Static Quiz 21 May 2025 (Polity)
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Static Quiz 21 May 2025 (Polity) For UPSC Exam
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- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the President of India?
1. The President can return a Money Bill for reconsideration to the Parliament.
2. The President is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, as per Article 74.
3. The President can appoint a Governor of a State only with the approval of the Chief Minister of that State.
4. The President can declare a Financial Emergency under Article 360 if the financial stability of India is threatened.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAnswer: (a) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration (Article 111); they can only assent to it.
• Statement 2: Correct. Article 74 mandates that the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, as clarified by the 42nd and 44th Amendments.
• Statement 3: Incorrect. The President appoints Governors (Article 155) without requiring the approval of the Chief Minister.
• Statement 4: Correct. Article 360 empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if India’s financial stability or credit is threatened.IncorrectAnswer: (a) 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. The President cannot return a Money Bill for reconsideration (Article 111); they can only assent to it.
• Statement 2: Correct. Article 74 mandates that the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, as clarified by the 42nd and 44th Amendments.
• Statement 3: Incorrect. The President appoints Governors (Article 155) without requiring the approval of the Chief Minister.
• Statement 4: Correct. Article 360 empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency if India’s financial stability or credit is threatened. - Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), consider the following statements:
1. The UPSC is a constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Constitution.
2. The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by the Prime Minister.
3. The UPSC conducts examinations for appointments to the All India Services and Central Services.
4. The UPSC’s recommendations for disciplinary actions against civil servants are binding on the government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?CorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The UPSC is established under Article 315 as a constitutional body.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The Chairman and members are appointed by the President, not the Prime Minister (Article 316).
• Statement 3: Correct. The UPSC conducts examinations for All India Services (e.g., IAS, IPS) and Central Services.
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The UPSC’s recommendations on disciplinary matters are advisory, not binding.IncorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The UPSC is established under Article 315 as a constitutional body.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The Chairman and members are appointed by the President, not the Prime Minister (Article 316).
• Statement 3: Correct. The UPSC conducts examinations for All India Services (e.g., IAS, IPS) and Central Services.
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The UPSC’s recommendations on disciplinary matters are advisory, not binding. - Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:
1. The CAG is appointed by the President and can be removed only through a process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge.
2. The CAG audits the accounts of both the Union and State Governments.
3. The CAG submits its audit reports to the Prime Minister, who presents them to Parliament.
4. The CAG has the power to audit public sector undertakings and local bodies.
How many of the above statements are correct?CorrectAnswer: (c) Only three
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The CAG is appointed by the President (Article 148) and can be removed via a process akin to that of a Supreme Court judge.
• Statement 2: Correct. The CAG audits Union and State Government accounts.
• Statement 3: Incorrect. The CAG submits reports to the President (for Union) or Governor (for States), not the Prime Minister, who then tables them in Parliament or State Legislatures.
• Statement 4: Correct. The CAG audits public sector undertakings and, in some cases, local bodies (e.g., Panchayats, Municipalities).IncorrectAnswer: (c) Only three
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The CAG is appointed by the President (Article 148) and can be removed via a process akin to that of a Supreme Court judge.
• Statement 2: Correct. The CAG audits Union and State Government accounts.
• Statement 3: Incorrect. The CAG submits reports to the President (for Union) or Governor (for States), not the Prime Minister, who then tables them in Parliament or State Legislatures.
• Statement 4: Correct. The CAG audits public sector undertakings and, in some cases, local bodies (e.g., Panchayats, Municipalities). - Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Which of the following actions can be taken by the Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution of India?
1. Formation of a new State by separating territory from an existing State.
2. Changing the name of an existing State.
3. Declaring a foreign territory as a Union Territory of India.
4. Altering the boundaries of an existing State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAnswer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. Article 3 allows Parliament to form new States by separating territory.
• Statement 2: Correct. Parliament can change the name of a State (e.g., Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand).
• Statement 3: Incorrect. Declaring foreign territory as a Union Territory involves international agreements and amendments under Article 1, not Article 3.
• Statement 4: Correct. Article 3 permits altering State boundaries.IncorrectAnswer: (a) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. Article 3 allows Parliament to form new States by separating territory.
• Statement 2: Correct. Parliament can change the name of a State (e.g., Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand).
• Statement 3: Incorrect. Declaring foreign territory as a Union Territory involves international agreements and amendments under Article 1, not Article 3.
• Statement 4: Correct. Article 3 permits altering State boundaries. - Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), consider the following statements:
1. The DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts.
2. The DPSPs aim to establish a welfare state based on social, economic, and political justice.
3. The 42nd Amendment Act added new DPSPs, including the promotion of environmental protection.
4. The DPSPs are superior to Fundamental Rights in case of a conflict, as per the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?CorrectAnswer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. DPSPs (Part IV) are non-justiciable (Article 37).
• Statement 2: Correct. DPSPs aim to promote a welfare state with justice in all spheres.
• Statement 3: Correct. The 42nd Amendment added DPSPs like Article 48A (environmental protection).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. Fundamental Rights are superior to DPSPs, as established in cases like State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), though courts strive to harmonize them.IncorrectAnswer: (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. DPSPs (Part IV) are non-justiciable (Article 37).
• Statement 2: Correct. DPSPs aim to promote a welfare state with justice in all spheres.
• Statement 3: Correct. The 42nd Amendment added DPSPs like Article 48A (environmental protection).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. Fundamental Rights are superior to DPSPs, as established in cases like State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), though courts strive to harmonize them.
