Daily Current Affairs Quiz Prelims Practice 2027
- The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, came into force on 1 July 2024.
- Under the Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 1891, a certified copy of an entry in a banker's book is conclusive proof of the entry and cannot be rebutted.
- Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 deals with the admissibility of electronic records and corresponds to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct — the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, and alongside the BNSS, 2023 (which replaced the CrPC), both came into force on 1 July 2024. Statement 2 is incorrect — Section 4 of the 1891 Act actually made a certified copy only prima facie evidence, accepted unless rebutted, not conclusive proof; the new Bankers' Books Evidence Act, 2026 retains this certified-copy framework while extending it to electronic and digital records. Statement 3 is correct, since Section 63 of the BSA governs admissibility of electronic records with a prescribed certificate, succeeding Section 65B of the IEA as interpreted in Anvar P.V. (2014) and Arjun Panditrao Khotkar (2020).
- The Annual Survey of Industries covers factories registered under Sections 2m(i) and 2m(ii) of the Factories Act, 1948.
- The Index of Industrial Production is compiled annually and measures the gross value added by registered factories at current prices.
- Data for the Annual Survey of Industries are collected under the provisions of the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008.
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Statement 1 is correct — the ASI covers factories under Section 2m(i) (10 or more workers, with power) and 2m(ii) (20 or more workers, without power), plus bidi & cigar units and certain electricity undertakings. Statement 2 is incorrect — the IIP is actually a monthly index of the volume of industrial production compiled by the NSO, not an annual value-based measure; annual output, value added, capital and employment figures instead come from the ASI. Statement 3 is correct too, since ASI data are collected under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 (amended 2017) and its 2011 Rules, now entirely through a web portal.
- Statement-I: In a Sequencing Batch Reactor, aeration and settling of sewage take place in the same tank rather than in separate treatment units.
- Statement-II: The Sequencing Batch Reactor is a fill-and-draw activated sludge process in which the treatment steps are carried out in a timed sequence.
- ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is correct — unlike a conventional activated sludge plant, which uses a separate aeration tank and secondary clarifier, an SBR performs fill, react (aerate), settle, decant and idle all in one tank, as used in Jaipur's 215 MLD Dehlawas STP. Statement-II is correct too, since SBR is a fill-and-draw variant of the activated sludge process operated in timed cycles, and this directly explains Statement-I — because the steps are separated in time rather than in space, a single tank suffices for all of them.
- India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023 was notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- The Verified Carbon Standard is a compliance mechanism administered by the UNFCCC secretariat under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect — the CCTS (June 2023) was actually notified under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 (as amended in 2022), with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency as administrator, not the Environment Protection Act. Statement 2 is incorrect too — the Verified Carbon Standard is run by Verra, a non-profit operating in the voluntary carbon market, not a UNFCCC-administered compliance mechanism; Article 6 crediting under the Paris Agreement instead runs through a separate UN-supervised mechanism — Ghaziabad has registered a VCS project expecting about 2.7 lakh credits.
- Varuna — France
- Garuda — France
- Konkan — Japan
- Nomadic Elephant — Mongolia
- AOnly one pair
- BOnly two pairs
- COnly three pairs
- DAll four pairs
Pair 1 is correct — Varuna is the India–France naval exercise, held since 1993 and named Varuna in 2001, with its 24th edition held off Toulon with INS Trishul. Pair 2 is correct, since Garuda is the India–France air force exercise (Shakti being the army exercise). Pair 3 is incorrect — Konkan is actually the India–United Kingdom naval exercise; the India–Japan maritime exercise is instead JIMEX. Pair 4 is correct too, as Nomadic Elephant is the India–Mongolia joint military exercise.
- Article 145(3) of the Constitution requires at least five judges to decide a case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
- Under Article 141 of the Constitution, the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
- Under Article 130, the Supreme Court can sit at a place other than Delhi only after a constitutional amendment ratified by half of the States.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct — Article 145(3) sets a minimum of five judges for such cases and for Article 143 references, and on 23 September 2026 a two-judge Bench split on whether this applied to the challenge to the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023. Statement 2 is correct too, since Article 141 makes the law declared by the Supreme Court binding on all courts in India, the basis of stare decisis in the Indian system. Statement 3 is incorrect — Article 130 actually lets the Court sit in Delhi or elsewhere as the Chief Justice decides, with the President's approval; no constitutional amendment is needed, which is why a permanent Constitution Bench or regional Benches have been proposed administratively.
- Ais held for a continuous period of more than three years
- Bamounts to 10% or more of the post-issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis
- Cis made by an investor from a country with which India has a Bilateral Investment Treaty in force
- Dis made through the automatic route without prior Government approval
Option (b) is correct — under the FEMA (Non-Debt Instruments) Rules, 2019, an investment of 10% or more of the post-issue paid-up equity capital (fully diluted) of a listed company is classified as FDI, below which it is FPI; India adopted this line following the Mayaram Committee (2014), in line with the OECD Benchmark Definition. Options (a), (c), and (d) are NOT the basis for classification — there is no holding-period test, a Bilateral Investment Treaty protects an investment but does not define it as FDI, and the automatic versus Government route concerns approval, not classification; option (a) in particular echoes a reported proposal, not the current rule.
- Iceland
- Norway
- Denmark
- Liechtenstein
- Switzerland
- A1, 2 and 3 only
- B1, 2, 4 and 5 only
- C2, 3, 4 and 5 only
- D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Iceland, Norway, Liechtenstein and Switzerland are the only current members of EFTA, set up in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention, all outside the European Union. Denmark is NOT a member now — it was a founding member but left in 1973 on joining the European Economic Community, as did the UK, making it a tempting but incorrect inclusion given its Nordic profile. This links to the India–EFTA TEPA, in force since 1 October 2025, India's first trade pact with an investment and jobs chapter.
