Static Quiz 22 May 2025 (Polity)
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Static Quiz 22 May 2025 (Polity) For UPSC Exam
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- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
1. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
2. One-third of its members retire every two years.
3. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The Rajya Sabha has the exclusive power to initiate Money Bills.
How many of the above statements are correct?CorrectAnswer: (c) Only three
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body (Article 80).
• Statement 2: Correct. One-third of its members retire biennially (Article 83).
• Statement 3: Correct. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman (Article 89).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. Money Bills can only be initiated in the Lok Sabha (Article 109).IncorrectAnswer: (c) Only three
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body (Article 80).
• Statement 2: Correct. One-third of its members retire biennially (Article 83).
• Statement 3: Correct. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman (Article 89).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. Money Bills can only be initiated in the Lok Sabha (Article 109). - Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the National Emergency under Article 356?
1. A National Emergency can be declared only on the grounds of war, external aggression, or Internal Disturbance.
2. The proclamation of a National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
3. During a National Emergency, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
4. The President can suspend the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAnswer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. Article 352 allows a National Emergency for war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Statement 2: Correct. The proclamation requires parliamentary approval within one month (Article 352).
• Statement 3: Correct. Article 19 rights are automatically suspended during a National Emergency (Article 358).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The President can suspend certain Fundamental Rights (via Article 359), but not all, and only through a separate order.IncorrectAnswer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. Article 352 allows a National Emergency for war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Statement 2: Correct. The proclamation requires parliamentary approval within one month (Article 352).
• Statement 3: Correct. Article 19 rights are automatically suspended during a National Emergency (Article 358).
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The President can suspend certain Fundamental Rights (via Article 359), but not all, and only through a separate order. - Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to the Anti-Defection Law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution.
2. The law applies to both Parliament and State Legislatures.
3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly is the final authority to decide on disqualification matters.
4. A member can be disqualified if they voluntarily give up membership of their political party.
Which of the statements given above are correct?CorrectAnswer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Anti-Defection Law is in the Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985.
• Statement 2: Correct. It applies to both Parliament and State Legislatures.
• Statement 3: Correct. The Speaker or Chairman decides disqualification, subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu, 1992).
• Statement 4: Correct. Voluntarily giving up party membership is a ground for disqualification.IncorrectAnswer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Anti-Defection Law is in the Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985.
• Statement 2: Correct. It applies to both Parliament and State Legislatures.
• Statement 3: Correct. The Speaker or Chairman decides disqualification, subject to judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu, 1992).
• Statement 4: Correct. Voluntarily giving up party membership is a ground for disqualification. - Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following pairs regarding constitutional amendments and their purposes:
1. 42nd Amendment – Introduced the word ‘Sovereign’ in the Preamble.
2. 44th Amendment – Restored the right to property as a Fundamental Right.
3. 86th Amendment – Added Article 21A for free and compulsory education.
4. 101st Amendment – Introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?CorrectAnswer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
• Pair 1: Incorrect. The 42nd Amendment (1976) added ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ to the Preamble.
• Pair 2: Incorrect. The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from Fundamental Rights and made it a constitutional right under Article 300A.
• Pair 3: Correct. The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A for education.
• Pair 4: Incorrect. The 101st Amendment (2016) enabled GST, but it was the 122nd Amendment Bill that was passed for this purpose; the 101st Amendment is unrelated.IncorrectAnswer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
• Pair 1: Incorrect. The 42nd Amendment (1976) added ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ to the Preamble.
• Pair 2: Incorrect. The 44th Amendment (1978) removed the right to property from Fundamental Rights and made it a constitutional right under Article 300A.
• Pair 3: Correct. The 86th Amendment (2002) added Article 21A for education.
• Pair 4: Incorrect. The 101st Amendment (2016) enabled GST, but it was the 122nd Amendment Bill that was passed for this purpose; the 101st Amendment is unrelated. - Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Supreme Court of India?
1. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and States.
2. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President in consultation with the Prime Minister.
3. The Supreme Court can review its own judgments under Article 137.
4. The Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction is binding on the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:CorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in Union-State disputes (Article 131).
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President, typically in consultation with other judges, not necessarily the Prime Minister, as per the collegium system.
• Statement 3: Correct. Article 137 allows the Supreme Court to review its own judgments.
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 is not binding.IncorrectAnswer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in Union-State disputes (Article 131).
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The Chief Justice is appointed by the President, typically in consultation with other judges, not necessarily the Prime Minister, as per the collegium system.
• Statement 3: Correct. Article 137 allows the Supreme Court to review its own judgments.
• Statement 4: Incorrect. The Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 is not binding.
