only “ordinary residents” aged 18 or above are eligible to be registered as voters.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The power to revise electoral rolls lies in Section 21 of RPA, 1950, not Section 62 of RPA, 1951 (which pertains to the conduct of elections and voting).IncorrectCorrect Answer: (b) Only 2
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Incorrect: The right to vote in India is not a constitutional or fundamental right. It is a statutory right under Section 62 of the RPA, 1951, as upheld in Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006).
• Statement 2 – Correct: Section 19 of RPA, 1950 clearly states that only “ordinary residents” aged 18 or above are eligible to be registered as voters.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The power to revise electoral rolls lies in Section 21 of RPA, 1950, not Section 62 of RPA, 1951 (which pertains to the conduct of elections and voting). - Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding recent developments on U.S. sanctions and India’s oil imports:
1. The U.S. Sanctioning Russia Act, 2025 mandates a 500% tariff on countries importing oil from Russia.
2. In FY25, over one-third of India’s crude oil imports came from Russia.
3. India has raised its energy security concerns with U.S. lawmakers through formal diplomatic channels.
How many of the above statements are correct?CorrectCorrect Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Incorrect: The proposed 500% tariff is optional, not mandatory. Trump described it as “totally at my option.”
• Statement 2 – Correct: India’s crude oil imports from Russia rose to about 35–40% in FY25, which is over one-third.
• Statement 3 – Correct: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar raised concerns with U.S. lawmakers on July 2, 2025, confirming diplomatic engagement.IncorrectCorrect Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Incorrect: The proposed 500% tariff is optional, not mandatory. Trump described it as “totally at my option.”
• Statement 2 – Correct: India’s crude oil imports from Russia rose to about 35–40% in FY25, which is over one-third.
• Statement 3 – Correct: External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar raised concerns with U.S. lawmakers on July 2, 2025, confirming diplomatic engagement. - Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding India’s efforts to reduce TB mortality:
1. The RATIONS trial in Jharkhand demonstrated that nutritional support could prevent up to 50% of secondary TB cases.
2. Subclinical TB accounts for over half of TB cases in India, making symptom-based screening largely sufficient.
3. Tamil Nadu’s TB initiative, TN-KET, involves routine BMI monitoring and triaging high-risk patients for inpatient care.
How many of the above statements are correct?CorrectCorrect Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Correct: The RATIONS trial showed that nutritional support helped prevent nearly 50% of secondary TB cases.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: Subclinical TB accounts for 40–50%, but symptom-based screening misses these, making it insufficient—not sufficient.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The TN-KET model in Tamil Nadu includes BMI monitoring, risk triaging, and inpatient assessment for high-risk TB patients.IncorrectCorrect Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
• Statement 1 – Correct: The RATIONS trial showed that nutritional support helped prevent nearly 50% of secondary TB cases.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: Subclinical TB accounts for 40–50%, but symptom-based screening misses these, making it insufficient—not sufficient.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The TN-KET model in Tamil Nadu includes BMI monitoring, risk triaging, and inpatient assessment for high-risk TB patients.
