Static Quiz 29 July 2024
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Static Quiz 29 July 2024 for UPSC Prelims
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- Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(1) The Preamble is a source of power to the legislature
(2) Preamble is a part of the Constitution
(3) Preamble cannot be amended
(4) It is non-justiciable, or it is not enforceable in courts of law.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectANSWER: A
In the KesavanandaBharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution and it can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features’. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the Preamble. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature. It is non-justiciable, that is, its
provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.IncorrectANSWER: A
In the KesavanandaBharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution and it can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features’. The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the Preamble. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature. It is non-justiciable, that is, its
provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. - Question 2 of 5
2. Question
The first schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to
(1) Names of States
(2) Names of Union territories
(3) Citizenship
(4) Forms of Oaths and AffirmationSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectANSWER: B
The first schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction and Names of the Union Territories and their extent. Forms of Oaths and Affirmation comes under Third Schedule.
IncorrectANSWER: B
The first schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction and Names of the Union Territories and their extent. Forms of Oaths and Affirmation comes under Third Schedule.
- Question 3 of 5
3. Question
In India, the Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes which of the following ways to acquire citizenship?
(1) By naturalization
(2) By descent
(3) By incorporation of territory
(4) By registrationSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectAnswe:- D
The Citizenship Act (1955) provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955) also provided for Commonwealth Citizenship. But, this provision was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship – birth, descent, registration, naturalization and incorporation of territory.
IncorrectAnswe:- D
The Citizenship Act (1955) provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955) also provided for Commonwealth Citizenship. But, this provision was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003. The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship – birth, descent, registration, naturalization and incorporation of territory.
- Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Article 1 describes India, as a ‘Union of States’ rather than ‘Federation of States’
Reason (R): Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the StatesSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectANSWER: A
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity. According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to
‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation.IncorrectANSWER: A
Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country, and two, type of polity. According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to
‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; and two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. - Question 5 of 5
5. Question
According to the Constitution of India, Article 3 authorises the Parliament to reorganise the States. With this authority, the Parliament can
(1) alter the name of any state
(2) diminish the area of any state
(3) alter the boundaries of any state
(4) increase the area of any stateSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
CorrectANSWER: D
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
* form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
*increase the area of any state,
* diminish the area of any state,
* alter the boundaries of any state, and
* alter the name of any state.IncorrectANSWER: D
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
* form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state,
*increase the area of any state,
* diminish the area of any state,
* alter the boundaries of any state, and
* alter the name of any state.