- The national motto Satyameva Jayate, inscribed below the State Emblem of India, is taken from the Mundaka Upanishad.
- Yato Dharmastato Jayah, the motto of the Supreme Court of India, is drawn from the Mahabharata.
- The State Emblem of India is adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka found at Sanchi.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct — Satyameva Jayate ("Truth alone triumphs") is from the Mundaka Upanishad and appears in Devanagari below the emblem. Statement 2 is correct too, since Yato Dharmastato Jayah ("Where there is dharma, there is victory") is drawn from the Mahabharata, while the colonial-era "Heaven's Light, Our Guide" was instead the motto of the Order of the Star of India. Statement 3 is incorrect — the State Emblem, adopted on 26 January 1950, is actually adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath, not Sanchi — a plausible Ashokan-era site swap, since the Lion Capital stands at the site of the first sermon.
- The India Meteorological Department classifies all-India monsoon rainfall below 90% of the Long Period Average as 'deficient'.
- El Niño refers to an anomalous cooling of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean.
- A positive Indian Ocean Dipole is generally associated with enhanced rainfall during the Indian summer monsoon.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct — IMD categories run deficient (<90%), below normal (90–95%), normal (96–104%), above normal (105–110%) and excess (>110%); the 2026 monsoon ended at 87% of the LPA, which is deficient. Statement 2 is incorrect — El Niño is actually anomalous warming, not cooling, of the central and eastern equatorial Pacific; cooling is instead the La Niña phase, and El Niño usually weakens the Indian monsoon. Statement 3 is correct, since a positive IOD — a warmer western Indian Ocean than the eastern — tends to support Indian monsoon rain and can offset El Niño.
- Gandak — Narayani
- Ghaghara — Karnali
- Sharda — Mahakali
- Bagmati — Trishuli
- AOnly one pair
- BOnly two pairs
- COnly three pairs
- DAll four pairs
Pair 1 is correct — the Gandak is the Narayani (Sapta Gandaki) in Nepal, entering India at Valmikinagar and joining the Ganga near Hajipur; a record release in September 2026 breached embankments in West Champaran. Pair 2 is correct, since the Ghaghara is the Karnali in Nepal. Pair 3 is correct too — the Sharda is the Kali/Mahakali, part of the India–Nepal boundary under the 1996 Mahakali Treaty. Pair 4 is incorrect — the Bagmati actually keeps its own name in Nepal, flowing through the Kathmandu valley; the Trishuli is instead a tributary of the Narayani (Gandak) system, a genuine Nepalese river wrongly offered as another river's alias.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is the State bird of Rajasthan, where the Desert National Park forms its last stronghold.
- It was included in Appendix I of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals in 2020.
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is correct — Ardeotis nigriceps is Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List and in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, with about 140 remaining in the wild. Statement 2 is correct too, since it is Rajasthan's State bird, with around 130 (±20) birds living mainly in the Desert National Park (Jaisalmer–Barmer), where the first captive-bred chicks are being released in October 2026. Statement 3 is correct as well — it was listed in CMS Appendix I at COP13, Gandhinagar (2020). All three statements hold, so there is no need to assume one must be false.
- Under Tariff-Based Competitive Bidding, the transmission tariff is fixed by the regulator on a cost-plus basis after the project is commissioned.
- Under the Build-Own-Operate-Maintain model, the private developer retains ownership of the transmission asset it builds.
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect — under TBCB, the tariff is actually discovered through competitive bidding and adopted by the regulator under Section 63 of the Electricity Act, 2003; cost-plus determination instead falls under the separate Section 62, used for brownfield works, so the two methods are alternatives, not combined. Statement 2 is correct, since under BOOM the Transmission Service Provider builds, owns, operates and maintains the asset and recovers the bid tariff, as used in GEC-III (outlay ₹1,86,405 crore) for greenfield lines.
- Statement-I: When the market price of a fixed-coupon government bond falls in the secondary market, the yield on that bond rises.
- Statement-II: The coupon payment on a fixed-rate bond is set at the time of issue and does not change with the bond's market price.
- ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Statement-I is correct — price and yield move inversely, as recently seen when the 30-year US Treasury yield reached about 5.56%, its highest in roughly 25 years, as prices fell on inflation and borrowing concerns. Statement-II is correct too, since the coupon is a fixed payment on face value, set at issue, and this directly explains Statement-I — with a fixed coupon, a lower purchase price means a higher return (a $10 coupon on a bond bought at $100 yields 10%, but bought at $95 yields about 10.5%), so a falling price mechanically produces a rising yield.
- AThe Chairman of the UPSC, on ceasing to hold office, is eligible for appointment as Chairman of a State Public Service Commission.
- BMembers of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
- CA member of the UPSC can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only by Parliament through a special majority.
- DThe expenses of the UPSC, including the salaries of its members, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Option (d) is correct — Article 322 charges the Commission's expenses on the Consolidated Fund of India, a non-votable safeguard of its independence; the UPSC traces its origin to 1 October 1926 and completed 100 years this week. Option (a) is incorrect — under Article 319(a), the UPSC Chairman is actually ineligible for any further employment under the Union or a State, though other members may become Chairman of the UPSC or a State PSC. Option (b) is incorrect, since the term is six years or until age 65 (Article 316(2)), not 62. Option (c) is incorrect too — removal for misbehaviour is by the President after an inquiry by the Supreme Court on a presidential reference (Article 317(1)), with no parliamentary vote involved.


